Theory Midterm (2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of an ET tube

A

Transfer anesthetic gases directly from the anesthetic machine into the patients lungs.

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2
Q

Why do we use an ET tube

A

Maintain open airway
Decrease anatomical dead space
Allow precise administration anesthetics 02
Prevent pulmonary aspiration of stomach content, blood, and other material
Allow anesthetics to accurately monitor and control patient respiration

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3
Q

What are the advantages to PVC endotracheal tubes

A

Less porous than rubber, thus resists cracking

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4
Q

What are the disadvantages to PVC endotracheal tube

A

Less flexible than rubber and becomes stiff with age

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5
Q

What are the advantages to red rubber endotracheal tube

A

Relatively inexpensive

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6
Q

What are the disadvantages to red rubber endotracheal tubes

A

May absorb disinfectant solutions, causing drying and cracking after prolonged use.
Flexible so kinking or collapse may occur
Spiral or anode contain a coil of metal or nylon in a tube which resists kinking and collapse

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7
Q

What are the advantages to Silicone rubber tubes

A

Expensive

Smooth, Flexible, Nonporous, less irritating to tissues

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8
Q

What is the cuff of an ET tube

A

Balloon like inflatable structure at the extremity of the tube, and when it is inflated with air.

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9
Q

What are the advantages to having a cuff

A

Prevent leakage of waste gas around the tube and into operating room
Reduces risk of aspiration of blood, saliva, vomitus, etc.
Helps to maintain appropriate anesthetic depth by preventing room air coming into lungs

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10
Q

Disadvantage of cuffs includes:

A

Pressure may cause local necrosis, particularly after prolonged use

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11
Q

Primary functions of an anesthetic machine:

A
  1. Designed to deliver a volatile gaseous anesthetic to and from a patient by means of a circuit of corrugated tubing.
  2. Anesthetic is contained within a carrier gas (either O2 alone or with N2O)
  3. Must be able to achieve the following:
    deliver O2 at a controlled flow rate
    vaporize a designated concentration of a liquid anesthetic, mix it with O2 (+/- N2O) and deliver the resulting mixture to patient
    move exhaled gases away from patient and dispose of via scavenging system or reuse after removing CO2.
  4. May be used as a means of delivering O2 to hypoxic patients
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12
Q

List the 4 distincts systems of the anesthetic machine:

A

Compressed gas supply
Anesthetic vaporizer
Breathing circuit
Scavenging system

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13
Q

What is the function of O2 Compressed Gas cylinders

A

Provides up to 100% O2 (room air is 20%), alveolus 13% and down from there
Desirable because:
Anesthetized animal has higher metabolic requirement for O2 than normal
Anesthetized animal has reduced tidal volume relative to normal. This may result in hypoxia without the higher concentration of O2
Tidal volume; complete inspiration.
O2 also carries the anesthetic to the patient. No anesthetic can be carried to the patient without O2 flow as carrier

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14
Q

How do you calculate volume of a compressed gas cylinder,

A

Volume: comes in a compressed form (psi = pounds per square inch) in a cylinder or tank in varying sizes

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15
Q

What is a tank pressure gauge used for ,

A

Can figure amount of O2 in liters in the tank based on capacity of tank and psi read on tank pressure gauge;

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16
Q

What is the Pressure- reducing valve (P regulator) used for

A

Pressure is reduced by a pressure regulator as it moves from the tank into the anesthetic machine resulting in a constant flow of O2 at 40-50 psi

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17
Q

What are the 02 flow meters used for

A
  1. allows the anesthetist to set the gas flow rate (L/min of O2)
    see p.126 for discussion of O2 flow rates
  2. must have separate flowmeters for N2O and O2
    3.the center of the ball should be read for flow rate (or the top of the rotor)
    4.the flowmeter indicates actual flow of gas to patient rather than tank pressure gauge
  3. flowmeter further reduces pressure from 50psi (345 kPa) to 15 psi (100 kPa) which is slightly above atmospheric pressure
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18
Q

What is the oxygen flush valve used for

A

Delivers a large volume of pure O2 at a flow rate of 35 to 75 L/min directly from the line exiting the P-reducing valve into
The common gas outlet or
Into the breathing circuit of a rebreathing system (between the flutter valves)
… bypassing the vaporizer and flow meter

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19
Q

What is the Description and function of the anesthetic vaporizer

A

converts liquid anesthetic to a gas state in controlled amounts in the carrier gas(es)
O2 exists flow meter → inlet port → vaporizer → fresh gas (O2 + anesthetic mixture) exit the outlet port → fresh gas inlet → rebreathing circuit

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20
Q

What is a vaporizer out of circle

A

Vaporizer out of circle (VOC) = vaporizer not located within the breathing circuit (O2 from the flow meter flows into the vaporizer before entering the breathing circuit: PRECISION VAPORIZER ARE POSITIONED IN A VOC CONFIGURATION SO WE USE VOC SINCE ARE ONLY PRECISION VAPORIZERS.

