TM Questions Flashcards

1
Q

1.1. As defined by Campbell & Stanley (1963), selection is likely to be a threat to a study’s internal validity when:
A. two different intact groups act as the experimental group and control group
B. there is a differential loss of participants in the experimental and control groups.
C. participants are not randomly selected from the population.
D. participants in one group communicate important information to participants in another group.

A
    1. Campbell and Stanley (1963) distinguished between eight major threats to a study’s internal validity. These threats are described in the Statistics and Research design chapter of the written study materials.
      a. CORRECT Selection is a potential threat to a study’s internal validity when, because of the way participants were assigned to groups, the groups differed in a relevant way before the treatment was applied.
      b. Incorrect This answer describes the threat to internal validity known as mortality or attrition.
      c. Incorrect In the context of threats to internal validity, selection refers to how participants were assigned to groups, not how they were selected from the population.
      d. Incorrect This answer describes the threat to internal validity known as diffusion.
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2
Q

1.2. Research looking at the relationship between “expressed emotion” and Schizophrenia has found that:
A. negative expressed emotion is often an early sign of the disorder.
B. expressed emotion is related more to the negative than the positive symptoms of the disorder.
C. a high degree of negative expressed emotion by family members is associated with a high risk for relapse for a person with this disorder
D. an extremely high or extremely low level of expressed emotion by family members is an environmental factor that increases the risk for the development of this disorder.

A
    1. In the context of Schizophrenia, negative expressed emotion refers to excessive criticism or hostility or, at the other extreme, emotional overinvolvement and overprotectiveness.
      c. CORRECT The research has consistently linked negative expressed emotion by family members to a high risk of relapse and rehospitalization for a family member with Schizophrenia.
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3
Q

1.3. A 42 year old woman who has just begun taking lithium carbonate as a treatment for Bipolar Disorder will most likely experience which of the following side effects?
A. constipation, abdominal pain, and excessive salivation
B. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain
C. increased appetite, carbohydrate craving, and weight gain
D. nausea, vomiting, constipation, and salt craving

A
    1. Lithium may produce a number of unpleasant gastrointestinal side effects.
      b. CORRECT Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and dry mouth are common early gastrointestinal side effects of lithium. These symptoms usually appear within a few weeks and, if they occur late in therapy, may be a sign of lithium toxicity.
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4
Q
1.4. The primary purpose of the state and provincial licensing board is to:
A. protect the profession of psychology.
B. Protect the public.
C. Define ethical standards of conduct.
D. Define standards of care.
A
  1. 4 The primary purpose of the licensing boards is to protect the public.
    b. CORRECT To achieve this goal, the boards establish minimum standards of competence for psychologists including degree, supervision, and examination requirements.
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5
Q
1.5 Research by Nettlebeck and Burns (2000) found that declines in fluid intelligence (reasoning ability) that are observed after age 55 are due to decreases in:
A. overall cognitive ability
B. working memory capacity
C. prospective memory
D. the efficiency of sensory memory.
A
  1. 5 T. Nettlebeck and N. R. Burns investigated the causes of increases in fluid intelligence in children ages 8 to 14 and declines in fluid intelligence in older adults ages 50 and older [Processing speed, working memory, and reasoning ability from childhood to old age, Personality and Individual Differences, 48(4), 379-384, 2010].
    b. CORRECT Nettlebeck and Burns found that an age-related decrease in working memory capacity is directly responsible for declines in reasoning ability and that, while some of the decrease in working memory capacity is attributable to a slower processing speed, a portion of the decrease is independent from processing speed. They attribute this age-related decrease in working memory to a loss of neurons in the hippocampus.
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6
Q

1.6. Stanley Milgram investigated which of the following Yale University in the 1960s?

A. the willingness of individuals to conform to group norms even when those norms were obviously incorrect
B. the willingness of individual to obey an authority even when doing so hard harmful consequences for someone else.
C. the ability of individuals holding a minority opinion to influence the opinion of the majority
D. the ability of exposure to repeated conflict among groups to generate hostility and aggression toward members of the outgroup

A
  1. 6 Milgram’s research at Yale University is among the most well-known and conroversial research in the field of social psychology.
    b. CORRECT Milgram’s research found that, under certain conditions, people are willing to comply with the requests of an authority, even when doing seems to have negative consequences for another person.
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7
Q
1.7 Complete or almost complete loss of movement is referred to as:
A. Athetosis
B. atonia.
C. akathisia.
D. akinesia.
A
  1. 7 All of the terms listed in the responses refer to movement disturbances.
    a. Incorrect Athetosis refers to slow, uncoordinated, and involuntary movements of the extremities.
    b. Incorrect Atonia is a lack of muscle tone.
    c. Incorrect Akathisia is an inability to sit or stand motionless along with a feeling of restlessness.
    d. CORRECT This is the definition of akinesia, which is associated with several disorders including stroke and Parkinson’s disease.
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8
Q

1.8 A colleague of yours, an industrial psychologist, designs a study to investigate the relationship between job satisfaction and mental and physical health. Based on your knowledge of the research in this area, you tell him that:
A. there is no consistent relationship between job satisfaction and mental or physical health.
B. There is a positive relationship between job satisfaction and mental and physical health.
C. there is a positive relationship between job satisfaction and mental health but no relationship between job satisfaction and physical health.
D. there is a positive relationship between job satisfaction and physical health but no relationship between job satisfaction and mental health.

A
  1. 8 Even if you are unfamiliar with the research in this area, it seems logical that job dissatisfaction might be either a cause or effect of poor physical and/or mental health.
    b. CORRECT Several studies have found a positive relationship between job satisfaction and both mental and physical health. Note, however, that the research has not demonstrated that job satisfaction causes mental/physical health or vice-versa, only that they are correlated.
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9
Q
1.9 Mike M., age 17, has an IQ of 80 and exhibits mild deficits in social and self-help skills.  The most likely DSM-IV-TR diagnosis for Mike is:
A. Mild Mental Retardation
B. Moderate Mental Retardation
C. Borderline Intellectual Functioning
D. Borderline Cognitive Impairment
A
  1. 9 A diagnosis of Mental Retardation requires subaverage intelligence, deficits in adaptive functioning, and an onset prior to age 18.
    a. Incorrect Because Mike’s IQ score is 80 and he exhibits only mild deficits in social and self-help skills, Mental Retardation is less likely than Borderline Intellectual Functioning to be the appropriate diagnosis for Mike.
    c. CORRECT Mental Retardation is ordinarily not diagnosed unless the individual’s IQ is 70 or less. However, when an individual’s IQ is between 71 and 75, the diagnosis may be assigned when the individual also has “significant deficits in adaptive behavior” (DSM-IV-TR, p. 48). Because Mike has an IQ of 80 and only mild deficits in adaptive functioning, a diagnosis of Borderline Intellectual Functioning is most appropriate.
    d. Incorrect Borderline Cognitive Impairment is not a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis.
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10
Q

1.10 Reactive Attachment Disorder of Infancy or Early Childhood, Inhibited Type, is most likely to involve which of the following?
A. stereotyped
B. unusual verbal and nonverbal communication
C. indiscriminant attachments
D. hypervigilance

A
  1. 10 As defined by DSM-IV-TR, Reactive Attachment Disorder, Inhibited Type, is characterized by inhibited, hypervigilant, or highly ambivalent and contradictory responses in social interactions.
    a. Incorrect This is not characteristic of this disorder.
    b. Incorrect This is also not characteristic of this disorder.
    c. Incorrect This describes the Disinhibited Type.
    d. CORRECT Hypervigilance is one of the features of this form of Reactive Attachment Disorder.
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11
Q
1.11 In the context of family therapy, the purpose of “reframing” is to:
A. diffuse balance
B. redefine behaviors
C. increase specificity
D. anchor behaviors.
A
  1. 11 Even if you’ve never heard of “reframing,” you probably could have guessed that its purpose is to redefine the situation.
    b. CORRECT As its name implies, reframing is done in order to help a client see things from a different perspective. It is often used in a paradoxical way – e.g., telling an adolescent that “your parents’ nagging is a sign of their love for you.”
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12
Q

1.12 Dr. Nillson, a behavioral psychologist, is teaching clinical psychology at a university. She does not use, nor can she tolerate the use of, psychodynamic principles and interventions in psychotherapy. She refuses to teach psychodynamic therapy in her classes and actually makes fun of it in front of her students during informal gatherings. Her behavior is:
A. unethical- she has an obligation to provide accurate and objective information about the topic she is teaching.
B. ethical — she has the freedom of choice to teach whatever she wants in her classes.
C. acceptable — she would be poorly trained to teach psychodynamics and psychotherapy anyway.
D. ethical — but she should not be making fun of any psychological practice in front of her students.

A
  1. 12 Dr. Nillson’s behavior violates Standard 7.03 of the Ethics Code, which calls for accuracy in teaching, as well as General Principle C (Integrity), which encourages “accuracy, honesty, and truthfulness.”
    a. CORRECT Dr. Nillson’s behavior is in violation of the Ethics Code.
    b. Incorrect As a psychologist, Dr. Nillson has an ethical duty to teach objectively, fully, and accurately.
    c. Incorrect Dr. Nillson is ethically obligated to make sure her choice of topics is not biased by her own personal beliefs. If she is unqualified to teach certain areas, she could arrange to have someone else do so.
    d. Incorrect Dr. Nillson’s behavior is biased and, therefore, is unethical.
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13
Q

1.13 An advantage of structural magnetic resonance imaging (MRI0 over computed tomography (CT) is that the former:
A. provides clearer images
B. is less likely to require sedation of the patient.
C. provides information on functional brain activity.
D. can detect electrical abnormalities.

A
  1. 13 Neuroimaging techniques are divided into two types – structural and functional. CT and MRI are both structural techniques.
    a. CORRECT MRI uses magnetic fields to produce detailed cross-sectional images of the brain. An important advantage of MRI over a CT scan is that MRI has better resolution.
    b. Incorrect Because MRI requires the patient to be completely still for a prolonged period of time, the patient may need to be sedated. A CT scan requires less time and, therefore, is less likely to require sedation.
    c. Incorrect Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) provides information on the functional activities of the brain, but MRI is a structural technique that provides information on the structure of the brain only.
    d. Incorrect This is an advantage of EEG (electroencephalography), which is why it is used in the assessment of epilepsy.
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14
Q

1.14 When a forensic evaluation of a minor by a psychologist is court-ordered, the psychologist:
A. must get an informed consent from one of the minor’s parents or his/her legal guardian before conducting the evaluation.
B. must get an informed consent from both of the minor’s parents or his/her legal guardian before conducting the evaluation.
C. does not have to get an informed consent form the minor’s parent(s) or legal guardian before conducting the evaluation
D. does not have to get an informed consent from the minor’s parent(s) or legal guardian only if the minor is incapable of giving informed consent him/herself.

