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Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 1 > The ''Ologies'' > Flashcards

The ''Ologies'' Flashcards

1
Q

Paired serology (2 samples, 2-4 weeks apart) typically documents rising plasma levels of _________ as a confirmatory test for many infectious diseases. Choices: IgA, IgM or IgG.

A

IgG

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2
Q

What is the term that describes the presence of band neutrophils in the circulation as a consequence of increased tissue demand for neutrophils?

A

Left shift. (Virage à gauche). A left shift indicates a decreased granulocyte reserve and usually denotes a tissue demand for neutrophils. In severe situations, they may be followed by neutrophilic metamyelocytes.

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3
Q

Adenocarcinoma of which organ as been associated with a paraneoplasic alopecia in cats?

A

The pancreas. The glistening appearance of the skin is responsible for the colloquial term for this disorder: ‘‘shiny cat disease’’.

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4
Q

Which adverse effect involving the urinary tract can the antineoplastic drug cyclophosphamide cause?

A

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis, caused by the drug metabolite acrolein.

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5
Q

There are at least 4 indications for the use of antimicrobial combinations instead of antibiotic monotherapy. Name 2.

A

1) Superior efficacy in serious infections
2) Polymicrobial infections/broad-spectrum coverage
3) Prevention of emergence of resistance to 1 drug
4) Lower risk of toxicity

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6
Q

Which hematological changes are typical for acute disease associated with Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

Variable degrees of thrombocytopenia +/- leukopenia +/- anemia

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7
Q

Which condition is said to be present in a patient with jugular venous distension, pleural effusion, hepatomegaly, and ascites?

A

Right-sided congestive heart failure

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8
Q

Portosystemic shunts in dogs can be associated with which change in erythrocytes: Heinz bodies, basophilic stippling, or microcytosis?

A

Microcytosis

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9
Q

What is the basis for resistance to beta-lactam antibodies such as ampicillin or penicillin in some strains of Staphylococcus?

A

Plasmid-encoded beta-lactamase

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10
Q

Which organ systems are affected in aminoglycoside toxicity?

A

Renal and auditory (inner ear)

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11
Q

What is the causative agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK, ‘‘pinkeye’’), the most common ocular disease of cattle?

A

Moraxella bovis

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12
Q

Cardiac muscle is derived from which embryonic cell line?

A

Neural crest

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13
Q

During mammalian embryonic development, T lymphocytes originate from the bone marrow, but then proceed to which organ for final differentiation?

A

Thymus

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14
Q

Atrophic rhinitis in pigs has 2 causative agents. What are they?

A

Pasteurella Multocida and Bordetella Bronchiseptica

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15
Q

What is the causative agent of proliferative enteritis of swine?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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16
Q

Other than gastrointestinal and adrenal effects, ketoconazole is recognized to have toxic potential involving which important organ?

A

Liver (and less commonly it can also affect the bone marrow)

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17
Q

If a blood vessel’s radius doubles, by how much will flow increase if all other parameters (pressure difference between ends of the vessel, viscosity, etc.) remain the same?

A

16-fold (Poiseuille’s law). Flow increases to the fourth power of increase in radius.

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18
Q

What is the antidote for organophosphate insecticide intoxication?

A

Atropine and/or pralidoxime (2-PAM)

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19
Q

What is the main effect of angiotensin II on the peripheral arterioles?

A

Vasoconstriction

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20
Q

In which type of cell death are cellular shrinkage and condensed chromatin initial features?

A

Apoptosis

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21
Q

Name 3 effects of atropine.

A
  1. Increased heart rate (tachycardia)
  2. Dilated pupils (mydriasis)
  3. Decreased salivation (xerostomia)
  4. Decreased gastrointestinal motility
  5. Decreased lacrimation
  6. decreased vomiting
  7. decreased urination
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22
Q

What are the site of action, and the effect, of Clostridium botulinum toxin?

A

The toxin prevents the presynaptic release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. The result is a flaccid paralysis, as well as autonomic nervous system disturbances.

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23
Q

Horses that ingest plants containing pyrrolizidine alkaloids may develop toxicosis involving which organ system?

A

Hepatobiliary

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24
Q

A dog with pulmonary lesions also has extensive periosteal reaction and proliferation of both humeri. What is this condition called?

A

Hypertrophic osteopathy (formerly called hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy, or Marie’s disease)

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25
Q

Which gene mutation is responsible for susceptibility to ivermectin toxicosis in Collies?