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21
Q

What is a vaporizer in circle

A

vaporizer located in the breathing circuit: nonprecision vaporizer are positioned this way

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22
Q

What are the factors affecting vaporizer output

A

may be keyed to prevent use with the wrong anesthetic
if wrong anesthetic is put in, drain, flush with O2 and air overnight
Concentration delivered depends upon: temperature, carrier gas flow rate, RR and depth, back pressure
Most modern models compensate for all of the factors and deliver the appropriate concentration with little or no error

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23
Q

How do you calculate % isoflurane concentration

A
Induction rate for Iso: 3-5%
Maintenance rate for Iso : 
1-5% - 2.5%
This is approximately 1.5 x the MAC (minimal alveolar concentration) of Isoflurane . This results in a moderate depth of anesthesia
MAC of Isoflurane in dogs: 1.3%
MAC of Isoflurane in cats: 1.63%
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24
Q

What is the function of the vaporizer inlet port

A

point where O2 enter vaporizer from the flow meters

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25
What is the description of the Vaporizer outlet port:
point where O2 + inhalant anesthetic exit the vaporizer on the way to the breathing circuit.
26
What is the outlet port used for
Connected directly to the breathing circuit via a hose OR Connected to the common gas outlet (Fig. 4-32) which connects directly to the breathing circuit via a second hose. The common gas outlet is the area where fresh gaseous anesthetic mixture enter the circuit (rebreathing or non-rebreathing circuit) This mixture never return to vaporizer region For non-rebreathing system (bain): fresh gas enters 1st through reservoir bag For rebreathing or circle system: fresh gas enters just upstream from the inspiratory unidirectional flutter valve and downstream from the CO2 absorber.
27
Explain the Rebreathing systems (Circle systems):
1. Use only with patients larger than 7 kg 2. Fresh O2 + anesthetic enter circuit from fresh gas inlet and mix with the patient’s exhaled gases. 3. May be closed (total) rebreathing systems with pop-off nearly closed OR partial semiclosed (partial) rebreathing systems with pop-off partially open 4. O2 rate higher with partial rebreathing than total rebreathing Safety concerns include: CO2 accumulation may occur, especially if not efficient scavenger in place Less likely in semiclosed system Increased pressure in the anesthetic circuit may occur, making it difficult for animal to exhale Less likely in semiclosed system
28
What is the function of Unidirectionnal Valves (flutter valves)
Control direction of gas flow through the rebreathing circuit
29
What is the pathway of unidirectional valves
Patient inhales The inspiratory (Inhalation) unidirectional valve opens and allows the fresh gas to only flow in one direction (towards the patient) Gases travel through the inspiratory breathing tube (hose) ….and travel toward the patient Gases pass through the Y piece and ….into the ET tube or mask/chamber O2 and anesthetics molecules are absorbed by the lungs …and enter bloodstream At the same time, CO2 and anesthetic molecules are released from the bloodstream, enter alveoli….. ….and are exhaled gases on the next breath Exhaled gases travel through ET tube, then Y-piece ..then through expiratory breathing tube ….to reenter the anesthetic machine through the expiratory (exhalation) unidirectional expiratory valve (also one-way) Then into the reservoir bab (bag inflates) And pass directly into the CO2 (CO2 is removed from the expired gas before it returns to the patient)
30
What is the function of the pop off valves
Point of exit of anesthetic gases from the breathing circuit. Main function: allow excess carrier and anesthetic gases to exit from the breathing circuit and enter the scavenger system. Allows waste gases to exit anesthetic circuit, preventing build-up of excessive pressure or volume within the circuit Valve can be fully opened, partly opened or fully closed, allowing vary amounts of gas to exit. WE KEEP FULLY OPEN!
31
what is the description of the reservoir bag
rubber bag which gradually inflates as gases enter the circuit between the expiratory valve and the CO2 absorber and deflates as the patient breathes in reflexes patient’s respirations
32
What are the functions of the reservoir bag
1.allows anesthetist to observe animal’s respirations: minimal movement may indicate leakage around cuff (breathing room air) or decreased tidal volume indicates that ET tube is properly within the trachea and not the esophagus 2.May confirm proper ET TUBE placement Allows delivery of anesthetic gases to the patient by “bagging” – gently squeezing the bag, causing the patient’s chest to rise slightly by forcing O2 (+/- anesthetic) into the lungs helps prevents atelectasis (collapsed alveoli) by reinflating alveoli Normalize gas exchange; flushes airways, decreasing the CO2 (prevent hypercarbia) content and increasing O2 (prevent hypoxemia) (+/- anesthetic) in lungs Normalize the RR Also: lifesaving in the case of respiratory arrest and to check for gas leak around ET tube
33
What is the function dioxide absorber canister
Exhaled Gases that do not exit via pop-off valve go through CO2 absorber canister prior to returning to system Absorbing ingredient (granules) is: Ca(OH)2 (calcium hydroxide) water Na hydroxide, K hydroxide, Ca chloride, Ca sulfate These react with CO2 to form Ca carbonate and other. Heat + H20 are produced and pH ↓
34
Explain how granules in the C02 work
If use exhausted granules, may lead to hypercapnia Absorber granules contain a pH indicator when saturated, most frequently with to blue or purple. Chemical rxn→ heat , H20 (captured in a trap below) and color change The color change does not last more than several hours so remove soon after noticed (especially with Isoflurane) Fresh granules: soft and crumble easily / white Exhausted granules: hard and brittle / off-white to violet
35
What is the function of the pressure manometer
Indicates P inside machine and patient lungs In cm H20 or mmHg Usually present in both type of circuit. For the rebreathing circuit = on top of CO2 absorber canister when bagging an animal to determine the P being exerted on the animal’ lungs when the anesthetist squeeze the reservoir bag. Should read 0 to 2cm of H20 at all time!!! Possible reasons of excess pressure: Pop-off valve closed or not sufficiently open O2 flow rate too high Scavenger deficient
36
What is the function of the negative pressure relief valve
Valve that opens and admits room air to the circuit if negative pressure (vacuum) is detected in circuit Not on all machine
37
When is the negative pressure relief valve engaged