A
  1. 14 In forensic settings, the need to obtain an informed consent for an evaluation of a minor depends on who is requesting the evaluation.
    c. CORRECT R. I. Simon and L. H. Gold address this issue and state that, when a forensic evaluation of a minor is court-ordered, it is not necessary to obtain consent from the minor’s parents (American Psychiatric Publishing textbook of forensic psychiatry, Arlington, VA, American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc., 2004).
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15
Q
1.15 Dr. Billie Bloom requires students in his introductory psychology class to participate in a university-sponsored research project as a requirement for the course.  This is:
A. unethical under any circumstances.
B. ethical as long as the resarch exposes students to "minimum risk."
C. ethical as long as students are given a choice of completing an alternative assignment
D. ethical as long as students are made aware of this requirement before they enroll in his class.
A
  1. 15 This issue is addressed in Standard 8.04(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code.
    c. CORRECT Standard 8.04(b) states that, “when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities.”
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16
Q

1.16 Smith, Glass, and Miller’s (1980) use of meta-analysis involved:
A. counting the number of psychotherapy outcome studies that found a statistically significant difference between treatment and no-treatment groups.
B. statistically comparing the number of psychotherapy outcomes studies that did and did not find significant treatment effects.
C. determining the average magnitude of the outcome of psychotherapy across a large number of outcome studies.
D. using initial symptom severity and type and duration of treatment to predict average treatment outcome.

A
  1. 16 Smith et al. combined the results of 475 studies on the effectiveness of psychotherapy (Smith, M. L., Glass, G. V., & Miller, R. L., The benefits of psychotherapy, Baltimore, Johns Hopkins University Press, 1980).
    a. Incorrect This response describes the “box score” method, not meta-analysis.
    b. Incorrect This response describes using an inferential statistical test to compare outcome data for two groups.
    c. CORRECT When using meta-analysis, the outcomes of each study are converted to a common metric – i.e., an effect size – and an average effect size is calculated.
    d. Incorrect This response describes multiple regression.
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17
Q

1.17 The primary goal of self-instructional training (SIT) for children exhibiting hyperactivity and excessive impulsivity is to:
A. eliminate obsessive rumination
B. re-align intention and action
C. clarify response contingencies
D. insert thought between stimulus and response.

A
  1. 17 SIT involves training the individual to guide his/her actions with internally-originated verbal instructions. Additional information about SIT is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
    b. Incorrect This answer is close but not as good as response d.
    c. Incorrect Although self-instruction includes self-reinforcement, this is not the primary goal of SIT.
    d. CORRECT Hyperactive and impulsive children often respond to events automatically. The goal of SIT is to reduce automatic behaviors by inserting thoughts between an event and the response to that event.
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18
Q

1.18 John Watson produced a phobia in Albert B. by using which of the following procedures:
A. physically confining the child so that he could not move
B. requiring the child to make difficult stimulus discriminations
C. pairing an aversive US with a neutral CS
D. providing punishment noncontingent on behavior

A
  1. 18 John Watson applied Pavlov’s classical conditioning model to human behavior. In his most famous study, Watson taught Albert B., an 11-month-old child, to fear a white rat.
    a. Incorrect Albert B.’s phobia was established through classical conditioning and, thus, did not involve confining him.
    b. Incorrect Pavlov showed that this procedure produced “experimental neurosis”; it is not the procedure used by Watson.
    c. CORRECT Albert B.’s phobia was created by pairing a US (loud noise) with a CS (white rat) so that the CS alone eventually elicited a startle response.
    d. Incorrect Watson’s research with Albert did not involve the application of punishment. The use of punishment to decrease a response is an operant conditioning technique.
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19
Q

1.19 Longitudinal research by the National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) has found a positive relationship between the number of hours a young child spends in daycare and the rates of:
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Conduct Disorder, and other clinical disorders
B. disobedience and other behavioral problems
C. language and academic skill deficits.
D. language and academic skill deficits and behavioral problems.

A
  1. 19 The NICHD research has found that participation in high-quality early child care is actually associated with enhanced pre-academic (cognitive) skills and language performance at age 4-1/2. However, it is also associated with some negative consequences.
    a. Incorrect The NICHD research found that children who attend daycare are not at higher risk for serious (clinical) behavioral problems.
    b. CORRECT Children who attend daycare tend to exhibit a higher degree of externalizing behaviors and conflicts with adults even when quality, type, and stability of the daycare is controlled. However, these behaviors are within the normal range.
    c. Incorrect As noted above, participation in daycare is associated with better pre-academic and language skills.
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20
Q

1.20 Which of the following is an example of higher-order conditioning?
A. A CS is paired with an US until a CR is established; subsequently, the CR occurs in the presence of stimuli similar to the US.
B. A CS is paired with an US until a CR is established; subsequently, the CS elicits a variety of responses including the CR.
C. A CS is paired with an US until a CR is established; subsequently, the CS is paired with a second US until a second CR is established.
D. A CS is paired with an US until a CR is established; subsequently, a second CS is paired with the first CS until it also elicits a CR.

A
  1. 20 Higher-order conditioning involves using a CS as an US in order to establish a CR for a second CS.
    a. Incorrect This describes stimulus generalization.
    b. Incorrect This could be interpreted as response generalization, although the description is too vague to know exactly what is being described.
    c. Incorrect This simply describes classical conditioning in which the CS is paired with two different US’s.
    d. CORRECT This describes the procedure known as higher-order conditioning.
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21
Q

1.21 For an extended family systems (Bowenian) therapist, when a family exhibits a high degree of fusion but one member is more differentiated than the others, the likely approach would be to:
A. work with the least differentiated family members.
B. work with the most differentiated family member.
C. work with all members of the extended family as a group.
D. work with all family members in individual therapy until they reach a similar level of differentiation.

A
  1. 21 According to Murray Bowen, a high degree of fusion (emotional “stuck togetherness”) is the source of family dysfunction. The goal of Bowen’s form of family therapy, therefore, is to help family members become less fused, or more differentiated (individuated). In contrast to many other family therapists, Bowen’s form of therapy typically does not involve seeing all of the family members.
    a. Incorrect Followers of Bowen would likely work first with the most differentiated family member.
    b. CORRECT Bowen often worked with the most differentiated family member on the assumption that, when that member changed in a positive way, his/her change would motivate other family members to move toward greater differentiation.
    c. Incorrect In contrast to many other family therapists, Bowen typically worked with the two most significant adult family members, usually the parents, or the parent who was the most differentiated, even when the “identified patient” was a child.
    d. Incorrect This is not a technique used by Bowen.
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22
Q

1.22 You have just compared a research study but have not yet published it results. A colleague of yours who is familiar with you study requests the data you have collected. Which of the following best describes the requirements of the APA’s Ethics Code with regard to this situation?
A. You are required to comply with the colleague’s request only if her purpose in requesting the data is to re-analyze it.
B. You are required to comply with the colleague’s request only if she agrees to protect the confidentiality of the study’s participants.
C. You are not required to comply with the colleague’s request since the results of the study have not yet been published.
D. You are not required to comply with the colleague’s request unless she has a “legitimate concern” about the accuracy the data.

A
  1. 22 This issue is addressed in Standard 8.14 of the APA’s Ethics Code.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    c. CORRECT Standard 8.14 states the following: “After research results are published, psychologists do not withhold the data on which their conclusions are based from other competent professionals who seek to verify the substantive claims through reanalysis and who intend to use such data only for that purpose, provided that the confidentiality of the participants can be protected and unless legal rights concerning proprietary data preclude their release.” Since you have not yet published your study, you are not obligated to comply with the colleague’s request.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
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23
Q

1.23 A family therapist would use the technique known as “prescribing the symptom” in order to:
A. undermine the family’s resistance to change.
B. reduce tension between family members.
C. change the meaning of a situation by changing the way it is perceived.
D. educate family members about the benefits of change.

A
  1. 23 Prescribing the symptom is a paradoxical technique that involves instructing family members to engage in the problematic behavior, often in an exaggerated form. For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the paradoxical tehniques described in the section on family therapies in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials so that you can answer questions like this one.
    a. CORRECT The purpose of prescribing the symptom is to undermine the family’s resistance to changing a behavior by requesting that family members engage in the behavior. Ideally, this will cause them to rebel and engage, instead, in a more desirable behavior.
    b. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of the purpose of prescribing the symptom.
    c. Incorrect This is a better description of the technique known as relabeling.
    d. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of the purpose of prescribing the symptom.
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24
Q

1.24 Use of the technique known as meta-analysis entails calculating an “effect size,” which can be best described as:
A. a statistically significant difference between experimental and control groups.
B. A standardized mean difference between experimental and control groups
C. A zero-order correlation
D. A partial regression coefficient

A
  1. 24 The term meta-analysis is used to describe a quantitative integration of research studies involving the calculation and aggregation of “effect size” estimates.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT There are several ways to calculate an effect size, but a commonly used method involves subtracting the control group mean from the experimental group mean and dividing the result by either the control group standard deviation or the pooled within-group standard deviation. The result is a standard score that indicates the difference between the experimental and control groups in terms of standard deviation units.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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25
Q
1.25 Individuals who receive a diagnosis of which of the following Personality Disorders are most likely to no longer meet all of the diagnostic criteria for the disorder when they reach middle age?
A.	Schizotypal Personality Disorder
B.	Antisocial Personality Disorder
C.	Paranoid Personality Disorder
D.	Avoidant Personality Disorder
A
  1. 25 Although Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) is considered to be chronic, symptoms often “become less evident or remit as the individual grows older, particularly by the fourth decade of life” (DSM-IV-TR, p. 704).
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT The reduction in symptoms in APD by middle age most often involves a decrease in criminal behaviors while other characteristic symptoms – especially problems related to interpersonal relationships – persist to some degree. See, e.g., J. Paris, Personality disorders over time: Implications for therapy, American Journal of Psychotherapy, 58(4), 420-429, 2004.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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26
Q

1.26 Dr. Bernard is designing a longitudinal study on drug use in high schools. Since the study is longitudinal, it will be necessary to maintain records containing participants’ identities. A colleague of Dr. Bernard’s reminds him of a similar situation in which the investigator was subpoenaed to appear to court to testify against a participant who had been involved in illegal activities. The investigator refused to testify in order to maintain the participant’s confidentiality and was imprisoned. What should Dr. Bernard do in order to avoid a similar dilemma:
A. if subpoenaed by the court, testify, since legal requirements override ethical considerations.
B. if subpoenaed by the court, testify only after obtaining the consent of the participant.
C. warn participants prior to participation in the student about the possibility of a breach of confidentiality and obtain informed consents.
D. design the study so that the names of participants are maintained in a separate file by a third party.