A

MDR-1 gene (multiple drug resistance gene, which codes for P-glycoprotein)

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26
Q

What are the components of feline ‘‘triaditis’’?

A

Cholangiohepatitis, pancreatitis, and inflammatory bowel disease.

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27
Q

What is the causative agent of swine dysentery?

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

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28
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) classically is an adverse effect caused by antimicrobial drugs of which type?

A

Sulfa drugs (e.g. trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole (TMS))

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29
Q

Except in a standing animal, the crossed extensor reflex is considered abnormal. Is it a sign of upper or lower motor neuron disease?

A

Upper motor neuron disease

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30
Q

What is the vector for bluetongue virus?

A

Culicoides spp. (midges, ‘‘no-see-ums’’)

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31
Q

An adult dog has peritoneal effusion; centesis reveals a thick opaque white fluid with metacestodes evident microscopically. What is the causative organism?

A

Mesocestoides spp.

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32
Q

Name 2 classes of antibiotics that have superior penetration of prostatic tissue.

A

Fluoroquinolones, potentiated sulfas; +/- macrolide (erythromycin), +/- lincosamide (clindamycin), +/- chloramphenicol

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33
Q

Muscle contraction occurs due to calcium release into the sarcoplasm, where calcium binds with _________, allowing the connection of actin to myosin.

A

Troponin/tropomyosin complex (specifically troponin C)

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34
Q

Taylorella equigenitalis causes which disease?

A

Contagious equine metritis (CEM)

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35
Q

The cervical intumescence, which is the origin of the lower motor neurons for the thoracic limbs, contains which spinal cord segments?

A

C6-T2

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36
Q

Infarction of tissues is characterized by which type of necrosis?

A

Coagulation necrosis

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37
Q

What is the main hormone that increases phosphaturia?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

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38
Q

What is the major source of exposure to Brucella abortus in cattle and B. melitensis in sheep and goats?

A

Aborted fetuses, the placenta, and post-abortion uterine fluids

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39
Q

What is the mechanism of toxicity of strychnine?

A

It interferes with the release of glycine from the interneurons in the central nervous system

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40
Q

In dogs, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is most commonly associated with infections of which 3 organ systems?

A

Ears (otitis externa), lower urinary tract (cystitis), and skin (pyoderma)

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41
Q

What is the causative agent of ‘‘glanders’’ in horses?

A

Burkholderia mallei

42
Q

Chagas’ disease is caused by which protozoal parasite, carried by which vector?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi, transmitted by triatomin bugs (genera Triatoma, Rhodinus, and Panstrongylus)

43
Q

A normally-hydrated dog with a right-to-left shunting ventricular septal defect also has a high hematocrit, a low pCO2 and a high erythropoietin level. What type of erythrocytosis is this:

A) Relative
B) Absolute primary
C) Absolute secondary

A

C) Absolute secondary

44
Q

This syndrome is characterized by defective collagen synthesis resulting in abnormal skin extensibility and fragility.

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

45
Q

Which bacterium is involved in most purulent infections of traumatic or opportunistic origin in cattle?

A

Arcanobacterium pyogenes

46
Q

Pacheco’s disease is caused by a virus of which class?

A

Herpesvirus

47
Q

What is the reversal agent for medetomidine?

A

Atipamezole

48
Q

By which mechanism do fluoroquinolones exert their antibacterial action? Does this result in a bacteriostatic or bactericidal effect?

A

Inhibition of DNA gyrase (bacterial topoisomerase-II). This inhibition is bactericidal.

49
Q

Parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium levels by acting on which organ systems?

A

Gastrointestinal (increased calcium absorption), renal (decreased calcium exertion), bone (increased osteoclastic activity)

50
Q

Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is degraded to acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion. To what molecule is pyruvate converted instead (in the cytosol) under anaerobic conditions?

A

Lactate

51
Q

What is the best-recognized potential side effect of administering fluoroquinolones to growing animals?

A

Cartilage damage

52
Q

A patient’s cerebrospinal fluid shows 20-50 white blood cells (WBCs)/microliter and 20-50 red blood cells (RBCs)/microliter. Are the WBCs due to central nervous system inflammation or blood contamination from the procedure?

A

Inflammation. If the WBCs were from contamination by circulating blood, there would be 1000 times more RBC than WBC (as shown on a CBC, for example, where the WBC value is reported in thousands and the RBC value in millions).