Active scavenging system with excessive pressure O2 tank runs out of O2 If O2 flow rate too low
38
Explain the non-rebreathing system
Patient
39
What are the advantages to the non-rebreathing system
minimal resistance to respiration resistance offered is secondary to the tubing (ET and other) size rather than gas flow less drag on patient faster rate of anesthetic concentration change (although depth changes are secondary to concentration and solubility coefficients of anesthetic)
40
What are the disadvantages of the non-rebreathing system
much more expensive to use due to non-reuse of O2 and anesthetics does not conserve heat and moisture of patient produces much more waste gas
41
How do you make the choice between the rebreathing and the non-rebreathing system
Made on the basis of patient size because patient’s respiratory drive (force generated by the respiratory muscles during breathing) is directly related to BW In small patient, this drive is insufficient to move gas through areas of resistance present in a rebreathing circuit A non-rebreathing circuit offer little resistance to air movement
42
What do the oxygen flow rates depend on
Type of breathing system (rebreathing or Bain) Period of anesthesia When changing the anesthetic depth
43
What rate do you generally use with the semi-closed rebreathing system
Semi-closed rebreathing system: flow rates vary from: relatively low rates when maintaining a patient at a desired anesthetic depth …to relatively high rates during induction and recovery and when changing anesthetic depth.
44
What rate do you generally use with the non-rebreathing system
Non-rebreathing system: in general, high rates are used at all times regardless of the period of anesthesia
45
What rates do you use during chamber and mask induction
very high flow rates are required | it saturates the circuit, flushes out Nitrogen produced at the start of the anesthetic period
46
How do you determine the flow rate for the non-rebreathing system
High flow rates per unit BW is required during all periods of general anesthesia (induction, maintenance, recovery) because the removal of CO2 from the circuit is dependent on fresh gas flow It is based on BW of patient
47
What is the class and function of Ketamine
Ketamine (salivation) | anticholinergic (minimize salivation)
48
What is the class and function of Halothane
Halothane: cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia | anticholinergic (minimize salivation & bradycardia)
49
What is the class and function of Opioids
Opioids: bradycardia, vomiting, diarrhea and flatulence anticholinergic (minimize bradycardia) phenothiazines: anti-emetic
50
What are the uses of Preanesthetic Medications
1. To calm or sedate excited, frigntened, vicious animal (but some not affected) 2. To minimize adverse effects of concurrently administered drugs 3. To reduce required dose of concurrently administered agents 4. To produce smoother anesthetic inductions and recoveries 5. To decreases pain and discomfort before, during, and after surgery 6. To produce muscle relaxation
51
What are the 3 types of preanesthetic medications
Anticholinergics Tranquilizers and Sedatives Opioids
52
What do anticholinergics used for
Anticholinergic blocks binding of Ach at the muscarinic Rc
53
What is the function of the vagus nerve
provide PЄ innervations to numerous target organs
54
How is the vagus nerve stimulated
During surgery, vagus nerve may be stimulated by pulling, touching some organs, by the administration of some drugs , and common anesthetics.
55
When the muscarinic receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine what happens
bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, excess tear, and salivation, excess production of or respiratory system secretions, ↑ GI motility and pupil constriction
56
When do you administer Glyco or Atropine
20-30 mins before to allow time for peak effect, when to administer IM before anesthetic induction
57
What are the effects of glyco/atropine
prevent bradycardia
58
What are other effects of glyco/atropine
(+) ↓ resp. tract secretions. Less risk of airway obstruction (+) ↓ GI tract secretions (+)↓ salivary secretions Mydriasis (esp. cats) and slows PLR (-) Reduction of lacrimal secretions (risk of corneal drying, ulcer) (-) Bronchodilation: increases diameter = increase in dead space = risk of hypoxemia.
59
What pre-anesthetic drugs promote vomiting
opioids
60
What two pre-anesthetic drugs promote production of saliva
Ketamine, Thiopental
61
What are the adverse effects of Glyco/Atropine
CV system: arrythmia, tachycardia. Respiratory system: thickening of respiratory and salivary secretions in cats Other Adverse effects: Inhibit intestinal peristalsis. Causes constipation
62
What patients do you avoid giving glyco/atropine
Patients with rapid RR, Cardiovascular disease, Geriatric, Hyperthyroid
63
Why is glycol preferred over atropine
Less arrhythmia, suppress salivation better, crosses the placental barrier less
64
What is atropine used for in an emergency
Treat bradycardia
65
What is the difference between tranquilizers and sedatives
Tranquilizers decrease anxiety, sedative decreases mental activity and sleepiness.
66
What are 3 classes of tranquilizers and sedatives
Phenothiazines Benzodiazepines Alpha2-Agonist
67
What are some precautions to take when using these medications
Never let the patient unattended on the table or in an open cage. It relaxes tissues in pharynx so watch out with brachycephalic breeds Also unusual behaviour possible.
68
What is the mode of action and Pharmacology of Phenothiazines
Depression of RAC of brain + Blockage of -adrenergic, dopamine, histamine Rc
69
Where are phenothiazines metabolized
By the liver
70
How quick is the onset of action of the phenothiazines
Onset of action : 15 min IM dogs) Peak: 30-60 minutes
71
What are the effects of phenothiazines on the major organ systems
CNS: Calming, sedation, reluctance to move, and decreased interest in the patient's surroundings. CV system Peripheral vasodilatation = hypotension, reflexive ↑ heart rate, ↑ heat loss → hypothermia ↓cardiac output Antiarrhythmic effect. Respiratory system: don’t cause resp. depression
72
What are some other effects of phenothiazines
Antiemetic Ataxia Prolapse of 3rd eyelid
73
What are the adverse effects of phenothiazines
CNS system reduce seizure threshold. Occasionally acepromazine may induce excitement or aggression CV system Severe hypotension (especially if Iso is used as an inhalant anesthetic) Decreased PCV
74
What patients should phenothiazines be avoided in
Patients with liver problems, hypotensive, small, geriatric patients, patients in shock
75
Why should patients be placed in a quiet location free from stimulation between administration and peak effect.
Due to possible excitement
76
What breeds should phenothiazines be avoided in
Boxers, Giant breeds, Greyhounds
77