A
  1. 26 Standard 8.02(a) of APA’s Ethics Code states that psychologists “… psychologists inform participants about … reasonably foreseeable factors that may be expected to influence their willingness to participate such as potential risks, discomfort, or adverse effects … limits of confidentiality.”
    a. Incorrect To some degree, this answer correctly describes a psychologist’s legal obligations in this situation. After being subpoenaed by the court, a psychologist usually asserts privilege. If privilege is not recognized, the psychologist usually must testify in order to avoid being held in contempt of court. However, this is not the best answer in that it does not deal with how the psychologist can “avoid this dilemma.” If the psychologist testifies, he has fulfilled his legal obligation without having dealt with his ethical obligation regarding confidentiality.
    b. Incorrect Legally, a psychologist who has been subpoenaed by the court must testify (if the court does not recognize privilege) whether or not he has the consent of his client. Thus, this course of action would not resolve the dilemma between the psychologist’s legal and ethical obligations.
    c. CORRECT This is most in accord with the above-cited Standard, and it represents a balance between the psychologist’s legal and ethical obligations. If he informs participants of the limits of confidentiality, they will give their consent to participate with full awareness of the possibility that the psychologist or his files might be subpoenaed.
    d. Incorrect This course of action does not reduce the possibility that either the records or the psychologist will be subpoenaed.
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27
Q

1.27 According to the APA’s Guidelines for Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, when a client belonging to a different ethnic or cultural group comes to therapy, a therapist is best advised to:
A. treat the client like any other person unless there is reason to do otherwise
B. alter the diagnostic and treatment processes to coincide with the client’s ethnic or cultural background.
C. recognize that ethnic and cultural forces can have an impact on both the therapist’s and the client’s psychological processes.
D. refer the client to another therapist from the same ethnic or cultural background whenever it is feasible to do so

A
  1. 27 The Guidelines for Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations addresses several issues related to assessment, intervention, and research with clients from different ethnic and cultural backgrounds.
    a. Incorrect Although there are times when this would be the appropriate course of action (e.g., when the client exhibits a high degree of acculturation into the “mainstream” culture), it is not a recommended strategy.
    b. Incorrect This may be appropriate in some situations, but not all of them.
    c. CORRECT Paragraph 3a states that “Psychologists recognize ethnicity and culture as significant parameters underlying psychological processes,” and this refers not only to the processes of the client but also to those of the therapist (e.g., therapists must be aware of their own prejudices and stereotypes when working with clients from different ethnic and cultural groups).
    d. Incorrect This may be appropriate in some situations but is not a general requirement.
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28
Q

1.28 Which of the following distinguishes fetal alcohol syndrome from fetal alcohol effects?
A. the age of onset of symptoms
B. the severity of physical symptoms
C. the time during prenatal development when the fetus was exposed to alcohol
D. the degree of alcohol dependence exhibited by the infant at birth

A
  1. 28 The Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASD) are all caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol but vary in terms of the severity of symptoms.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT Fetal alcohol effects (FAE) is a milder and less complete expression of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) – i.e., the symptoms (especially physical symptoms) of FAE are less severe. Note that the term fetal alcohol effects has been replaced in the medical literature by alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND) and alcohol-related birth defects (ARBD).
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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29
Q
1.29 A child with ADHD would most likely obtain the HIGHEST score on which of the following WISC-IV subtests?
A. Cancellation
B. Arithmetic
C. Picture Concepts
D. Coding
A
  1. 29 To identify the correct response to this question, you need to know which of the four subtests listed in the answers is least affected by the core symptoms of ADHD.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    c. CORRECT Of the subtests listed in the answers, Picture Concepts is least affected by ADHD. In fact, it is one of the subtests that individuals with this disorder are likely to obtain the highest score on. Performance on the other three subtests listed in the answers (Cancellation, Arithmetic, and Coding) depends on attention, concentration, and speed, which are abilities that are adversely affected by ADHD.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
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30
Q

1.30 According to Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, an African-American therapy client in the conformity stage will most likely:
A. prefer a white therapist
B. be unwilling to self-disclose to a white therapist.
C. say his/her problems are directly related to racial oppression.
D. prefer a therapist who has expertise in working with African Americans.

A
  1. 30 The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model consists of five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. Additional information on these stages is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
    a. CORRECT During the initial conformity stage, African Americans have positive attitudes toward Whites and negative attitudes toward their own group; and, in therapy, they are likely to prefer a White therapist.
    b. Incorrect This is characteristic of African American therapy clients in the dissonance, resistance and immersion, or introspection stage.
    c. Incorrect This is characteristic of clients in the dissonance or resistance and immersion stage.
    d. Incorrect This is true about African American clients in the introspection or integrative awareness stage.
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31
Q

1.31 Rutter (1979) identified several high-risk factors (“Rutter’s indicators”) for the development of psychopathology in children. These factors include:
A. physical disabilities, small family size, and paternal psychiatric disorder.
B. low IQ, large family size, and chronic physical illness.
C. parental marital discord, high socioeconomic status, and parental psychiatric disorder.
D. parental marital discord, large family size, and paternal criminality

A
  1. 31 Rutter found that the presence of a single high-risk factor did not predict increased rates of psychopathology for young children. However, the combination of two or more risk factors increased the rate dramatically.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    d. CORRECT Rutter’s indicators for psychopathology are low SES, large family size, paternal criminality, parental marital discord, maternal psychiatric disorder, and being placed in foster care.
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32
Q
1.32 “Autocorrelation” is most likely to be a problem when using which of the following research designs?
A. Solomon four-group
B. repeated measures
C. between groups
D. double-blind
A
  1. 32 Autocorrelation refers to the correlation between measurements of the dependent variable when the dependent variable is repeatedly administered to the same subjects.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT Of the designs listed, repeated measurement occurs only in repeated measures designs.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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33
Q

1.33 According to Carl Rogers, a therapist is “congruent” when the therapist:
A. is able to accurately “reflect” the client’s feelings.
B. avoids becoming “emotionally triangulated” with the client.
C. avoids making judgments about the client’s behaviors.
D. is authentic and nondefensive

A
  1. 33 Rogers proposed that, for therapy to be effective, the therapist must provide three facilitative conditions – unconditional positive regard, congruence (genuineness), and accurate empathic understanding. Additional information on these conditions is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
    a. Incorrect This sounds more like accurate empathic understanding.
    b. Incorrect This does not describe congruence.
    c. Incorrect This describes unconditional positive regard.
    d. CORRECT Congruence involves being genuine, authentic, and nondefensive.
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34
Q
1.34 In 2010, the American Psychological Association amended Ethics Code Standard 1.02 (Conflicts Between Ethics and Law, Regulations, or Other Governing Legal Authority) and Standard 1.03 (Conflicts Between Ethics and Organizational Demands) in response to concerns about:
A. individual privacy
B. human rights violations
C. misuse of a psychologist’s work
D. multiple relationships
A
  1. 34 Standards 1.02 and 1.03 previously stated that, when psychologists are unable to resolve a conflict between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements or organizational demands by taking “reasonable steps,” they may adhere to the requirements of the law or the demands of the organization.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT In response to concerns about a psychologist’s response to a law or organizational demand that requires the psychologist to engage in torture or other inhumane or degrading action, the APA revised Standards 1.02 and 1.03 so that they now include the following statement: “Under no circumstances may this standard be used to justify or defend violating human rights.” This change became effective June 1, 2010.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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35
Q

1.35 When males view erotic films that depict aggressive acts toward females:
A. they become more accepting of violence toward women.
B. they become more willing to support women’s rights.
C. they become sexually aroused and less aggressive, even when provoked.
D. they are less likely to act aggressively than males who view non-aggressive erotic films.

A
  1. 35 The research has found that, at least under certain conditions, viewing violence tends to increase violence.
    a. CORRECT A number of studies have found that exposure to aggressive erotic films increases aggression toward females as well as acceptance of violence toward women.
    b. Incorrect This is the opposite of what has been found.
    c. Incorrect Studies have found that exposure to an aggressive erotic film can increase aggressiveness and that this effect is enhanced when the individual is provoked following viewing of the film.
    d. Incorrect Exposure to mild non-aggressive erotica has been found to reduce aggression.
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36
Q
1.36 To determine the degree of association between two continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?
A. eta
B. biserial
C. tetrachoric
D. contingency
A
  1. 36 For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the uses of the four correlation coefficients listed in the answers to this question.
    a. Incorrect Eta is used to determine the relationship between two continuous variables when the relationship is known to be nonlinear.
    b. Incorrect The biserial correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between one continuous variable and one artificially dichotomized variable.
    c. CORRECT The tetrachoric correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between two normally distributed continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized. For example, it would be used to assess the degree of association between treatment outcome and symptom severity, when both variables were originally measured on a continuous scale but were then dichotomized so that outcome is categorized as either successful or unsuccessful and symptom severity is categorized as either mild or severe.
    d. Incorrect The contingency correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between two nominal variables.
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37
Q

1.37 An African-American client feels that the primary obstacle in his life is racism and that there’s nothing he can do to change the problems he is experiencing. As defined by Sue (1978), this individual has an:
A. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
B. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
C. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility.
D. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

A
  1. 37 Even if you are unfamiliar with Sue’s conceptualization of worldview, you probably could have identified the correct response by considering the information provided in the question.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    d. CORRECT This individual has an external locus of responsibility (he can’t do anything about his problems) and an external locus of control (he believes his problems are due to racism).
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38
Q

1.38 Matching a therapy client to his/her therapist in terms of ethnicity or culture:
A. is a more accurate predictor of treatment length than treatment outcome
B. is a more accurate predictor of treatment outcome than treatment length.
C. is a good predictor of treatment length and outcome across all ethnic/cultural groups.
D. is not a good predictor of treatment length or outcome regardless of ethnic/cultural group.

