TESTS Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

A human somatic cell contains how many total autosomes?

A

44

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2
Q

A gamete (egg or sperm) of a fruit fly contains how many chromosomes?

A

4

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3
Q

A species of plant is found to have a haploid number of 7. How many chromatids would be present at the start of Prophase (Mitosis)?

A

28

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4
Q

For the same plant, how many centromeres would you observe at Prophase I of Meiosis ?

A

14

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5
Q

Homologous chromosomes separate at what specific stage of Meiosis?

A

Anaphase I

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6
Q

In a color-blind male human, how many copies of the mutant color-blindness allele would be present in a somatic cell at Prophase?

A

2

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7
Q

The idea that new organs and tissues arise each generation (de novo) is most consistent with which hereditary theory?

A

Epigenesis

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8
Q

In a breed of sheep, only males have horns and males with horns always pass this phenotype to their sons. The Best explanation for this inheritance pattern is?

A

the horn locus is holandric

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9
Q

A phenotypic ratio of 1:1:1:1 is the expected result from a ________ cross?

A

dihybrid recessive backcross

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10
Q

If two plants are crossed and the phenotypic ratio in the progeny is found to be 9:3:4, the genotypes of these plants is most likely:

A

AaBb x AaBb

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11
Q

Pleiotrophy is a genetic term best illustrated by which of the following:

A

two traits affected by one locus

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12
Q

A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio is one classic signature of the ________ mode of inheritance.

A

incomplete dominance

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13
Q

The _______ Rule can be used to combine two or more _____ Ratios to form _____ Ratios.

A

Product / Segregation / Assortment

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14
Q

A “Crisscross” inheritance pattern is frequently observed in the ____ Mode of Inheritance.

A

sex-linked

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15
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

Tetraploid?

A

20

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16
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

Trisomy?

A

11

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17
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

Monosomy?

A

9

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18
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

Triploid?

A

15

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19
Q

A new species of beetle is discovered and several are karyotyped with the Haploid number found to = 5. For each condition below, indicate how many total chromosomes you would expect to observe in a somatic cell of a beetle.

3N+1

A

16

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20
Q
  1. If non‐dysjunction occurs during Meiosis Anaphase II. What is not separating properly?
A

Sister Chromatids

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21
Q

What is not separating properly during mitotic non‐dysjunction?

A

Sister Chromatids

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22
Q

A chromosome has the following segments, where ● represents the centromere.
ABCD•EFGH

The chromosomal change to ABCD●EEFGH would be?

A

Duplication

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23
Q

A chromosome has the following segments, where ● represents the centromere.
ABCD•EFGH

The chromosomal change to AFE●DCBGH would be?

A

Inversion

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24
Q

A chromosome has the following segments, where ● represents the centromere.
ABCD•EFGH

The chromosomal change to ABCD●EFGNOP would be?