What are severe hypotension and bradycardia treated with
IV fluids
78
Why are phenothiazines used
To provide sedation To ↓ dose of general aneshtic To ease of induction and recovery
79
What is the mode of action and pharmacology of Benzodiazepines
Depression the CNS Metabolized by the liver Rapid onset of action and short duration
80
What patients should you avoid the use of benzodiazepines in
Patients with liver problems
81
What are the effects on major organ systems of benzodiazepines
CNS: antianxiety and calming effect (no sedation), in healthy young animals unless used in combination with other drugs such as ketamine or opioids. much more effective in geriatric or debilitated animals unreliable sedative effects (may instead produce dysphoria, excitement, ataxia, especially young, healthy animals) enhances the sedation and analgesia of other agents Anticonvulsant effect also given as a tx for seizures CV system and Respiratory system: few effects
82
What are the other effects of benzodiazepines
Other effects: skeletal muscle relaxation (counteract rigidity seen with ketamine. Use in FUS patients, herniated disk patient. Premed with diazepam ↓requirements of many general anesthetics including the inhalant agents Appetite stimulation in cats
83
What are the adverse effects of benzodiazepines
CNS system: young and healthy: more difficult to control Dogs: disorientation, excitement Cats: dysphoria, aggressivity
84
Is diazepam water soluble?
Not water soluable so it cannot be mixed with water soluble drugs because it will precipitate. Except with ketamine
85
Why should diazepam not be stored in a plastic container
Because it gets absorbed by plastic
86
Why is diazepam used in combination with other agents
their muscle relaxant anticonvulsant, and appetite-stimulating properties
87
What precaution must you take with ketval
It must be stored in a brown container or in a drawer
88
By what route is diazepam usually administered
IV mainly (avoid IM in dogs).
89
Why do you avoid giving diazepam IM in dogs
Because IM is painful and not as easily absorbed
90
What is the reversal agent for diazepam
Flumazenil
91
Mode of action and Pharmacology for alpha2-agonists
act on alpha2-adrenergic receptors of the S (Є) NS both within the CNS and peripherally, causing a decrease in the release of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (NE) Usually, the S (Є) NS → « fight-or flight response »
92
What effects do alpha 2 agonists cause
``` Sedation Analgesia Bradycardia Hypotension Hypothermia ```
93
What is the onset of action and duration of alpha2 agonists
IV: within 5 to 15 minutes IM: 15 to 30 minutes Duration: about 1 to 2 hours Complete recovery: about 2 to 4 hours if the drug not reversed.
94
Where are alpha 2 agonists metabolized? and excreted?
Metabolized by liver, excreted by the urine.
95
What are the effects on major organs of alpha 2 agonists?
CNS: Potent sedatives When combined with other agents, sedation may be sufficient for minor or even major surgical procedures Analgesia? YES CV system: Brief hypertension + reflex bradycardia. MM pale, arrythmias, ↓ co, hypotension, ↓ HR Respiratory system: Minor at low dose, higher at high dose (↓ Tv, ↓ RR)
96
What are the other effects of alpha 2 agonists
``` Muscle relaxation Increased effects of other anesthetics. Vomiting (dogs, cats) Hyperglycemia Hypothermia ```
97
What are the adverse effects of alpha 2 agonists
CNS system: temporally behavior changes CV system: profound CV depression. Respiratory system: potential respiratory depression.
98
In which patients do you avoid using alpha 2 agonists
Heart Murmur patients, heart disease, geriatric , small patients, liver disease, diabetic, pregnant, paediatric
99
Describe medetomidine
good analgesia, excellent sedation Approved only in dogs, usually mixed with opioids Cats: kitty magic (refer to Lab notes (Lab #4) Usually for minor procedure Usually too awake for intubation (but give it a try) For more extensive surgery: sedated animal most be intubated and maintained on inhalant anesthetic (but at much lower % concentration!)
100
What is the antagonist of xylazine
Yohimbine
101
What is the antagonist of Medetomidine
Atipamezole. Antisedan
102
What drug is a partial agonist of opioids
Buprenorphine
103
What drug is an opioid agonist-antagonist
Butorphanol
104
What is the antagonist of opioids
Naloxone
105
What is the mode of action and pharmacology of opioids
Analgesic and sedative effects Action on Rx located in brain and spinal cord: stimulate receptors similar as do endogenous opiod (eg. Endorphins) Duration: short to relatively short
106
What are the effects on Major Organ System of opioids
CNS: 1) Sedation: may cause CNS depression or excitement (dose, route, agent used, species, patient temperament, and pain status dependent) dogs: predominant effect : sedation cats may show bizarre behavior (use low dose and avoid IV) Short acting (15 min after IM injection) 2) Analgesia: degree of analgesia varies among members of the class severe pain : morphine, hydromorphone, fentanyl, oxy Mild to Moderate pain : butorphanol, buprenorphine Widely used in premedication (BAG, HAG) CV system: bradycardia (especially if combined with the drugs that slow the heart rate such as? Alpha 2-Agonist Respiratory system: potential to ↓ RR + Tv (but minimal in health patient). Panting in dogs.
107
What are the other effects of opioids
miosis in dogs, mydriasis in cats Dogs : hypothermic as a result of resetting of the thermoregulatory center and panting. Cats : hyperthermic for unknown reasons. ↑ responsiveness to noise.
108
What are the adverse effects of opioids
CNS : anxiety, disorientation, excitement, dysphoria, and ↑ motor activity CV system: pronounced bradycardia : results from: vagal tone stimulation Resp. system: respiratory depressor at high dose (except buthorphanol) or combined with tranquilizer or other drugs that are resp. depressant. an inhlant anesthetic respiratory depresssant: isoflurane GI system: Salivation, V+ Initially ↑ peristaltic movement = D+, V+ , flatulence. Constipation.
109
What are the three uses of opioids
1. Component of preanesthetic protocols 2. As an induction agent 3. Analgesia
110
Why are opioids used as a component of preanesthetic protocols
For high-risk patients, morphine or hydromorphone as the sole preanesthetic agent. More commonly mixed with a tranquilizer (such as acepromazine, diazepam, or medetomidine) and/or an anticholinergic (atropine or glycopyrrolate) and given during the preanesthetic period.
111
Why are opioids used as an induction agent
(eg. Kitty magic IM in ferals cats: cats are then intubating and maintained at a low % concentration of Iso (0.5-1%)
112
Why are opioids used for analgesia
To prevent and treat postoperative pain To achieve state of profound sedation and analgesia: opiods + tranquilizer = neuroleptanalgesia (will be discussed later if time permits)