A
  1. 38 The research on ethnic matching is far from consistent. However, most studies have found that it has a greater impact on premature termination from therapy than on its outcomes.
    a. CORRECT Members of some groups are more likely than others to benefit from client-therapist matching in terms of ethnicity. When there are benefits, however, they are usually (but not always) for dropout rates rather than for therapy effectiveness.
    b. Incorrect See explanation above.
    c. Incorrect See explanation above.
    d. Incorrect See explanation above.
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39
Q
1.39 The symptoms of numbness, weakness, tremor, and ataxia that characterize multiple sclerosis are due to:
A. lesions in the basal ganglia.
B. demyelination
C. degeneration of ACh receptors.
D. cerebellar atrophy
A
  1. 39 Multiple sclerosis is due to a loss of myelin on nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord.
    a. Incorrect Loss of cells in the basal ganglia underlies Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s chorea.
    b. CORRECT As noted above, demyelination is the cause of the symptoms of multiple sclerosis.
    c. Incorrect A loss of ACh receptors is the cause of myasthenia gravis.
    d. Incorrect Cerebellar atrophy is associated with several disorders including ataxia.
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40
Q
1.40 A 47 year old politician teaching his aides the essentials of dirty tricks tells them, “Nothing is wrong unless you get caught.” One of his aides, a developmental psychologist, comments to another aide that the politician is apparently at the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level of moral development.
A. preconventional
B. conventional
C. postconventional
D. instrumental
A
  1. 40 Kohlberg’s levels of moral development are preconventional morality (punishment-obedience orientation and instrumental-relativist orientation), conventional morality (good boy/nice girl orientation and law and order orientation), and postconventional morality (legalistic orientation and universal ethical principles orientation).
    a. CORRECT Individuals at the punishment-obedience level of preconventional morality believe an action is moral to the degree that it does not result in punishment. Although this stage is characteristic of children aged 4 to 10, it seems that this politician is also at this level.
    b. Incorrect Conventional morality, which is typical of individuals aged 10-13, is characterized by moral judgments motivated by a desire to be liked (good boy/nice girl orientation) or a desire to avoid censure by authority (law and order orientation).
    c. Incorrect Postconventional morality, a level which is not reached by most adults, is characterized by a concern for maintaining the social order (legalistic orientation) or meeting the criteria set by one’s own conscience (universal Ethical Principles orientation).
    d. Incorrect The instrumental-relativist stage, in which moral judgments are based on a desire to satisfy one’s own needs, is the second stage of the preconventional level.
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41
Q

1.41 Inspection of an examinee’s K-corrected MMPI-2 profile reveals that she obtained a T score of 65 or above on the majority of the clinical scales. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this profile?
A. The examinee randomly selected true and false responses.
B. The examinee answered true to all items.
C. Additional evaluation for Malingering is warranted.
D. Additional evaluation for suicidal ideation is warranted.

A
  1. 41 There are several causes of unusual score profiles on the MMPI-2 including random responding and answering all items either true or false.
    a. CORRECT Random responding (or alternating true and false responses) produces high scores on most of the clinical scales along with a very high score on the F-scale.
    b. Incorrect In this situation, an approximately equal number of clinical scales will have low and high scores.
    c. Incorrect Malingering produces a “sawtooth” pattern in the score profile (high and low scores on alternate scales).
    d. Incorrect Suicidal ideation is not suggested by this pattern.
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42
Q

1.42 Research on attraction suggests that we are most likely to join a group when members are:
A. similar in terms of attitudes and ability
B. dissimilar in terms of attitudes and ability.
C. similar in terms of attitude but diverse in terms of ability.
D. diverse in terms of attitude but similar in terms of ability.

A
  1. 42 A consistent finding of the research is that attraction to others is most often related to similarity – i.e., “I’ll like you, if you’re like me.”
    a. CORRECT The studies have shown that people tend to be attracted to others who are similar in terms of personality, attitudes, ability, and a number of other characteristics.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
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43
Q
1.43 The use of functional brain imaging techniques to study ADHD has linked its symptoms to lower-than-normal levels of metabolic activity in the:
A. prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia
B. prefrontal cortex and ARAS.
C. entorhinal cortex and SCN.
D. entorhinal cortex and thalamus.
A
  1. 43 Knowing the functions of the brain areas listed in the responses and the core symptoms of ADHD would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question even if you are unfamiliar with the brain-imaging research.
    a. CORRECT The prefrontal cortex is involved in executive cognitive functions (e.g., planning, decision-making, attention), while the basal ganglia are involved in the regulation of movement. Abnormalities in both have been linked to ADHD.
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44
Q
1.44 During the first therapy session with a new client, you realize that he is the father of a young woman you have been seeing in therapy for three months.  The daughter is 22 years old and no longer lives with her parents.  The most relevant ethical issue in this situation is:
A. confidentiality
B. multiple relationship
C. nonmaleficience.
D. informed consent.
A
  1. 44 This is a straightforward question that may have seemed “too obvious.” When taking the exam, be sure not to sabotage your ability to choose the correct response to an easy item by assuming that it is a “trick question.”
    b. CORRECT Multiple relationships occur when a psychologist is involved in more than one role with a person (and at least one role is a professional relationship) or has a professional relationship with one person and becomes involved in a relationship with another individual who is related to that person. In most situations, multiple relationships should be avoided.
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45
Q

1.45 Research investigating the impact of parenting style on the academic achievement of children and adolescents suggests that the effects are:
A. modified by the offspring’s temperament.
B. modified by the family’s ethnicity/culture
C. modified by level of parental education.
D. not affected by temperament, ethnicity/culture, or parental education.

A
  1. 45 A number of studies have linked authoritative parenting with the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents.
    b. CORRECT This is some evidence that the benefits of authoritative parenting are modified by family ethnicity or culture. For example, L. Sternberg et al. report that the authoritative style is beneficial for the school success of white and Hispanic students but that, for Asian- and African-Americans, this style does not predict school achievement [Ethnic differences in adolescent achievement: An ecological perspective, American Psychologist, 47(6), 723-729, 1992].
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46
Q

1.46 In the context of training programs, utility analysis would be used to:
A. identify organizational needs with regard to training.
B. identify the effective components of a training program.
C. assess the satisfaction of participants with the training program.
D. Assess the return-on-investment of the training program

A
  1. 46 The term “utility analysis” is sometimes used interchangeably with the term “cost-benefit analysis,” and its meaning varies somewhat, depending on the field or context in which it is being used.
    d. CORRECT In organizations, utility analysis relies on accounting procedures to evaluate the costs and benefits of training programs, selection procedures, and other personnel interventions. With regard to training, this might involve considering the costs of developing and implementing the training program, estimates of the productivity of trained versus untrained employees, and the length of time that training is expected to affect employee productivity. See, e.g., W. F. Cascio, Using utility analysis to assess training outcomes, in I. L. Goldstein (Ed.), Training and Development in Organizations, San Francisco, Jossey-Bass, 1989.
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47
Q

1.47 When conducting a factor analysis, a researcher would choose an orthogonal (rather than oblique) rotation when:
A. the variables included in the analysis are correlated.
B. the variables included in the analysis are uncorrelated.
C. the effects of one or more variables have been removed from X only.
D. the effects of one or more variables have been removed from X and Y.

A
  1. 47 When conducting a factor analysis, the rotation of factors can be either orthogonal or oblique.
    a. Incorrect An oblique rotation is used when the variables included in the analysis are believed to be correlated. For example, if you conduct a factor analysis on three tests that are designed to measure verbal ability and three tests that are designed to measure nonverbal ability and there’s evidence that verbal and nonverbal ability are correlated, you would perform an oblique rotation.
    b. CORRECT An orthogonal rotation is used when the variables included in the analysis are believed to be uncorrelated. For example, if you conduct a factor analysis on 50 questionnaire items designed to measure a leader’s task- or person-orientation and you believe that these two orientations are independent (uncorrelated), you would perform an orthogonal rotation.
    c. Incorrect This answer describes semi-partial correlation.
    d. Incorrect This answer describes partial correlation.
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48
Q
1.48 Trainability testing is most associated with which of the following?
A. aptitude tests
B. job enrichment
C. work sample tests
D. behavioral interviews
A
  1. 48 As its name suggests, trainability testing is done to evaluate a person’s potential for learning new skills and incorporate a combination of training and evaluation.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    c. CORRECT Although work samples are probably most often used to evaluate the current ability of experienced applicants to perform the job, they can also be used as trainability tests for applicants who do not have previous experience in order to evaluate their capacity to benefit from training.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
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49
Q
1.49 A person is most likely to be happy in a job that involves working with tools and objects, requires physical strength, and provides regular feedback in the form of practical results if his/her highest score is on the \_\_\_\_\_ subscale of Holland’s Self-Directed Search.
A. investigative
B. mechanical
C. conventional
D. realistic
A
  1. 49 Holland distinguished between six personality/job environment themes.
    a. Incorrect A person who scores high on the investigative theme has scientific, mathematical, analytic, or scholarly interests or skills.
    b. Incorrect Mechanical is not one of Holland’s themes.
    c. Incorrect A person who scores high on the conventional theme has interests or skills in keeping records, organizing data, attending to detail, or following through on others’ instructions.
    d. CORRECT A person who scores high on the realistic theme enjoys or does well in technical, physical, mechanical, and/or outdoor activities.
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50
Q
1.50 Cortisol is a steroid secreted by the:
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. pineal gland
D. pancreas
A
  1. 50 Cortisol is one of several steroid hormones.
    a. CORRECT The steroid hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex. They are critical for many bodily functions including mediating the stress response and maintaining blood sugar levels, bodily fluids, and electrolytes.
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51
Q

1.51 A young man experiences his first episode of Major Depressive Disorder in his mid-20s. If he does not obtain treatment for his depression it is MOST likely that:
A. his symptoms will gradually decline over a six to twelve month period and then remain steady in intensity.
B. his symptoms will remit within three to six months and they may or may not return in the future.
C. his symptoms will remit within two to six weeks and they may or may not return in the future.
D. his symptoms will gradually worsen over time.

A
  1. 51 Without treatment, a Major Depressive episode ordinarily lasts three to six months.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT About 50% of people experiencing their first depressive episode will fully recover within six months with no further symptoms, while 40% will experience recurrent episodes.
    c. Incorrect Symptoms typically do not remit this quickly without treatment.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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52
Q
1.52 The offspring of women who drink during pregnancy are most likely to have structural abnormalities in various organs including the central nervous system, heart, eyes, legs, and arms, and external genitalia when the mother consumes alcohol during the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of her pregnancy.
A. first trimester
B. second trimester
C. third trimester
D. second or third trimester
A
  1. 52 Although the results of research on the effects of alcohol consumption by a pregnant women on her offspring are not entirely consistent, it is possible to make some generalizations.
    a. CORRECT Structural (physical) abnormalities are most likely to occur when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol during the first trimester. Alcohol consumption in the second and third trimesters is associated more with behavioral and psychological deficits. See, e.g., R. J. Haterman, Fetal alcohol syndrome, in Neurodevelopmental disorders: Diagnosis and treatment, New York, Oxford University Press, 1999.
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53
Q

1.53 Research evaluating the use of multi-component cognitive-behavioral therapy for rheumatoid arthritis has found that it:
A. improves social functioning but has little or no effect on pain intensity or joint inflammation.
B. improves comorbid anxiety and depression but has no effect on pain intensity or joint inflammation.
C. improves psychological functioning and, in some cases, has a beneficial effect on pain intensity and joint inflammation
D. reduces pain intensity and joint inflammation but has little or no effect on overall psychological functioning.

