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veterinary board exam - volume 1 > Wild Card > Flashcards

Wild Card Flashcards

1
Q

A 50kg patient requires treatment with medication that is dosed at 0.2 mg/kg. The concentration of your injectable solution is 2.5 mg/mL. How many mLs do you inject?

A

4mL

(50kg x 0.2 mg/kg = 10mg. 10 mg/2.5mg/mL = 4mL)

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2
Q

Carpal valgus denotes a deviation of the distal limb in which direction?

A

Lateral deviation.
Carpal varus is medial deviation.

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3
Q

Intussusceptum, intussuscipiens: Which is on the inside, and which is on the outside?

A

An intussusception has an invaginated intussusceptum surrounded by the intussuscipiens.

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4
Q

What is the name of the congenital sterna malformation where the caudal sternum has a dorsal deviation into the thoracic cavity?

A

Pectus excavatum.
The opposite, where the sternum projects ventrally (outwards), is pectus carinatum.

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5
Q

The sow and mare have which type of placentation?

A

Diffuse

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6
Q

Define telogen defluxion.

A

The loss of hair that occurs 1-3 months after a stressful event such as pregnancy/parturition; The event causes a sudden termination of growth of many anagen hair follicles, then synchronization of these follicles in catagen and ultimately telogen.

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7
Q

When performing definitive closure of wounds, waiting until the appearance of healthy granulation tissue before closing the wound is known as:

A

Secondary closure, or closure by second intention

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8
Q

In neurology, what is meant by the term ‘‘root signature’’?

A

Lameness and pain resulting from reduced sensation in a nerve root or sensory nerve of the cervical or lumbosacral intumescence. It usually is a result of nerve compression.

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9
Q

Shortly after graduation, on your 3rd day in practice, an anxious client asks how long you’ve been a vet. What is the best answer that does not cause them to lose faith in you, and is not a lie?

A

Have a deep sigh and say, ‘‘Man, it seems like forever.’’

(FYI, this was meant as the last card in the deck, as a bit of a funny turn on things, so to take in consideration)

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10
Q

What is the ECG characteristic that defines first-degree atrioventricular block?

A

Prolonged PR interval

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11
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax?

A

Air in the pleural space, where air continues to enter the pleural space but cannot exit (‘‘one-way valve’’ effect of lesion causing pneumothorax)

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12
Q

Which nerve and associated spinal cord segments does the patellar reflex test?

A

Femoral nerve (spinal segments L4-6)

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13
Q

In dermatology, what is the difference between a papule and a macule?

A

A papule is a small, solid elevation of the skin up to 1cm in diameter (i.e., a pimple, but without pus (which would make it a pustule)); a macule is a circumscribed, nonpalpable spot of skin pigmentation up to 1cm in diameter (i.e., a freckle).

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14
Q

Which hormone does a corpus luteum (CL) produce?

A

Progesterone

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15
Q

The diaphragm is innervated by which pair of nerves?

A

Left and right phrenic nerves

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16
Q

The optimal therapeutic regimen for rhodococcal pneumonia in foals consists of treatment with which antimicrobials?

A

A macrolide (Erythromycin, azithromycin*, or clarithromycin) combined with rifampin

  • = preferred
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17
Q

When administering intravenous fluids that contain supplemental potassium chloride (and assuming the animal has normal renal function), the rate of potassium infusion should NOT exceed:

A) 0.5 mEq/kg/hr
B) 5 mEq/kg/hr
C) 50 mEq/kg/hr

A

A) 0.5 mEq/kg/hr

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18
Q

Which one of the following cyanotic disorders should NOT respond to oxygen supplementation?
Pneumonia, pulmonary edema, right-to-left cardiac shunt, pulmonary contusion or pulmonary hemorrhage

A

Right-to-left cardiac shunt
Because hypoxic blood bypasses the lungs.

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19
Q

The liver of which domestic species does not have a cystic duct affiliated with it?

A

The horse
(Since gallbladder is absent in this species)

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20
Q

'’Collie nose’’ is a common name for which dermatologic condition?

A

Discoid lupus erythematosus

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21
Q

The ‘‘round ligament of the liver’’ is a remnant of which fetal structure?