113
What should the minimal data base include
Patient history, Physical examination, Preanesthetic diagnostic workup
114
What is involved in getting a patient history
Know how to get a good one. Don’t ask leading questions, get owners to describe. know the procedure to be performed, reproductive status of animal (heat- more bleeding) age of pet, vaccine status of animal previous illnesses, and response to treatment (be aware of major diseases) any illness in the past 24 hours (pathogens in hospital, higher risk) how well the animal tolerates exercise (CVS or respiratory disease) recent treatment with drugs or insecticides (alter effects of anesthetics) history of allergies of drug reactions patient authorization, informed consent, emergency number, and give estimate
115
What is part of the physical examination
vet techs are certified to perform GPE provided they are acting under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian may reveal resp. or CVS disease, enlarged livers, small kidneys which all affect ability to detoxify or excrete drugs ear mites, otitis, dental disease, overgrown nails, deciduous teeth, fleas, dewclaws that need to be taken care of during Sx physical factors such as ‘the spay a male cat club’ registration, cryptorchids….
116
What is part of the signalment
species\breed (ie brachycephalics: airway problems, sighthounds: metabolism of drugs problems), weight and age ( neonates, pediatrics and geriatrics take special consideration)
117
What biological tests are usually done
Diagnostic tests: clinic dependent, and cost The following will be discussed into the Hematology course: CBC, PCV and TP Urinalysis Blood chemistry tests Blood coagulation screens
118
How long should you fast animals before surgery
8-12hrs
119
What is the goal of anesthetic induction
take the patient from consciousness to stage III anesthesia smoothly and rapidly, so that an endotracheal tube can be placed. Patient passes through the excitement stage and therefore may show signs of uncoordination or struggling, followed by progressive relaxation and unconsciousness.
120
What does excitement and struggling during induction cause
Excitement and struggling during induction hamper restraint, increase the risk of inadvertent perivascular drug injection, and predispose the patient to traumatic injury, vomiting, cardiac arrhythmias, and other adverse effects, and so should be minimized through administration of pre medications.
121
How can general anesthesia be achieved
``` IV induction Induction with Inhalant agents Mask induction Chamber induction IM induction ```
122
Describe IV induction
The volume is calculated based on a prescribed dose and drawn into a syringe. The agent is then injected directly into the vein, or into a winged-infusion set or indwelling catheter to effect until: the patient can be intubated OR until the patient is at an adequate plane of anesthesia for completion of the planned procedure. It is given to effect.
123
Why is giving drugs to effect necessary
The amount of drug needed to induce or maintain anesthesia cannot be accurately predicted for a given patient.
124
What is the average duration of anesthesia with the commonly used IV injectable agents
10-20 mins
125
If you require more than 20 minutes anesthesia what must you do?
Maintain it with inhalant anesthetics, or administration of propofol by repeat boluses or CRI
126
What are the general disadvantages of mask induction
Fear (stage I) + excitement (stage II) → struggle → stimulate sympathethic system → release of epinephrine → arrhythmia, hypotension and others MM color and refill time as well as ocular indicators of anesthetic depth are not as easily observed Avoiding mask induction is preferable. We might have to use it in the lab, so you should have an idea how to proceed.Operator exposure to agent + wasteful of anesthetic agent Slow induction time so not appropriate: with patient with poor respiratory function. with unfasted patients: non-fasted patients→ vomiting→ aspiration pneumonia because no ET tube with patients at risk of vomiting during induction
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What general anesthesia is induced by IM induction
neuroleptanalgesic combinations variety of combinations of tranquilizers, dissociative, and opioids. Eg. Kitty magic IM induction is useful for animals in which IV injections are difficult eg. Feral cats, wild animals
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What is the maintenance period of general anesthesia
The period during which a stable level of anesthetic depth is achieved. Most commonly achieved after anesthetic induction and ET intubation Most commonly maintained with an inhalant agents delivered via an anesthetic machine Most common: Isoflurane
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What is the recovery period of general anesthesia
The period when the concentration of anesthetic in the brain begins to decrease.
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Describe the general safety of general anesthesia
Vital centers may be affected, resulting in depression of the CV, respiratory and thermoregulation systems. Death may occur if these centers are not properly maintained and monitored.
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What strategies can you employ to maximize anesthetic safety
Usage of preanesthetic drugs (anticholinergics, tranquilizers, sedatives) Injectable drugs: Double check all dosage calculations and verify that the labeled concentration on vials is the same as that used for the drug calculations. Label all premade syringes. Inducing/Maintenance: Use the minimum dose of drug needed to achieve the desired level of anesthesia. (Give only to effect or titration of dose.) Recovery observation: Vomiting, laryngospasm, hypothermia and convulsions may complicate recovery. CR arrest is also possible.
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What is stage 1 of general anesthesia
****Immediately after administration of an inhalation or injectable agent**** begins to lose consciousness fear, excitement, disorientation, and struggling HR and RR increase patient may pant, urinate, or defecate difficult to handle Near the end of stage I, the patient loses the ability to stand and becomes recumbent.
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What is stage 2 of general anesthesia
****excitement stage**** the patient loses voluntary control (loss of consciousness) breathing becomes irregular (may hold its breath) characterized by involuntary reactions: vocalizing, struggling, paddling, chewing, swallowing, yawning) HR and RR are often elevated pupils are dilated but responsive to light muscle tone is marked reflexes are present and in fact may appear exaggerated appear to be “fighting” the anesthesia, but actions are not under conscious control (should get through this stage rapidly) Stage II ends when the animal shows signs of muscle relaxation, slower RR, and decreased reflex activity.
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What is special about stage 2 of general anesthesia