A
  1. 53 This is a difficult question since the research on the effects of cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) on the physical and psychological functioning of patients with rheumatoid arthritis has not produced entirely consistent results.
    c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the best one since the qualifier “in some cases” reflects the inconsistency of the research results. While the studies have generally found that CBT has beneficial effects on feelings of self-efficacy, anxiety, and other aspects of psychological functioning, its effects on the physical symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis vary from study to study. In some studies, however, CBT did reduce pain intensity and joint impairment and inflammation. See, e.g., A. O’Leary et al., A cognitive-behavioral treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, Health Psychology, 7,527-544, 1988
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54
Q

1.54 A needs assessment ordinarily consists of three components. These are:
A. evaluative, formative, and summative analysis
B. job, person, and organizational analysis
C. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing
D. knowledge, skills, and abilities

A
  1. 54 A needs assessment is conducted in organizations to determine training needs.
    b. CORRECT A comprehensive needs assessment includes an analysis of the job requirements, the people performing the job, and the goals of the organization. Additional information about needs assessment is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
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55
Q
1.55 The evaluate the impact of an educational program on each student’s mastery of the information presented, which of the following would be most useful?
A. norm-referenced scores
B. criterion-referenced scores
C. standard scores
D. ipsative scores
A
  1. 55 To determine if a student has benefited from an educational program, you would most likely want to determine how much of the information presented in the program has been retained and/or to what degree participation in the program has improved the individual’s performance on a task.
    a. Incorrect Norm-referenced scores (e.g., standard scores, percentile ranks) tell you how well an examinee is doing compared to other examinees.
    b. CORRECT Criterion-referenced scores tell you how well an examinee did in absolute terms (e.g., how many questions he/she answered correctly) and, therefore, would be most useful for the purpose described in the question.
    c. Incorrect Standard scores are a type of norm referenced score.
    d. Incorrect Ipsative scores indicate the relative strengths of the different characteristics measured by a test for the individual and would be less useful than criterion-referenced scores for the purpose described in the question.
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56
Q
1.56 Soon after birth, infants express, through facial expression:
A. discomfort, interest, and surprise
B. distress, interest, and disgust
C. joy, disgust, and fear.
D. joy, anger, and surprise.
A
  1. 56 Parents and researchers agree that infants exhibit a variety of emotions through their facial expressions.
    b. CORRECT By 3 to 4 months of age, infants express at least four emotions through their facial expressions – i.e., interest, sadness, distress, and disgust. Anger, joy, surprise, and fear do not emerge until about 6 to 8 months.
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57
Q

1.57 Which of the following best describes the relationship between REM sleep and dreaming?
A. All dreaming occurs during REM sleep
B. Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep and dreams during non-REM sleep are less vivid and elaborate and more realistic.
C. Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep but dreams during non-REM sleep are more vivid, elaborate, and bizarre in nature.
D. Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep and dreams during non-REM sleep occur only when the individual has been sleep-deprived.

A
  1. 57 Studies on sleep and dreaming have consistently confirmed that most dreams occur during REM (rapid eye movement) sleep.
    b. CORRECT Although some dreaming occurs during non-REM (Stages 1 through 4) sleep, these dreams consist of fleeting images and are less vivid, detailed, and storylike than the dreams that occur during REM sleep.
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58
Q
1.58 The presence of multiple motor and vocal tics that had an onset at age 20 and a duration o 13 months is most suggestive of which DSM-IV-TR diagnosis?
A. Chronic Motor/Vocal Tics
B. Tourette''s Disorder
C. Atypical Tic Disorder
D. Tic Disorder NOS
A
  1. 58 The DSM-IV-TR distinguishes between four Tic Disorders – Tourette’s Disorder, Chronic Motor or Vocal Tics, Transient Tic Disorder, and Tic Disorder NOS. Additional information about these disorders is provided in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
    a. Incorrect A diagnosis of Chronic Motor or Vocal Tics requires the presence of a single or multiple motor or vocal tics that have an onset prior to age 18.
    b. Incorrect A diagnosis of Tourette’s Disorder requires an onset of symptoms prior to age 18.
    c. Incorrect This is not a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis.
    d. CORRECT The NOS diagnosis is appropriate when the individual does not meet the criteria for another Tic Disorder (e.g., because of the age of onset).
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59
Q

1.59 According to the path-goal theory of leadership, a primary task of a leader is to help subordinates find the best path for attaining goals. In terms of leadership style, this theory proposes that:
A. the best style (directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on certain characteristics of the task and the subordinates.
B. the best style (directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on the leader’s experience, personality, and so on.
C. the best style is a participative one that allows employees to help set their own goals.
D. the best style is an achievement-oriented one that focuses on enhancing the skills and knowledge of subordinates so that they are better able to achieve their goals.

A
  1. 59 Path-goal theory is classified as a contingency theory because it proposes that the best style depends on the nature of the situation.
    a. CORRECT According to path-goal theory, the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the task (e.g., level of ambiguity, structure) and of the workers (e.g., traits, abilities).
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60
Q
1.60 A psychologist determines that, for a 6 year child, Behavior A is more probable than Behavior B.  The psychologist tells the parents to make the child’s opportunity to engage in Behavior A contingent on Behavior B.  The psychologist is using which of the following techniques?
A. response cost
B. shaping
C. DRO
D. Premack principle
A
  1. 60 In this situation, the opportunity to engage in the more frequent behavior is being made contingent on performance of the less frequent behavior in order to increase the less frequent behavior.
    d. CORRECT The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which the reinforcer is a frequently occurring behavior. If you allow yourself to talk on the phone to friends (or watch TV) only after studying for at least one hour, you are using the Premack Principle.
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61
Q

1.61 A paraphilia is characterized by:
A. inhibitions in sexual desire
B. sexual urges involving non-living objects.
C. non-normative sexual arousal or activity
D. sexual guilt or shame.

A
  1. 61 According to DSM-IV-TR, the paraphilias are characterized by arousal in response to sexual objects or situations that are not part of normative arousal-activity patterns.
    a. Incorrect A significant inhibition is sexual desire would be classified as a sexual dysfunction.
    b. Incorrect This describes fetishism, which is a type of paraphilia.
    c. CORRECT This response fits the above-cited definition. The paraphilias include fetishism, frotteurism, pedophilia, sexual masochism, sexual sadism, transvestic fetishism, voyeurism, and paraphilia not otherwise specified.
    d. Incorrect Some people suffering from a paraphilia experience guilt or shame about their urges. For others, however, the paraphilia is ego-syntonic.
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62
Q

1.62 Dr. Able, a psychologist, has been seeing a client for five months and feels that the client may not be benefitting from treatment. When she mentions this to him, the client says that he is quite satisfied with the progress of therapy. Based on this information, Dr. Able’s best course of action would be to:
A. continue seeing the client in therapy since the client is satisfied.
B. tell the client that she is ethically required to refer him to another therapist.
C. obtain supervision to ensure that her treatment is effective.
D. consult with another psychologist to discuss the situation

A
  1. 62 When psychologists believe that a client is not benefitting from treatment, special consideration must be given to the situation.
    d. CORRECT Although referral (response b) might be acceptable, it is not necessary as a first course of action in this case given the circumstances. Instead, consultation would be a better action since it would help the therapist determine if his evaluation of the situation is correct.
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63
Q
1.63 Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness.  This condition is known as:
A. Kluver-Bucy syndrome
B. Gerstmann's syndrome.
C. Gerschwind syndrome.
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
A
  1. 63 The research described in this question was conducted by Kluver and Bucy.
    a. CORRECT This constellation of symptoms caused by lesions in the anterior temporal lobes is referred to as Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
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64
Q
1.64 As defined by Beck, “schemas” are:
A. cognitive structures
B. logical errors.
C. innate predispositions.
D. automatic interpretations.
A
  1. 64 For Beck and others, schemas are cognitive structures that represent knowledge about events, objects, or other phenomena. Schemas structure the way we think about the stimuli we encounter.
    a. CORRECT Beck believes that cognitive schemas are the product of biological and environmental phenomena and develop early in life.
    b. Incorrect Logical errors are important to Beck’s theory but are not synonymous with cognitive schemas.
    c. Incorrect Cognitive schemas are predispositions and do have a biological component, but this is not the best response.
    d. Incorrect This sounds more like automatic thoughts, which are also part of Beck’s theory but are not synonymous with cognitive schemas.
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65
Q
1.65 The standard error of measurement for a test that has a standard deviation of 15, a reliability coefficient of .96, and a validity coefficient of .60 is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 9
D. 12
A
  1. 65 To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know the formula for the standard error of measurement.
    b. CORRECT The standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation times the square root of 1 minus the reliability coefficient. For the test described in this question, the standard error of measurement equals 15 times the square root of 1 minus .96: 1 minus .96 is .04, and the square root of .04 is .2, so the standard error is 15 times .2 which equals 3. Additional information about the calculation and use of the standard error of measurement is provided in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials.
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66
Q
1.66 National surveys in the United States have consistently found that adolescents are most likely to say they have used which of the following drugs?
A. marijuana
B. alcohol
C. nicotine
D. cocaine
A
  1. 66 Several surveys have investigated trends in drug use among high school students.
    b. CORRECT For example, data from the National Survey on Drug Use and Health indicated that, in 2007, 15.9% of youth ages 12 to 17 reported drinking alcohol in the past month, 6.7% said they had used marijuana, and 9.8%% said they had smoked cigarettes.
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67
Q
1.67 Sherif’s (1965) social judgment theory implies that, before trying to persuade someone to your point of view, you should consider his/her:
A. categories of judgment
B. locus of control.
C. category-based expectancies.
D. level of self-monitoring.
A
  1. 67 Sherif’s social judgment theory predicts that people have “categories of judgment” by which they evaluate persuasive messages.
    a. CORRECT Sherif’s theory distinguishes between three categories of judgment – latitude of acceptance, latitude of non-commitment, and latitude of rejection. A person is most likely to be persuaded when a message is within his/her latitude of acceptance.
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68
Q
1.68 Elaine considers her friend, Tom, to be quiet and reserved.  She says that when she is alone with Tom or when they are in a small group, Tom listens more than he talks and is never one to “make a scene.”  One day, however, Elaine observes Tom in a large crowd that is waiting for the arrival of a “special celebrity guest” at the opening of a new shopping mall.  The guest is nearly 30 minutes late, and the crowd is beginning to show signs of impatience.  Elaine is surprised when she sees Tom initiate loud “booing” and other derogatory comments while waving his clenched fist in the air in anger.  Which of the following best explains Tom’s unusual behavior?
A. deindividuation
B. social facilitation
C. catharsis
D. paradoxical intention
A
  1. 68 A number of studies have shown that anonymity increases the likelihood that an individual will engage in antisocial or other uncharacteristic behaviors.
    a. CORRECT The increased tendency to act in uncharacteristic ways when anonymity is likely is referred to as “deindividuation” (Zimbardo, 1970). Deindividuation is believed to be the result of a decreased sense of responsibility, reduced self-consciousness, a lowered fear of evaluation, and/or a loss of other inhibitory mechanisms.
    b. Incorrect Social facilitation refers to the tendency toward improved task performance in the presence of others.
    c. Incorrect Catharsis is the therapeutic release of tension, anxiety, etc.
    d. Incorrect Paradoxical intention is a behavioral technique and is not related to this situation.
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69
Q
1.69 When an assumption for a one-way ANOVA is violated, the best course of action would be to use which of the following to analyze the data?
A. Mann-Whitney
B. Wilcoxon
C. Kruskal-Wallis
D. Scheffe
A
  1. 69 The one-way analysis of variance is used to compare three or more independent groups. (Although the one-way ANOVA can be used to compare two groups, the t-test is ordinarily used in this case.)
    a. Incorrect The Mann-Whitney U test is used to compare two independent groups.
    b. Incorrect The Wilcoxon matched-pairs test is used to compare two related groups.
    c. CORRECT The Kruskal-Wallis is the nonparametric alternative to the one-way ANOVA. It can be used to compare two or more independent groups and is useful when one or more of the assumptions for the one-way ANOVA have been violated.
    d. Incorrect The Scheffe is a post-hoc test that is used to compare means. It requires that the same assumptions be met as for the ANOVA.
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70
Q

1.70 Epidemiological studies on rates of various mental disorders in urban and rural areas in the United States have found that:
A. for most mental disorders, the rates are significantly higher in urban areas.
B. for most mental disorders, the rates are significantly higher in rural areas.
C. some disorders are more common in rural or in urban areas, but the differences in rates are usually not statistically significant
D. some disorders are more common in rural or in urban areas, and the differences in rates are usually statistically significant.