A

Umbilical vein

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22
Q

How does the toxin of Clostridium tetani cause disinhibition of the extensor motor neurons?

A

It interferes with the interneuronal release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine (spinal cord) and GABA (brainstem)

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23
Q

What are the major hemostatic alterations seen in advanced cases of disseminated intravascular coagulation (CIVD)?

A

Thrombocytopenia, prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), increased fibrin(ogen) degradation products (FDPs), decreased fibrinogen and antithrombin III

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24
Q

Butorphanol administered to horses, loperamide (lmodium-AD) administered to cats, and acepromazine administered to dogs, all may cause which type of adverse effect?

A

Profound excitement/Central nervous system stimulation

(Thats why in horses we give butor with something else, like detomidine or xylazine, be we still use it, a lot.)

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25
Q

The cubital lymph node is normally palpable in which species of domestic animal?

A

The horse

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26
Q

The total lung capacity consists of the inspiratory reserve volume, the expiratory reserve volume, the residual volume, and which fourth essential component?

A

The tidal volume

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27
Q

What is the causative agent of cat scratch disease in humans?

A

Bartonella spp. (Particularly B. henselae and B. clarridgeiae)

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28
Q

Typhlitis is inflammation of which organ?

A

The cecum

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29
Q

When observing for symmetry of facial expression in the dog, you are mainly assessing the status of which cranial nerve?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII)

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30
Q

What is the toxin that causes tick paralysis?

A

Salivary neurotoxin (produced by the gravid females of certain tick species)

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31
Q

Does an animal with paresis, hyperreflexia, and disuse atrophy that is mild and slow to develop have upper or lower motor neuron disease of the affected area?

A

Upper motor neuron disease

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32
Q

What is the renal hormone responsible for stimulating production of red blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin

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33
Q

Which paired vessel can safely be ligated bilaterally to stop bleeding in patients with intractable epistaxis?

A

Common carotid arteries (vertebral arteries provide collateral supply to the head)

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34
Q

What is the significance of pitting edema (as opposed to nonpitting)?

A

Pitting is the persistence of a depression when pressure is applied to the swollen area, and it indicates intercellular fluid excess (e.g. interstitial edema). Nonpitting occurs with intracellular fluid excess (e.g. wheal).

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35
Q

What is flail chest?

A

A segment of the chest wall created by 2 or more fractures of 2 or more adjacent ribs. The segment paradoxically moves into the chest during inspiration, outward during expiration.

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36
Q

What is the common name for mandibular osteomyelitis of llamas caused by Actinomyces?

A

Lumpy jaw

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37
Q

Silybin and s-adenosylmethionine are used for treating acute injury to which organ system?

A

Hepatobiliary

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38
Q

The blood supply to the cow’s udder comes primarily from which artery?

A

External pudendal artery

39
Q

Which specific blood vessel is the most common type of congenital portosystemic shunt in the dog? And in the cat?

A

Dog: Persistent ductus venosus
Cat: Left gastric vein

40
Q

Name the 4 stages involved in the healing process of a skin graft.

A

1) Adherence (Starts within the first 8 hours post-op)
2) Plasmatic imbibition (maximum about 48 to 72h after grafting)
3) Inosculation
4) Penetration and ingrowth of new blood vessels

41
Q

Which mite is a normal commensal organism on the skin?
A) Sarcoptes
B) Cheyletiella
C) Demodex
D) Notoderes
E) None of the above

A

C) Demodex

42
Q

After leaving the heart, the aorta and pulmonary trunk are connected by which distinct structure in a normal adult?

A

Ligamentum arteriosum, the embryonic remnant f the ductus arteriosus

43
Q

Two of these gastric acid-reducing drugs also have gastrointestinal promotility effects. Which ones?
Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine.

A

Ranitidine and nizatidine.

44
Q

Which product accumulates in stored blood that makes the blood unsuitable for use in patients with hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Ammonia

45
Q

Do large breed dogs tend to have larger litter sizes, smaller litter sizes or roughly the same litter sizes as small breed dogs?

A

Larger.
Small breeds typically have 1-4 pups/litter, versus an average of 8-12 pups/litter in large breeds!

46
Q

Which medication increases detrusor muscle contractility? What is its main contraindication?