******This stage is unpleasant and potentially hazardous for both the animal and hospital personnel. risk of epinephrine release and the possibility of cardiac arrhythmias or arrest. The struggling patient may injure itself, the restrainer, or the anesthetist****
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What is special about stage 1-2 in premedicated animals
Premedicated animals may pass directly from consciousness to stage III if induced rapidly. Stages I and II are often very pronounced in animals in which anesthesia is mask or chamber induced without premedication
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What is stage 3 of general anesthesia
subdivided into four planes patient is unconscious and progresses gradually from light to deep surgical anesthesia characterized by progressive muscle relaxation, ↓ HR and RR, and loss of reflexes pupils gradually dilate, tear production ↓, and the PLR is lost The increase in HR, BP, and RR seen in response to surgical stimulation during light anesthesia is also gradually lost.
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What is stage 3 plane 1 of general anesthesia
Respirations become regular Limb movements cease Eyes rotate ventrally pupillary response to bright light is ↓ Gagging and swallowing decreased (time to ET tube → A.machine Palpebral and other reflexes decreased but present Still responds to painful stimuli (HR, RR, resp. depth, BP would ↑ if in pain) This plane is inadequate for surgery.
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What is stage 3 plane 2 of general anesthesia
Suitable for most surgical procedures. Pain may induce slight increased HR, RR but no movement The PLR is sluggish, and the pupil size is moderate. Respirations: regular but shallow RR, HR, and BP are mildly ↓ Relaxed skeletal muscle tone pedal and swallowing reflexes are absent laryngeal and palpebral reflexes are diminished or lost. So loss of the pedal and swallowing reflexes marks entry into plane 2, and ventromedial eye rotation also generally occurs at this time.
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What is stage 3 plane 3 of general anesthesia
Too deep for most surgical procedures. Significant ↓in HR RR, BP (even with surgical stimulation) Dog, cat = RR
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What is stage 3 plane 4 of general anesthesia
Abdominal breathing recognized by a “Rocking boat” respirations. Spasmodic, jerky, uncoordinated respirations Fully dilated pupil with no light reflex eyes may be dry because of an absence of lacrimal secretions. Muscle tone is flaccid. Obvious drop in HR, BP Pale mm and ↑ CRT Too deep for safety: imminent cardiac and respiratory arrest.
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What is stage 4 of general anesthesia
Cessation of respiration | Total circulatory collapse and death unless immediate resuscitation
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What are the objectives of surgical anesthesia
Maintain anesthesia at the lightest level possible while ensuring the patient does not move, is not aware, and does not feel pain
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How often should an evaluation of the patient be done during surgery
Every 3-5 minutes
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What parameters are examined during the evaluation of a patient done during surgery
RR depth and character. MM color and CRT. HR. Pulse strength, Palpebral and pedal reflex activity, o2 flow rate, IV catheter placement, Temperature
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What are the indicators of circulation
heart rate, heart rhythm, CRT, BP
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How can you check the heartbeat
palpation of the apical pulse through the thoracic wall, palpation of a peripheral pulse auscultation with a stethoscope in conjunction with pulse strength to determine adequate blood flow. ausculation with a esophageal stethoscope ECG Pulse oximeter BP monitor (Doppler blood flow detector or oscillometric monitor) +/- intraarterial line attached to a transducer.
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Drugs of which class are particularly likely to cause bradycardia
Opioids and Alpha 2 agonist, barbituates
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What can cause bradycardia
Adverse effects of certain drugs Excessive surgical stimulation Excessive anesthetic depth
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What causes tachycardia
``` Inadequate anesthetic depth Pain during light surgical stimulation Hypotension Bloodloss Shock Hypoxemia Hypercapnia ```
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What is the most common HR rhythm in normal dogs and cats
Normal sinus rhythm.
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What are arrhythmias caused by
Certain drugs, Anticholinergic, Ketamine, Thiopental
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What instruments are used to monitor HR and Rhythm
Stethoscope Esophageal stethoscope ECG: read by the vet but tech must be able to set up the ECG and recognize normal from abnormal rhythm based on auscultation and palpation of pulse
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What is a CRT
CRT > 2secs indicates that tissues in the area tested have reduced blood perfusion Normal CRT may be present in the face of abnormal circulation so not infallible.
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What are the possible reasons for slow CRT
Possible reasons : vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine release. low BP caused by anesthetic drugs (including acepromazine, alpha2-agonists, propofol, and inhalation agents) hypothermia cardiac failure excessive anesthetic depth blood loss or shock. reduced temperature of the affected part.
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What is blood pressure
force exerted by flowing blood on arterial walls
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What is the pulse strength
rough indicator of BP ( lingual (dog), dorsal pedal arteries, femoral)
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What is a normal pulse strength
strong and should occur shortly after each apical beat or S1 heart sound.
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What are indirect methods of measuring blood pressure
can be done with external device using pressure cuff and device to note return of blood flow. Doppler blood flow detector Oscillometric BP monitor (eg. Cardell®)
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What are the indicators of oxygenation