A
  1. 70 This is a difficult question to answer since the reported rates of various mental disorders in rural and urban areas vary somewhat from study to study.
    c. CORRECT Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn is that there are few consistent (or statistically significant) differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas. For example, a recent Healthcare for Communities (HCC) survey of 9,585 individuals living in rural and urban areas found no significant differences in the prevalence of the major types of mental illness (L. Tang et al., Report on the Survey Method for the Household Survey of Healthcare for Communities, 1997-1998, Los Angeles, Health Sciences Research Center, UCLA, 2001). This lack of significant differences between rates in rural and urban areas is consistent with the findings of the Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study and the National Comorbidity Survey.
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71
Q
1.71 B. F. Skinner attributed the “superstitious” behaviors of his experimental animals to which of the following?
A. higher-order conditioning
B. successive approximation
C. accidental reinforcement
D. overcorrection
A
  1. 71 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the terms listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about them is provided in the Learning Theory and Cognitive-Behavioral Interventions chapter of the written study materials.
    a. Incorrect As described by Pavlov, higher-order conditioning occurs when a conditioned stimulus is treated as an unconditioned stimulus and paired with a new neutral stimulus so that the new neutral stimulus produces a conditioned response.
    b. Incorrect The method of successive approximations is another name for shaping and involves reinforcing behaviors that come closer and closer to the desired behavior.
    c. CORRECT Skinner found that the odd behaviors exhibited by pigeons in his study were the result of accidental pairing of reinforcers with those behaviors. For example, if a pigeon was accidentally reinforced with food while it was pecking at the floor, it would continue pecking at the floor even though it had never been deliberately reinforced for doing so. Skinner concluded that the superstitious behaviors of humans can also be attributed to accidental reinforcement.
    d. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to decrease or eliminate undesirable behaviors while providing opportunities to practice more desirable alternative behaviors.
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72
Q

1.72 Wolfgang Kohler’s research on animal learning and animal cognition led to his conclusion that learning is:
A. biologically-based.
B. insightful
C. the result of trial-and-error.
D. the result of reinforcement and punishment.

A
  1. 72 Kohler is a co-founder of Gestalt psychology, which focuses on perception. He is probably best known for his research on animals, especially Sultan the chimpanzee.
    b. CORRECT Kohler’s research revealed that like humans, animals seem to experience an “aha” experience (“insight”) while solving problems.
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73
Q

1.73 Following a head injury, Jake J., age 24, exhibits a period of post-traumatic amnesia that persists for nearly one hour. Two days later, Jake is still experiencing a number of symptoms including headache, fatigue, irritability, visual disturbances, and impaired attention. Jake does not have a history of a prior head injury or psychiatric problems. In terms of prognosis, Jake can expect:
A. recovery of all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within two to four weeks.
B. recovery of most or all neuropsychological functions and resolution of most or all symptoms within three to six months
C. significant impairment of some neuropsychological functions and the presence of other symptoms for at least nine to 12 months.
D. significant impairment of most neuropsychological functions and the presence of other symptoms for an indefinite period of time.

A
  1. 73 Post-traumatic amnesia (PTA) refers to the anterograde amnesia that occurs following a traumatic brain injury. The duration of PTA is considered to be a good predictor of outcomes following a brain injury, although the outcomes actually vary considerably from individual to individual.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT Several categorization systems are available for defining severity of a traumatic brain injury based on the duration of the PTA. However, a frequently used system identifies a duration of less than one hour as a mild brain injury. In terms of recovery, most individuals experiencing a mild brain injury recover cognitive and behavioral functions and experience a resolution of other symptoms within 3 to 6 months, although a minority of individuals continues to experience some symptoms for an extended period of time. Factors associated with an increased risk for long-term impairment include female gender, previous head trauma, and history of a neurological or psychiatric problem. See, e.g., J. Ponsford et al., Factors influencing outcome following mild traumatic brain injury in adults, Journal of the International Neuropsychological Society, 6(5), 568-579, 2000.
    c. Incorrect People who experience a mild head injury usually return to premorbid (or near premorbid) levels of functioning within several months. However, those who experience a moderate or severe injury are likely to experience long-term symptoms and impairments in multiple areas of functioning. Note that the research on outcomes following traumatic brain injury has produced inconsistent results and, consequently, there is only limited agreement among the experts regarding the outcomes associated with all severity levels of brain injury.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for responses b and c.
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74
Q

1.74 To evaluate the concurrent validity of a new selection test for salespeople, you would:
A. conduct a factor analysis to confirm that the test measures the attributes it was designed to measure.
B. have sales managers (“subject matter experts”) rate test items for relevance to success as a salesperson.
C. administer the test to a sample of current salespeople and correlate their scores on the test with their recently assigned performance ratings
D. administer the test to salespeople before and after they participate a sales training program and correlate the two sets of scores.

A
  1. 74 Concurrent and predictive validity are types of criterion-related validity.
    a. Incorrect This technique would be used to evaluate the test’s construct validity.
    b. Incorrect This would help establish the test’s content validity.
    c. CORRECT To evaluate a test’s criterion-related validity, scores on the predictor (in this case, the selection test) are correlated with scores on a criterion (measure of job performance). When scores on both measures are obtained at about the same time, they provide information on the test’sconcurrent validity.
    d. Incorrect This procedure would not provide information on the test’s concurrent validity.
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75
Q
1.75 Konrad Lorenz’s (1957) research on “imprinting” in ducklings and goslings had the greatest impact on the study of \_\_\_\_\_\_ in human infants.
A. fear and aggression
B. gender differences
C. sociability
D. attachment
A
  1. 75 “Imprinting” refers to the social bonding that occurs during a critical period following birth in some non-human species.
    d. CORRECT The ethologist Lorenz found that certain birds become attached (bonded) to the first moving object they encounter during the first few days following birth. This finding led to a search for a similar “critical period” for attachment in humans.
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76
Q
1.76 Which of the following is best conceptualized as a type of aversive counterconditioning?
A. implosive therapy
B. overcorrection
C. response cost
D. covert sensitization
A
  1. 76 Aversive counterconditioning is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior that produces a pleasant or positive response (e.g., sexual arousal) by pairing stimuli associated with that behavior with stimuli that produce an unpleasant response. By doing so, the pleasant response is replaced by the unpleasant response and the behavior is reduced or eliminated.
    a. Incorrect Implosive therapy is used to eliminate anxiety and involves exposing the individual to the anxiety-arousing stimulus in imagination for an extended period of time.
    b. Incorrect Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of punishment and involves having the individual engage in certain behaviors as a penalty for having performed the target behavior – e.g., “fixing” the consequences of the target behavior and/or engaging in alternative desirable behaviors.
    c. Incorrect Response cost is a type of negative punishment that involves removing a stimulus (e.g., a privilege) following a behavior whenever it occurs in order to reduce the frequency of that behavior.
    d. CORRECT When using covert sensitization to eliminate an undesirable behavior, the individual imagines an unpleasant (aversive) consequence while imagining that he/she is engaging in the behavior.
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77
Q

1.77 PKU (phenylketonuria) is an inherited disorder that can cause Mental Retardation:
A. only in individuals who are homozygous for the condition
B. only in individuals who are heterozygous for the condition.
C. in individuals who are either homozygous or heterozygous for the condition.
D. in an individual who has at least one parent who is homozygous for the condition.

A
  1. 77 PKU is an autosomal recessive condition, which means that an individual must have two recessive genes (i.e., be homozygous) to have the disorder.
    a. CORRECT PKU is carried on a recessive gene. Consequently, to have the disorder, an individual must have inherited one recessive gene from each parent.
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78
Q
1.78 Adults aged 65 or older usually report the largest number of memories for events that occurred in the 10 year period prior to being evaluated.  For these individuals, the next largest number of memories is for events that occurred when they were between the ages of:
A. 15 and 25. 
B. 25 and 35
C. 35 and 45
D. 45 and 55
A
  1. 78 The research has shown that older adults typically recall recent and remote events better than intermediate events.
    a. CORRECT The term “reminiscence bump” is used to refer to the greater memory for events that occurred during adolescence and early adulthood.
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79
Q
1.79 With regard to information revealed by a client in the context of the client-therapist relationship, who is the “holder of the privilege”?
A. the client
B. the therapist
C. the court
D. both the client and the therapist
A
  1. 79 The psychotherapist-patient privilege refers to the legal right of the client to have his/her psychotherapy records and disclosure withheld in a legal proceeding. This privilege is state law in all 50 states, though the laws related to privilege (e.g., exceptions to privilege) vary somewhat from state to state.
    a. CORRECT In all states, the client is ordinarily the holder of the privilege, which means that it is up to the client to decide whether to exercise or waive the privilege.
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80
Q

1.80 Dr. X has been asked to administer a psychological test to an individual who requires special accommodations because of a physical disability. The test was not developed or normed for individuals with this disability. The APA’s Guidelines for Test User Qualifications recommend that, in this situation, psychologists:
A. refuse to administer the test.
B. refuse to administer the test unless there are no alternative methods of assessment.
C. exercise “special care” when administering and scoring the test and interpreting its results.
D. obtain legal advice on relevant legal requirements regarding the administration and use of the test