A

Translocation

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25
Cri‐du‐chat is due to a?
terminal deletion
26
Male “tortoise shell” cats are rare but they do occur. The most likely cause of this phenotype would be a _________ involving the ________
trisomy / sex chromosomes
27
Dicentric chromatids are one common outcome of crossover in a ______ loop.
Inversion
28
A common method of producing seedless fruit such as watermelons is to make them ___
Autopolyploid
29
The term Endopolyploidy explains variation frequently found in _____ cells of vertebrates.
Liver
30
Maternal Age effect was first associated with which chromosomal syndrome?
Down’s
31
The form of DNA described in Watson‐Crick model was the _____ form
Beta (β)
32
In deoxyribose, the 2’ C has a(n) ____ attached to it.
H
33
Using the rules established in the Watson‐Crick model, a dsDNA fragment that contains 3000 base pairs would be ____________ nm long.
1020
34
Complementarity in DNA structure describes ____________
hydrogen bonding between bases
35
When in an electrical field, DNA will travel toward the ____ charged electrode because DNA is ________ charged.
positively / negatively
36
DNAase, RNAse and Protease were key components of the genetic experiments conducted by?
Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
37
If a DNA molecule of 80 base pairs contains 15 cytosines (C), how many Thymines (T) will it have?
65
38
Phosphodiester bonds connect nucleotides at the _____________________
3’ and 5’ carbons
39
A fragment of dsDNA that is 3000 base pairs long would have __________ Phosphodiester bonds
5998
40
Research by ________ provided the first strong evidence that the Tetranucleotide Hypothesis of DNA structure was not correct.
Chargaff
41
The core structure of Ribose is a ring containing 1 Oxygen and ____ Carbons
4
42
The enzyme that helps break dsDNA into the ssDNA form needed for replication is referred to as _
Helicase
43
In eukaryotic cells, replication only occurs once at each replication start site because ___ attach to the DNA early in the cell cycle
Licensing factors
44
Immediately following replication, how many dsDNA molecules would be present in a somatic cell of a human?
92
45
The lagging strand produced during DNA replication is caused by?
the 5’ to 3’ polarity restriction of DNA polymerase
46
Replication begins at specific sequences called ________
origins
47
During replication, ________ binds to an RNA primer and catalyzes the formation of new DNA Strands. It also exhibits exonuclease activity.
DNA Pol
48
The essential, base material required for DNA synthesis is:
dNTP
49
What would be the result if an organism’s telomerase were mutated and nonfunctional?
Chromosomes would shorten each generation
50
Which of following enzymes replaces RNA primers with DNA fragments?
DNA polymerase
51
DNA binds to nucleosomes because the outside of histones are ___________
positively charged
52
The model hypothesized to explain the condensation of DNA into chromosomes is termed the __________________ model
folded fiber
53
If a gene were to contain 8,000 base pairs, approximately how many nucleosomes would be present in this DNA region?
40
54
Researchers can usually detect that a cell is very close to entering Mitosis or Meiosis by the appearance of a highly specialized protein that is involved in condensation. This protein is?
lamin
55
A species of fish is found to have 10X more DNA than a closely related species. This finding would represent an example of the ________________
C-value paradox
56
Centromeres and Telomeres are frequently used as examples of _____
constitutive heterochromatin
57
The “Type of Nucleotides” found in a region of a chromosome produce its __________
banding pattern
58
The genotypes you generated as data in the Molecular Genotyping laboratory exercise were produced from Microsatellite regions of the DNA. Microsatellites are usually considered to represent what class of nucleotides found on Cot curves ?
highly repetitive (HR)
59
Regions of DNA that comprise what are traditionally called Genes are most commonly associated with _____
unique DNA
60
Unique DNA accounts for approximately _____ percent of the Human genome
5%
61
Degradation of a eukaryotic mRNA is generally protected by ___
Poly(A) tail
62
The first posttranscriptional modification during the maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes is:
G-capping
63
In a Consensus Model of a Eukaryotic Gene, specific regions found upstream of a gene which control the RATE and COPY NUMBER of transcription are termed _____
CCAAT Box
64
RNA is transcribed from ssDNA in a 5’ – 3’ direction. (True / False)
True
65
___contain short sequences (motifs) critical in regulating the binding of RNA Pol to the DNA strand
Promoters
66
Termination site of transcription usually is
GC rich
67
Lariat structure are often associated with _________
spliceosomes
68
A locus in the mitochondria of a fruit fly is found to code for a protein of 600 amino acids. What is the minimum number of nucleotides that would be needed to efficiently code for this peptide?
1804
69
The _____ site of the ______ is where the first tRNA inserts during Translation.
P / small subunit
70
Some amino acids could be coded by more one codon. The term associated with this property of the genetic code is:
degenerate
71
Each of the following are Stop / Term codons except?
UCA
72
Which of following activities occurs in the cytoplasm:
Translation
73
Peptidyl transferase is active during____ and is a _____:
Translation, protein
74
If a point mutation occurs where A replaces C, this would be a ______ mutation
transversion
75
The insertion of a retro-transposon near the VvmybA1 gene is one mutation producing __
white grapes
76
A change at the nucleotide level that results in a change in an amino acid?
missense
77
Depurination and Deamination based mutations are generally considered ____ mutations?
spontaneous
78
The oxidative modification of G in DNA leads to the formation of 8-oxodG, which pairs with ____ resulting in mutation
T
79
The most common form of Sickle Cell Anemia is an example of ____ mutation
point mutation
80
Usually, ______ sequences are part of and at both ends of most transposable elements
Terminal inverted repeat
81
The most cost efficient (in terms of energy) place for a cell to regulate gene expression is:
Transcription
82
If you were asked to describe how “genes” are distributed on chromosomes, the best answer would be: Genes are __________________________
concentrated in random, separated areas
83
A Constitutive “gene” is one that is _______ and a good example would be ________
always on / tRNA
84
Removal (disassociation) of a Repressor protein from a gene’s Promoter region by the formation of a Repressor / Activator complex is one example of _____ Gene Regulation
Negative
85
A Glucocorticoid Response Element is a ____________________
a DNA region that is attached to by a receptor protein
86
While there may be reasons that someone might not want to drink cows’ milk containing the hormone rBGH, the amount of hormone in the milk is generally not a direct problem for humans because ______________
human cells do not generally have receptor proteins that recognize rBGH
87
Acetylation and De-Acetylation of ________ is one way that transcription of DNA is commonly regulated. Acetylation generally permits transcription while De-Acetylation blocks transcription.
Histone “tails”
88
Fruit flies exhibit the ______ Mode of Sex Determination with _______ of the mRNA from the tra gene being responsible for development of the gender phenotype
Lygaeus / alternate splicing
89
In mammals, only the paternal allele for the Insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF2) locus is active. This occurs because the _____ on the homolog provided by the male is methylated.
Insulator
90
Loci were the expression of alleles is determined by the parent that contributed the allele as in the example given in Question 49 above are examples of _____
Genetic Imprinting