MM color, pulse Oximeter, Blood gas analysis Objective: to ensure adequate oxygenation of the patient's arterial blood.”
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What is MM color
Usually the gingiva but if pigmented look at tongue, conjunctiva or MM of prepuce or vulva. Provide only a crude assessment of both oxygenation and tissue perfusion (since other factors affect MM color
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What are the causes of pale MM color
blood loss, anemia, poor capillary perfusion (eg. vasoconstriction, excessive anesthetic depth, or prolonged anesthesia).
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What is SaO2
Oxygen saturation
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What is PaO2
partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood. Measures the unbound O2 molecules dissolved on plasma (only 1.5% of the total amount of O2 available to tissue)
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What does a pulse oximeter do
estimates the saturation of hemoglobin (So2), expressed as a % of the total binding sites of Hb molecules occupied by O2 molecules
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What are the indicators of ventilation
RR, Tv, Respiratory character, Capnograph. Blood gas analysis
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How do you monitor RR
Watching the chest wall movements observing the rebreathing movement Mechanically with an apnea monitor or capnograph.
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What typically occurs with the RR in anaesthetized animals
During anesthesia, there is normally a decrease in the RR. isoflurane (inhalant) anesthetics, opioids, and alpha2 agonists are particularly likely to cause respiratory depression. Propofol and thiopental sodium typically cause bradypnea or apnea during induction, especially if given quickly or at higher doses.
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What does true tachypnea cause
Hypercapnia Excess CO2 in the circuit pulmonary disease, or a response to a mild surgical stimulus. (((progression from moderate to light anesthesia (one of the first signs of arousal from anesthesia) )))) (((((Some patients (particularly obese dogs) breathe rapidly even at a moderate depth of anesthesia.))))
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What is tidal volume
Amount of air inhaled in a breath
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How do you monitor tidal volume
watching the chest wall movements | observing the rebreathing movement
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What is atelectasis
partial collapse of some alveoli
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How often do you bag an animal
Every 5-10 minutes
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What is respiratory character
Effort required to breathe, the relative length of inhalation and exhalation and regularity
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What is hyperventilation
Increased tidal volume, may result from hypercapnia or surgical stimulation.
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How do you monitor respiratory character
By watching chest wall
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If an animal is gasping, having difficult or laboured breathing during surgery what can this mean
Airway blockage, respiratory disease, pressure buildup, hypoxemia
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If an animal is anesthetized with Ketamine, what can the animals exhibit
Apneustic respiratory pattern in which there is a prolonged pause between inspiration and expiration.
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What are the reflexes that indicate anesthetic depth
``` Swallowing reflex Laryngeal reflex Palpebral reflex Pedal reflex Corneal Reflex Pupillary Light reflex ```
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What do spontaneous mvt indicate
light plane of anesthesia, and imminent arousal
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What does muscle tone indicate
Light: marked Medium: moderate Deep: flaccid
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What does eye position indicate
Light anesthesia: central medium anesthesia: ventromedial deep anesthesia: central
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Describe pupil size in relation to anesthetic depth
Stage 2 anesthesia: dilated | Stage 1: Constricted
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What is referred pain?
felt in a body part other than that in which it is situated
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What is Hyperesthesia
increase sensitivity to touch, heat, cold
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What is pain?
Pain is an aversive sensory and emotional experience that elicits protective motor actions, results in learned avoidance, and may modify species-specific behavior Different for every individual animal, although similarities exist within a species
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What is multimodal therapy?
Multiple receptors and mechanisms have been identified that are responsible for pain and the development of windup. An analgesic plan for moderate to severe pain should make use of several drugs, each having a different mechanism of action.
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What is the purpose of pain assessment tools
help determine how much pain the animal is in and to assess response to treatment.
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How often do you assess animals Response to Therapy:
Animals undergoing major surgery : assess hourly or possibly more frequently in the first few hours of the postoperative period patients with chronic pain : less frequently
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What are The benefits of multimodal analgesic therapy
each individual drug dose is reduced, overall anesthetic drug requirement is reduced, and therefore the risk of toxicity and adverse effects is decreased.
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What is the purpose of premedication
offers an opportunity to administer analgesia before surgery (i.e., preemptively) animals having received preanesthetics appear less painful than those who receive none (helps to prevent windup) Those who get “wound up” need more post-op analgesia Also note that less general anesthetic is needed for surgery (im morphine pre-op, can keep Iso % lower).
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What is another method of preemptive analgesia
Application of fentanyl patch 6-12hrs before surgery
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Whats an opioids mechanism of pain relief
Works at brain and spinal cord level
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What is an NSAID mechanism of pain relief