A
  1. 80 The APA’s position on this issue is summarized by S. M. Turner, S. T. DeMers, H. R. Fox, and G. M. Reed in APA’s Guidelines for Test User Qualifications: An executive summary (American Psychologist, 56, 1099-1113, 2001).
    d. CORRECT In their summary, Turner et al. note that there may be legal requirements that apply to the administration and use of tests when an individual requires special accommodations. To ensure that these requirements are met, psychologists should consider them and, when appropriate, “obtain legal advice on legal and regulatory requirements regarding appropriate administration of tests and use of test data when assessing individuals with disabilities” (p. 1103). Note that Standard 10.2 of theStandards for Educational and Psychological Testing also addresses this issue and requires test users who do not have adequate knowledge or experience in modifying tests for individuals with disabilities to seek guidance from a consultant or supervisor who has expertise.
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81
Q
1.81 Of the “Big Five” personality traits, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is most predictive of job performance across different types of jobs and job settings.
A. openness to experience
B. conscientiousness
C. agreeableness
D. extraversion
A
  1. 81 Empirical research has identified five basic personality traits (the “Big Five”): neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.
    b. CORRECT Conscientiousness refers to the individual’s level of responsibility, dependability, persistence, self-control, and achievement motivation. Perhaps not surprisingly, of the Big Five traits, conscientiousness has been found to the best predictor of job performance across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures.
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82
Q
1.82 Cognitive dissonance theory and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ share in common the assumption that an uncomfortable experience or sensation is the primary cause of attitude change.
A. the sleeper effect
B. attitude inoculation
C. balance theory
D. the elaboration likelihood model
A
  1. 82 According to Festinger’s (1964) cognitive dissonance theory, unpleasant psychological tension occurs when a person has inconsistent (dissonant) cognitions, which motivates the person to change one of those cognitions.
    a. Incorrect In the context of social psychology, the sleeper effect refers to the tendency to remember a message but, over time, to forget the source of the message. One outcome of the sleeper effect is that people may eventually adopt an attitude or belief that was originally communicated to them by an low-credible source because they have forgotten the source.
    b. Incorrect McGuire (1969) found attitude inoculation (McGuire, 1969) to be a useful method for helping people resist persuasive messages. It involves providing the individual with arguments against his/her initial position along with counterarguments prior to hearing the persuasive message.
    c. CORRECT Like cognitive dissonance theory, balance theory (Heider, 1958) is based on the principle of cognitive consistency, which proposes that having inconsistent attitudes produces a state of discomfort that leads to attitude change.
    d. Incorrect The elaboration likelihood model is a model of attitude change and proposes that there are two routes of persuasion – the central and peripheral routes – which differ in terms of the degree to which a persuasive message is elaborated (processed) by the recipient.
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83
Q
1.83 According to classical test theory, X= T + E, where E refers to:
A. random error
B. equivalency
C. predictive error
D. estimated consistency
A
  1. 83 According to classical test theory, an examinees obtained test score (X) is composed of two components – T and E.
    a. CORRECT “T” refers to true score variability, while “E” refers to random (measurement) error.
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84
Q

1.84 In terms of incremental validity, which of the following situations most supports the use of a new predictor?
A. moderate base rate with many applicants and few job openings
B. low base rate with many applicants and few job openings
C. moderate base rate with few applicants and many job openings
D. low base rate with few applicants and many job openings

A
  1. 84 The degree to which a new selection technique will increase decision-making accuracy depends on several factors including the base rate (proportion of correct decisions without the new technique) and the selection ratio (ratio of applicants to job openings).
    a. CORRECT A moderate base rate suggests that there’s room for improvement and, therefore, that a new predictor is likely to increase decision-making accuracy. Also, the situation is optimal when there are many applicants to choose from (a low selection ratio).
    b. Incorrect A low base rate suggests that something else besides selection is the problem – e.g., the company’s standards of success are too high or employees need training in order to do the job satisfactorily.
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85
Q
1.85 When working with a “split-brain” patient, you would notice that he or she has the most difficulty with regard to which of the following?
A. reflexive functions
B. executive functions
C. memory functions
D. sensory functions
A
  1. 85 “Split-brain” patients have had their corpus callosum severed, usually as a treatment for severe epilepsy.
    d. CORRECT A primary function of the corpus callosum is to transfer sensory (and some motor) information from one hemisphere to the other. When the corpus callosum is severed, messages from the right brain cannot be transferred to the left brain and vice versa, and this deficit is most apparent in tasks involving sensory input.
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86
Q
1.86 Which of the following would be most useful for combining the results of several research studies that each evaluated the effectiveness of the same treatment for a particular disorder?
A. p-value
B. kappa coefficient
C. coefficient alpha
D. effect size
A
  1. 86 To combine data from different studies (which may have different sample sizes, different outcome measures, etc.), the data must be converted to a common metric.
    a. Incorrect Although the p-value indicates the level of significance (probability that the null hypothesis is false), it is not as useful as an effect size for combining the results of different studies.
    b. Incorrect The kappa coefficient is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability.
    c. Incorrect Coefficient alpha is used to assess internal consistency reliability.
    d. CORRECT An effect size is the index that is calculated when conducting a meta-analysis. It converts data from different studies to a common metric so that the results of the studies can be combined and compared.
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87
Q

1.87 A distinguishing feature between Alzheimer’s Disease and Vascular Dementia is that, in the latter:
A. the onset of symptoms must be prior to age 65.
B. the course is erratic rather than progressive
C. short- and long-term memory are both significantly impaired.
D. the onset of symptoms is insidious rather than abrupt.

A
  1. 87 Vascular Dementia is a form of Dementia that is caused by cerebrovascular disease and that is characterized by a “stepwise” deterioration in functioning.
    a. Incorrect Although onset is often earlier in Vascular Dementia, onset prior to age 65 is not a clear distinguishing feature between the two disorders.
    b. CORRECT This is the primary distinguishing feature between the two disorders.
    c. Incorrect Memory impairment is associated with both disorders.
    d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
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88
Q
1.88 Which of the following is useful for understanding why a college undergraduate frequently avoids studying for an important exam by partying the night before the exam?
A. theory of planned behavior
B. deindividuation
C. self-handicapping
D. Barnum effect
A
  1. 88 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic assumptions and predictions of the four theories listed in the answers to this question.
    a. Incorrect The theory of planned behavior predicts that a person’s attitudes are accurate predictors of his/her behavior when the attitude measure addresses all three components of the person’s behavioral intention – i.e., attitude toward engaging in the behavior, what the person thinks others believe he/she should do, and the person’s perceived behavioral control.
    b. Incorrect Deindividuation refers to a person’s sense of anonymity and loss of a sense of self-responsibility that occur when the person is part of a group. Deindividuation has been used to explain why people are more likely to act in antisocial ways when acting as a member of a group than when acting alone.
    c. CORRECT Self-handicapping occurs when a person creates obstacles to his/her performance so that he/she can attribute any failures to the obstacles rather than to a lack of ability or effort.
    d. Incorrect The Barnum effect is the tendency to accept vague, general descriptions of oneself (e.g., a horoscope) as being accurate.
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89
Q
1.89 A cigarette smoker says that she has decided to quit smoking in the next three to four weeks and has started developing a plan for doing so.  According to the transtheoretical (stages-of-change) model, this person is in which of the following stages?
A. preparation
B. contemplation
C. precontemplation
D. action
A
  1. 89 The transtheoretical model predicts that an intervention is most effective when it matches the individual’s stage of change.
    a. CORRECT From the perspective of the transtheoretical model, a person is in the preparation stage when he/she has a clear intent to take action in the immediate future (usually defined as within the next month).
    b. Incorrect A person in the contemplation stage is planning to take steps to change in the more distant future (usually defined as within the next six months).
    c. Incorrect A person in the precontemplation stage has no intention of changing in the forseeable future.
    d. Incorrect People in the action phase have already started making changes in their lives.
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90
Q
1.90 A therapy client who has angry, hostile feelings for his soon-to-be ex-wife begins to verbally attack his supportive therapist for no reason.  The client’s behavior illustrates which of the following defense mechanisms?
A. reaction formation
B. projection
C. sublimation
D. displacement
A
  1. 90 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the defense mechanisms listed in the answers to this question.
    a. Incorrect Reaction formation involves changing an unacceptable feeling or impulse into its opposite.
    b. Incorrect Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable feeling to another person.
    c. Incorrect Sublimation is the transformation of an unacceptable impulse into a socially acceptable behavior.
    d. CORRECT Displacement involves redirecting undesirable sexual or aggressive feelings toward one person onto a safe or vulnerable substitute.
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91
Q

1.91 In a research study, a child sits in front of a three-dimensional model of a mountain scene while another person sits on the opposite side of the mountain scene. The child is then asked to first choose a photograph that depicts the scene that he or she has observed and then to choose the picture that depicts what the other person observed. Being familiar with the research on Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, you predict that children 3 to 5 years of age will most likely:
A. pick the correct picture for their own point of view and pick the same (incorrect) picture for the point of view of the other person
B. pick the correct picture for their own point of view and pick a different (but incorrect) picture for the point of view of the other person.
C. pick the correct pictures for their own point of view and the point of view of the other person.
D. pick incorrect pictures for their own point of view and the point of view of the other person.

A
  1. 91 This question describes a study that is very similar to the one conducted by Piaget, which confirmed that preoperational children are egocentric – i.e., they have trouble understanding another person’s point of view.
    a. CORRECT This response is consistent with the results of research conducted by Piaget and others, which found that preoperational children were usually unable to recognize that another person’s view of the mountain differed from their own. (Note, however, that some recent research suggests that young children’s perspective-taking may be affected by the type of task or other variables.)
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92
Q
1.92 According to the DSM-IV-TR, \_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs more often in women who have ben exposed to a sexual trauma and have negative attitudes toward sex.
A. Female Hypoactive Sexual Desire
B. Female Orgasmic Disorder
C. Vaginismus
D. Dyspareunia
A
  1. 92 All of the disorders listed in the answers to this question are Sexual Dysfunctions identified in the DSM.
    c. CORRECT The DSM identifies exposure to sexual trauma and negative attitudes toward sex in its description of associated features for Vaginismus.
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93
Q
1.93 Which of the following aspects of memory is likely to show the greatest age-related decline?
A. sensory memory
B. Memory span
C. recent long-term memory
D. remote long-term memory
A
  1. 93 Research has confirmed a predictable pattern in age-related declines in memory and other cognitive abilities, and the major changes are described in the Lifespan Development chapter.
    c. CORRECT Recent long-term (secondary) memory is most affected by increasing age, followed by working memory. The other aspects of memory listed in the answers are relatively unaffected by increasing age.
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94
Q
1.94 The research on prenatal exposure to alcohol has found that it is most likely to produce severe physical defects when exposure occurs during the:
A.	first trimester
B.	second trimester
C.	first half of the third trimester
D.	second half of the third trimester
A
  1. 94 Although prenatal exposure to alcohol during the first trimester has been linked to the most severe physical defects, other aspects of development may be more vulnerable later in the pregnancy – e.g., attention and other cognitive functions may be more severely impaired when exposure occurs during the third trimester.
    a. CORRECT The studies suggest that exposure to alcohol during the second half of the first trimester is associated with the most severe physical defects (e.g., low birth weight, smaller-than-normal head circumference, altered shape of eyes and lips). See, e.g., H.S. Feldman et al., Prenatal alcohol exposure patterns and alcohol-related birth defects and growth deficiencies: A prospective study, Alcoholism: Clinical and Experimental Research, 36(4), 670-676, 2012.
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95
Q