A

Bethanecol; urethral obstruction

47
Q

Where in the body is the greater trochanter found?

A

On the proximal femur, lateral to the femoral head

48
Q

Tissue transplanted from one site to another in the same patient is called an ___________.

A

Autograft.
Tissue transplanted from one patient to another patient of the same species is an allograft, and from one species to another is a xenograft.

49
Q

Which effect is excessive estrogen classically describes as having on the bone marrow?

A

Destruction leading to pancytopenia and aplastic anemia

50
Q

In small animals, what is the most likely anatomic location (i.e., small or large bowel) of a lesion when diarrhea is characterized by weight loss, large volume of liquid feces, and melena?

A

Small bowel diarrhea

51
Q

What are the 4 components of the tetralogy of Fallot?

A

1) Ventricular septal defect (CIV)
2) Dextroaorta
3) Pulmonic stenosis (SP)
4) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy

52
Q

Which synthetic absorbable suture material retains tensile strength for the longest period of time?

A) Polydioxanone
B) Polyglycolic acid
C) Silk

A

A) Polydioxanone

53
Q

What is a leiomyosarcoma, and what is its best recognized paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

A malignant tumor of smooth muscle origin (whereas a leiomyoma is a benign tumor is smooth muscle origin)
Hypoglycemia is the best-described paraneoplastic syndrome.

54
Q

'’Fistulous withers’’ refers to an infection in which equine anatomical structure?

A

Supraspinous (subligamental) bursa

55
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms by which patients become anemic?

A

1) Blood loss (hemorrhagic anemia)
2) Accelerated erythrocyte destruction (decreased erythrocyte life span) by intra- or extra-vascular hemolysis
3) Reduced or defective erythropoiesis

56
Q

This zoonotic, G+ rod can cause cutaneous lesions and fata systemic illness, and necropsy of affected animals is discouraged to avoid release of infective spores.

A

Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)

57
Q

A Salter-Harris type I fracture has a fracture line that runs through which part of the bone?

A

Physis

58
Q

What are the major inhibitors of parathyroid hormone (PTH) synthesis and secretion?

A

Increased plasma calcium and increased levels of vitamin D3 (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol)

59
Q

The term ‘‘trigone’’ refers to an anatomic region in which organ?

A

Urinary bladder

60
Q

The foramen ovale is an opening in which structure?

A

The interatrial septum (in utero)

61
Q

This disease causes flaccid paralysis and results from a toxin blocking the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

A

Botulism

62
Q

Which common cardiac conduction disturbance generally is considered normal in the horse but abnormal in the dog?

A

Second-degree AV block

63
Q

What is contained within the cytoplasmic granules of mast cell tumors that increases the likelihood of bleeding?

A

Heparin

64
Q

Pericardial effusion can cause an electrocardiographic pattern where every other QRS complex is shorter. What is the name of this finding?

A

Electrical alternans

65
Q

Chronic wasting disease affects deer and elk, and it is believed to be caused by which type of infectious agent?

A

Prion

66
Q

With respect to hair rubbing against the surface of the cornea: What is the difference between ectopic cilia, distichiasis, and trichiasis?

A

Ectopic cilia: Aberrant individual eyelashes arising from Meibomian glands and growing through cunjunctiva towards the globe
Distichiasis: Presence of an additional row of eyelashes on the eyelid margin, in addition to the normal lashes
Trichiasis: Normal facial hair that rubs on the conjunctiva or cornea

67
Q

A patient is showing high-pitched inspiratory stridor and inspiratory dyspnea. Is it more likely due to obstruction of the glottis or pulmonary parenchymal disease?

A

Obstruction of the glottis (or any other upper airway obstruction).
Pulmonary parenchymal disease rarely if ever produces abnormal noise and dyspnea that are only inspiratory.

68
Q

What is the meaning of ‘‘myelophthisic disease’’

A

Disease characterized by bone marrow obliteration/replacement with non-marrow tissue

69
Q

How is a comminuted fracture defined?

A

It has 2 or more fracture lines (can range from three-piece fractures to highly comminuted fractures with 5 or more pieces).

70
Q

Suture material with which characteristics should be used in infected wounds?

A

Sterile monofilament absorbable (e.g., polydioxanone (PDS) or polyglyconate (Maxon)) to reduce rick of persistent infection.