53
Q

Upper motor neuron signs in both the thoracic and pelvic limbs localize a neurological lesion to which segments of the spinal cord?

A

C1-C5

54
Q

Which molecule in the blood generates the greatest colloid oncotic pressure and is therefore the most important in maintaining fluid balance between intravascular and interstitial spaces?

A

Albumin (Approx. 80% of oncotic pull, the remainder coming mostly from fibrinogen and globulins)

55
Q

Are mammary tumors more likely to be malignant in a dog or a cat?

A

In a cat, where 85-93% of feline mammary tumors are malignant, compared with 41-53% of canine mammary tumors.

56
Q

Which effect does acidosis have on ionized calcium concentrations?

A

Mild increase. Acidosis decreases plasma-protein-binding affinity for calcium, creating a mild physiologic hypercalcemia. Alkalosis has the opposite effect.

57
Q

What are the function and mechanism of action of cyclosporine?

A

Immune suppressant; T-cell inhibition

58
Q

Which poorly staining coiled spiral organisms require darkfield or phase contrast microscopy for visualization?

A

Leptospirae and borreliae

59
Q

Glucocorticoid-induced hepatocellular degeneration is a specific disorder characterized by an excessive hepatic accumulation of ____________.

A

Glycogen

60
Q

Atenolol is a beta-1 selective antagonist drug. Therefore, where in the body is its targeted site of action?

A

The heart

61
Q

Which domestic ungulate species does not develop clinical disease due to foot and mouth disease virus?

A

The horse

62
Q

Which drug can be given to reverse the effects if opioids?

A

Naloxone; butorphanol also has mixed agonist-antagonist properties

63
Q

Which 2 toxins produced by Bacillus anthracis are the most important in the production of the disease?

A

Lethal toxin and edema toxin

64
Q

Which class of bacteria is grouped by Lancefield serologic classification?

A

Streptococci

65
Q

The migrating larvae of this parasite can cause thrombosis of mesenteric arteries in horses.

A

Strongylus vulgaris

66
Q

Which mechanism of skin disease of small animals is typically responsible for lesions on the nasal planum, pinnae, and foot pads?

A

Immune-mediated skin disease

67
Q

With respiratory sinus arrhythmia, does the heart rate decrease or increase during expiration?

A

It decreases (greater intrathoracic pressure during expiration = increase pressure on vagus = slower heart rate)

68
Q

Why does metabolic alkalosis predispose cows to subclinical hypocalcemia and milk fever?

A

Metabolic alkalosis blunts the response to parathyroid hormone (PTH)

69
Q

Which coagulation test is first to be abnormal in anticoagulant rodenticide toxicosis in dogs or cats?

A

PT (Prothrombin time, also called one-step prothrombin time (OSPT)). Some have suggested that serum PIVKA levels may be similar or superior, but this controversial point remains unresolved.

70
Q

What are 2 common infectious etiologic agents that cause ‘‘shipping fever’’ in cattle?

A

Possible answers include: Mannheimia haemolytica, bovine herpesvirus 1, bovine respiratory syncitial virus, bovine parainfluenza virus 3, and Mycoplasma spp.

71
Q

Which viral etiologic agent is associated with pneumonia, mastitis, arthritis and wasting in sheep?

A

Maedi-Visna virus (Retroviridae)

72
Q

Which gross hepatic lesions are expected secondary to right heart failure?

A

Hepatomegaly, rounding of liver margins, and characteristically a ‘‘nutmeg liver’’ appearance on cut section

73
Q

White focal plaques on the cotyledons of sheep and goats are suggestive of which abortifacient agent?

A

Toxoplasma Gondii

74
Q

During a neurological examination, what does a normal panniculus reflex indicate?

A

Integrity of the spinal cord between the site of stimulation and the C8-T1 spinal cord segment

75
Q

Which adverse effect can be caused by raisin ingestion in dogs, lily ingestion in cats, or acute rhabdomyolysis in horses?

A

Acute renal failure

76
Q

Intestinal ulceration is common in severe mast cell neoplasia. Which substance do mast cells secrete that binds to parietal cells, and which substance do the parietal cells then secrete?

A

Histamine, Hydrochloric acid

77
Q

The causative agent of Lyme disease is?

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

78
Q

Are leptospirae G+ or G- bacteria?