Works at tissue level, reducing PG production, also at level of brain
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What is an alpha 2 adrenergic agonist's mechanism of pain relief
Activate alpha 2 adrenergic receptors both centrally and in the peripherally
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What is ketamine's mechanism of pain relief
Blocks the NMDA receptors in the CNS at the level of the spinal cord
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What is a corticosteroid's mechanism of pain relief
tissue level, reducing prostaglandin production
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What is tramadol's mechanism of pain relief
at brain level + inhibition of NE and serotonin uptake
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What are a tranquilizer's mechanism of pain relief
Potentiate the effects of opioids in some patients
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How do you choose what analgesic you're going to give
The choice of analgesic is governed by the severity and type of pain and the animal's general condition. The veterinarian also selects the route of delivery, which may include injection SC, IM, IV, intraarticular, epidural, local infiltration, oral administration, or transdermal patch.
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How can pharmacologic analgesia be achieved
Opioid agents NSAID’s Other Analgesic Agents: Local anesthetics, Alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonists, Ketamine, Corticosteroids, Tramadol, Tranquilizers
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What is the general disadvantage to opioid agents
Relatively short duration of action when given by injection, necessitating repeat injections which can be expensive. Also have potential for several side effects All opiods cross the placental barrier in significant amount
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Why don't you cut or trim the fentanyl patch
It splits unevenly
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What are the advantages of inhalant anesthesia
The depth of anesthesia is constantly altered by varying the amount entering the lungs. It is impossible to vary the amount of injectable agent other than injecting increasing amounts of drug. Elimination of injectable agents is via bloodstream to the rest of the body, liver metabolism and/or renal excretion. Inhalation agents are eliminated via the lung and thus, are less dependent upon patient metabolism and organ function. Inhalation anesthesia allows high concentrations of O2 (almost 100%) to be delivered to the patient vs. 20% O2 in room air. Usually patients using inhalation anesthesia are intubated allowing relatively easy access to mechanical ventilation if needed.
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What are the disadvantages to inhalant anesthesia
Inhalation anesthesia requires the use of an expensive anesthetic machine. Once purchased, this is relatively economical to use however. Inhalation anesthesia may become waste anesthetic gas which increases operating room pollution – increasing operating room personnel’s risks for various health related problems – also environmental pollution.
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What are the characteristics of an ideal inhalant anesthetic agent
Minimal toxicity – especially to the cardiovascular, respiratory, hepatic, renal and nervous systems. Minimal toxicity of waste gas to operating room personnel Ease of administration Rapid and smooth induction and recovery Anesthetic depth easily controlled and altered Good muscle relaxation Post-operative analgesia Low cost Adequate potency (to achieve surgical anesthetic plane) Nonflammable and nonexplosive (safe to handle) Inexpensive equipment required
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What is the class of Isoflurane
Halogenated Organic Compounds
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What is special about Isoflurane, sevoflurane, and desflurane
have low lipid solubility: little retention in boy fat stores, little hepatic metabolism and little renal excretion
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What are the Effects on Major Organ Systems of isoflurane
CNS: Dose-related, reversible depression of the CNS depress temperature-regulating center, leading to hypothermia CVS: depress cardiovascular function (vasodilation, ↓ CO, ↓BP, ↓tissue perfusion) Respiratory system: depress ventilation in a dose-dependent manner (↓ Tv and RR = hypoventilation)
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What are the adverse effects of isoflurane
CNS adverse effects: minimal with the currently used halogenated anesthetic CVS adverse effects: ↓ BP so potential to ↓ renal blood flow (significant in renal patients, or patients receiving nephrotoxic drugs Respiratory adverse effects: hypoventilation: ↑ risk of hypercapnia + resp. acidosis
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What is the minimum alveolar concentration
The MAC is the lowest alveolar concentration that will produce no response from 50% of the patients exposed to a painful stimulus; thus, indicating the presence of the anesthetic agent.
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What is the rough guideline for the MAC of an animal
ROUGH GUIDELINE: 1 x MAC = light anesthesia, 1.5 x MAC = surgical anesthesia 2 x MAC = deep anesthesia
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What are the physical and chemical properties of isoflurane
high vapor pressure, requiring a precision vaporizer low blood-gas solubility coefficient (1.46) = rapid induction and recovery anesthetist will see response to changes in anesthetic depth within 1 to 2 minutes of adjusting level Ok then for mask or chamber induction (induce rapid induction) (but irritating and smelly!) MAC is higher (1.3% to 1.63%) than the older inhalant thus requiring higher levels of anesthetic (1.5 - 2.5% for maintenance) (lower potency) Low rubber solubility (no absorption of iso through the rubber) so decreased waste gas potential Stable at room temperature
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What are the effects and adverse effects of isoflurane
~~Little effects on HR, does not sensitive heart muscle to epinephrine-induced arrhythmias ~~depresses respiration (greater than halothane but less than methoxyflurane) ~~eliminated through lungs once vap turned off ~~low fat solubility, so little retention in fat, little hepatic metabolism, and little renal excretion of the metabolites occurs (preferred anesthetic for animals with compromised hepatic or renal function, including neonates and geriatrics) induce good muscle relaxation ~~no post-operative analgesia so post-operative analgesics is advisable ~~Irritants to the respiratory tract