71
Q

Which protozoal parasite commonly harbored by cats can be linked to infection in the California sea otter?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

72
Q

What is glargine?

A

A long-acting insulin analog and an excellent choice for treating diabetic cats

73
Q

Is a peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia (PPDH) more likely to be congenital or acquired?

A

A PPDH is ALWAYS congenital (developmental failure of separation of pericardial and peritoneal cavities).
By contrast, a true, peritoneopleural diaphragmatic hernia is usually trauma induced.

74
Q

Guttural pouch infection may result in severe hemorrhage due to damage to which artery?

A

Internal carotid

75
Q

In dogs, Staphylococcus and Proteus urinary tract infections favor the development of which type of urolith?

A

Struvite urolith.
These bacteria create an alkaline urine (e.g., via production of urease), favoring struvite formation.

76
Q

With respect to respiratory sounds, what is the difference between stertor and stridor?

A

Stertor: Deep guttural sound caused by vibration of the pharynx (i.e. snoring) such as occurs in horses with dorsal displacement of the soft palate.
Stridor: Inspiratory stenotic whistle-like sound, such as occurs with decreased laryngeal diameter from edema or mass.

77
Q

What is the vector for the West Nile Virus?

A

The mosquito (Culex spp.)

78
Q

What are the 2 components of the intervertebral disk?

A

Nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus

79
Q

Which are the vitamin K dependent clotting factors?

A

Factors II, VII, IX, X

80
Q

What is the most likely origin of bacterial contaminants in surgical wounds?

A) Endogenous flora
B) Air
C) Surgical team

A

A) Endogenous flora

81
Q

What is the timing of the murmur caused by aortic valve insufficiency?

A

Diastolic

82
Q

Which 2 zones of the adrenal cortex are preferentially destroyed by mitotane (o,p’DDD)?

A

Zona fasciculata and zona reticularis

83
Q

In rabies, what is the incubation period, and once clinical signs are apparent, what is the patient’s expected survival time?

A

Incubation: up to 6 months
Maximal survival after onset of signs: 10 days, irrespective of species (exception: rare human case reports of survival for more than 10 days)

84
Q

Name 3 types of transfusion reactions.
(Not necessarily strictly immune)

A

1) Anaphylactic
2) Acute hemolytic (preexisting anti-erythrocyte antibodies in recipient)
3) Delayed hemolytic (development of anti-erythrocyte antibodies)
4) Febrile/Bacteria contaminant
5) Volume overload
6) Citrate toxicosis
7) In vitro hemolytic
8) Infectious disease from donor

85
Q

Name 2 causative agents of systemic fungal diseases most commonly seen in the Missouri, Mississippi, and Ohio River valleys of the United States.

A

Histoplasma capsulatum and Blastomyces dermatitidis

86
Q

A patient has a hematocrit of 78%. Which one is correct?

A) The risk of thromboembolism is decreased
B) A heart murmur is likely due to hyperviscosity
C) A renal neoplasm is an important ddx
D) Erythropoietin is the best treatment

A

C) A renal neoplasm is an important ddx (Erythropoietin-secreting tumor)

87
Q

Basophilic, broad-based budding yeast forms, and higher prevalence near water, are characteristics of which pathogenic fungus?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

88
Q

The trapezius muscle is innervated by which nerve?

A

Accessory nerve (Cranial nerve XI) - dorsal branch

89
Q

What would you give as an antidote to a patient with carbamate intoxication?

A

Atropine

90
Q

A 0.5% solution of a drug is equivalent to how many mg/mL?

A

5 mg/mL

(0.5% is 0.5 parts per 100, or 5 parts per 1000. Since 1mL of water contains 1000mg (1mL = 1g), then a solution with 5 parts per 1000 is a 5 mg/mL solution)

91
Q

Which components of the eye make up the uvea?

A

Choroid, ciliary body and iris

92
Q

The coagulation factors are numbered from I to XIII. However, there are only 12. Which factor does not exist?

A

Factor VI

93
Q

What is the preferred method for preventing leishmaniasis?

A

Avoidance of exposure to the vector, the sandfly. There is no vaccine.

veterinary board exam - volume 1 (6 decks)

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