A

G-

79
Q

What is the key feature of all cell types primarily targeted by the parvoviruses?

A

Mitotically active cells (e.g. erythrocytes, blood cell precursors in the marrow)

80
Q

An active, roaming dog develops acute liver failure 6 hours after swimming in stagnant water. What is the likely cause?

A

Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) toxicosis

81
Q

Which will produce fewer false-negative results: A test with high specificity, or a test with high sensitivity?

A

High sensitivity.

100% sensitivity catches all the truly positive cases (usually plus a few false positives); 100% specificity ensures that all positive results are truly positive (usually at the expense of having missed some real positives (false negatives)). Therefore, a high sensitivity test is ideal for screening, and a high specificity test is ideal for confirmation.

82
Q

Cell-mediated immune rejection of a transplanted organ is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type IV

83
Q

Ingestion of tall grass by cattle can cause toxicosis manifesting as lameness and ultimately dry necrosis of extremities. Which type of grass is responsible for this disorder?

A

Fescue

84
Q

What are the 3 methods of reducing radiation exposure from external radiation sources?

A

1) Increasing distance from the source
2) Time: Reducing duration of exposure
3) Shielding: Use of protective barriers

85
Q

Streptococci are divided into 3 types based on hemolysis patterns when grown on blood agar plates (alpha-, beta-, and gamma-hemolytic). In which of these 3 categories are most of the pathogenic streptococci?

A

Beta-hemolytic

86
Q

During a neurological examination, where is a spinal lesion likely to be if there is pathologically increased resistance to bladder outflow?

A

Upper motor neuron lesion cranial to the sacral spinal cord segments (L7 or cranial to it), causing increased urethral sphincter tone

87
Q

Which drug may be used for treatment of such diverse conditions as cardiopulmonary resuscitation, vasodilatory shock, von Willebrand disease, and central diabetes insipidus?

A

Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH; or its synthetic analog, desmopressin acetate, DDAVP)

88
Q

In dogs, this superficial burrowing skin mite causes a non-seasonal intense pruritus initially around less-haired skin, such as the hocks, elbows and pinnal margins.

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

89
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is the only one with good penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid? Gentamicin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, tetracycline, or cephalothin

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMS)

90
Q

Which parasitic infestation in a dog can cause pseudo-hypoadrenocorticism?

A

Infection with whipworm (Trichuris vulpis) can cause hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

91
Q

Is heartworm disease transmitted by male or female, blackfly or mosquito?

A

Female mosquito (males do not bite)

92
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lactulose, by which it helps prevent hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Traps ammonia in the colon, reducing it to ammonium (excreted in feces rather than diffusing through colon wall and circulating systematically, causing encephalopathic effects)

93
Q

What is the major route of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii to both the definitive host and to humans?

A

Ingestion of tissue cysts (containing bradyzoites)

94
Q

Which 2 classes of drugs most commonly account for pharmacologically-induced diffuse splenomegaly in dogs?

A

Phenothiazines and barbiturates

95
Q

Name 2 tick genera that transmit Babesia spp. to dogs.

A

Rhipicephalus, Haemaphysalis, Dermacentor

96
Q

The resorptive capacity of the proximal renal tubule is exceeded when the blood glucose concentration surpasses which value (renal threshold) in the horse or dog?

A

180 mg/dL (10 mmol/L)

97
Q

What are the intermediate hosts of Paragonimus kellicotti?

A

Snails and crayfish. Ingestion of these paragonimus-bearing intermediate hosts can cause respiratory disease due to cyst formation in the respiratory tract.

98
Q

A lamb is stillborn, with grotesque deformations including cyclopia. Which toxic plant was likely consumed by the ewe during gestation?

A

Veratrum (skunk cabbage)

99
Q

By which mechanism does ethanol prevent ethylene glycol toxicosis?

A

Competitive inhibition. Endogenous alcohol dehydrogenase would normally convert ingested ethylene glycol to glycolaldehyde (leading to oxalate formation and renal failure), but alcohol dehydrogenase has a greater affinity for ethanol than ethylene glycol.

100
Q

True or false: In the dog, the site of greatest absorption of water in the gastrointestinal tract is the large intestine-colon.

A

False - It is the jejunum. Common error: most of what the colon absorbs is water (few electrolytes or other substances), but less total volume of water than ileum or jejunum.

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 1 (6 decks)

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