1.95 According to Albert Bandura, modeling (observational learning):
A. teaches new behaviors
B. disinhibits and facilitates behaviors already in one’s repertoire.
C. provides cues as to the appropriateness of a particular behavior
D. all of the above

A
  1. 95 Bandura’s research found that modeling is useful for the acquisition of new behaviors and for increasing or decreasing behaviors already in an individual’s repertoire.
    d. CORRECT According to Bandura, modeling serves a number of functions including the ones listed in responses a, b, and c. (And, if you think about it, this makes sense: We learn a lot from observing others.)
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96
Q
1.96 Providing education and job training to adolescents and young adults who have recently been released from a drug treatment program is an example of:
A.	primary prevention
B.	secondary prevention
C.	tertiary prevention
D.	social intervention
A
  1. 96 In this situation, adolescents and young adults are being provided with services that are intended to reduce the likelihood of future drug abuse (relapse).
    a. Incorrect Primary preventions emphasize counteracting harmful circumstances before they have an opportunity to produce mental or physical illness.
    b. Incorrect Secondary preventions emphasize the early diagnosis and treatment of disorders.
    c. CORRECT Rehabilitation is the goal of tertiary preventions.
    d. Incorrect This is a “made up” term.
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97
Q
1.97 In addition to identifying “bounded rationality” as an impediment to rational decision-making, Herbert Simon is known for his work on:
A.	artificial intelligence
B.	job burnout
C.	groupthink
D.	organizational culture
A
  1. 97 Although Herbert Simon is probably best known for his work on individual decision-making, he was also a pioneer in the field of artificial intelligence.
    a. CORRECT Simon believed there are two main goals in using and studying computers: (1) to augment human intelligence and (2) to help understand how humans think.
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98
Q

1.98 In 1989, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy revised the 1978 learned helplessness theory of depression. In their revision, ________ is conceptualized as a proximal and sufficient cause of depressive symptoms.

A. non-contingent reinforcement
B. a depressogenic cognitive style
C. an external locus of control
D. a sense of hopelessness

A
  1. 98 L. Y. Abramson, G. I. Metalsky, and L. B. Alloy’s revised learned helplessness model proposes that a sense of hopelessness is a proximal and sufficient cause of depression [Hopelessness depression: A theory-based subtype of depression, Psychological Review, 1989, 96(2), 358-372].
    a. Incorrect Non-contingent reinforcement is not identified as a cause of depression in Abramson et al.’s theory.
    b. Incorrect These investigators do not identify a depressogenic cognitive style as a cause of depression.
    c. Incorrect An external locus of control is not identified as a cause of depression by these investigators.
    d. CORRECT Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy identify a sense of hopelessness as a proximal cause because, in the chain of events leading to depression, it is at the end of the chain; and as a sufficient cause because the presence of hopelessness is sufficient to cause depressive symptoms.
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99
Q
1.99 The characteristic symptoms of Nicotine Withdrawal include all of the following except:
A.	dysphoric/depressed mood
B.	hypersomnia
C.	decreased heart rate
D.	increased appetite/weight gain
A
  1. 99 The rapid onset of withdrawal symptoms is considered to be a primary reason why individuals with Nicotine Dependence find it so difficult to stop smoking.
    a. Incorrect Dysphoric/depressed mood is one of the symptoms of Nicotine Withdrawal, and recent studies suggest that a desire to avoid negative affect may be the most common reason for relapse following an attempt to stop smoking.
    b. CORRECT Nicotine Withdrawal is characterized by insomnia (not hypersomnia).
    c. Incorrect Decreased heart rate is a characteristic symptom of Nicotine Withdrawal.
    d. Incorrect Increased appetite with weight gain is a common symptom of Nicotine Withdrawal, with an average weight gain of 2-3 kg (4.4 to 6.6 lb) during the first year after stopping smoking.
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100
Q

1.100 Lesions in the right (nondominant) hemisphere of the cerebral cortex are most likely to have which of the following effects?
A. increase catastrophic reactions to benign events
B. produce indifference or excessive cheerfulness
C. produce excessive fear and anger
D. decrease talkativeness

A
  1. 100Although the studies suggest that simple left-right distinctions about the brain are not entirely accurate, some generalizations can be made. With regard to emotions, the left hemisphere mediates positive emotions, while the right hemisphere mediates negative emotions.
    a. Incorrect This is associated with damage to the left hemisphere.
    b. CORRECT The right hemisphere governs negative emotions, and lesions to this side of the brain produce an opposite effect – i.e., indifference, emotional lability, and atypical humor (e.g., either not responding to jokes or cartoons or laughing even when they are not understood).
    c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
    d. Incorrect This is also the opposite of what is true. Lesions in the right hemisphere often increase talkativeness.
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101
Q

1.101 Congentical cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the second most common cause of mental retardation after Down Syndrome. In additional to cognitive impairments, it is most likely to cause which of the following?
A. facial deformities
B. heart and lung abnormalities
C. genital, urinary, and intestinal abnormalities
D. hearing and visual impairments

A
  1. 101 CMV is a type of herpes virus. Although infection with CMV during adulthood usually produces no or mild symptoms, infection during prenatal development or birth can be life-threatening.
    d. CORRECT Approximately 10% of infants infected with CMV show symptoms at birth, and about 10 to 15% of infants who are asymptomatic at birth develop symptoms during the first few years of life. Common symptoms include some degree of mental retardation and hearing and visual impairments.
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102
Q

1.102 Dr. Stan Sanchez is not getting along with his neighbor and finds that he has little patience and tends to get angry with therapy clients who resemble the man. To be consistent with the requirements of the APA’s Ethics Code, Dr. Sanchez should:
A. refer clients who resemble his neighbor to another therapist.
B. inform clients who resemble his neighbor about his current situation and discuss their options with them.
C. consult with another professional to determine the best course of action
D. monitor his behavior for signs of impaired objectivity and peformance.

A
  1. 102 This situation is addressed in Standard 2.06 of the Ethics Code.
    a. Incorrect Referral may be appropriate but, before doing so, Dr. Martin would want to discuss this situation with a colleague to determine if that is the best course of action.
    b. Incorrect Informing the client about his personal problem would not be an appropriate course of action.
    c. CORRECT Standard 2.06 states that, when psychologists become aware that “personal problems may interfere with their performing work-related duties adequately, they take appropriate measures, such as obtaining professional consultation or assistance.”
    d. Incorrect Monitoring his activity would not be sufficient since Dr. Martin is already aware that his problem with his neighbor is having an adverse impact on his effectiveness with some of his clients
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103
Q

1.103 Raven Colored Progressive Matrices would be useful for:
A. assessing the intelligence of a 9 year old non-English speaking child.
B. assessing the intelligence of an 18-year-old who has a learning disability
C. assessing the memory of a 74-year-old with early signs of dementia.
D. assessing the intelligence of a 45-year-old who has Broca’s aphasia.

A
  1. 103 Raven Colored Progressive Matrices (RCPM) is a 36-item test of intelligence that uses figural test stimuli presented in a 6-option multiple-choice format.
    a. CORRECT Because it is a nonverbal test, the RCPM is considered appropriate for non-English speaking individuals as well as individuals with speech deficits. The test is designed for children ages 5 through 11 years.
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104
Q
1.104 The kappa statistic is used as measure of reliability when data are:
A. nominal or ordinal (discontinuous)
B. interval or ratio (continuous).
C. nonlinear.
D. metric
A
  1. 104 The kappa statistic is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability.
    a. CORRECT The kappa statistic is used to measure the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters when data are nominal or ordinal. (Note that some authors use the term “discontinuous” to refer to nominal and other discrete data – i.e., data that represents noncontinuous categories.)
    d. Incorrect See explanation above. (Note that the term “metric” is sometimes used to refer to interval and ratio data.)
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105
Q
1.105 Which of the following groups has the highest rate of admission as inpatients to state and county psychiatric hospitals?
A.	married men
B.	never married men
C.	married women
D.	never married women
A
  1. 105 The statistics on psychiatric hospital admission rates vary from study to study. However, most studies report that the highest rates are for never married men.
    a. Incorrect The admission rate for married men is lower than the rate for never married men.
    b. CORRECT The data indicate that never married men have the highest rate of admission.
    c. Incorrect In state and county hospitals, never married women have higher admission rates than married women, while the reverse is true for private hospitals. However, in either case, the rate for women is lower than the rate for men.
    d. Incorrect See explanations above.
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106
Q

1.106 According to Erikson, successful resolution of the final stage of psychosocial development involve which of the following:

A. identity
B. intimacy
C. wisdom
D. hope

A
  1. 106 The final stage in Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development involves a conflict between integrity versus despair.
    a. Incorrect The development of a coherent identity is the goal of adolescence.
    b. Incorrect Developing intimate relationships is a goal during young adulthood.
    c. CORRECT Successful resolution of the psychosocial conflict of late adulthood (ages 65 and over) involves developing a broader philosophical and moral perspective (“wisdom”) that younger adults often lack.
    d. Incorrect “Hope” is not associated with this stage.
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107
Q

1.107 A structural family therapist would use a family map to:

A. facilitate interactions between family members during a therapy session.
B. help family members recognize differences in their perceptions.
C. identify family values, life themes, and significant life events.
D. clarify the nature of the boundaries between family subsystems.

A
  1. 107 Knowing that boundaries are a key focus of Minuchin’s structural family therapy would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
    a. Incorrect This describes the goal of enactment.
    b. Incorrect This is a goal of circular questions, which are used by Milan systematic family therapists.
    c. Incorrect Identifying and using family values, life themes, and significant life events in conversations during therapy is referred to as tracking.
    d. CORRECT A family map is used to help make a structural diagnosis of a family by clarifying its boundaries, coalitions, alignments, etc.
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108
Q

1.108 Which of the following is a contingency model of leadership that distinguishes between five levels of participative leadership?

A. Fiedler’s contingency theory
B. House’s path-goal theory
C. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model
D. Vroom, Yetton, and Jago’s normative model

A
  1. 108 For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the leadership models listed in the answers to this question. These models are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
    d. CORRECT The clue to identifying the correct answer to this question is the number “five” because only one of the models listed (the Vroom-Yetton-Jago model) distinguishes between five leadership styles.
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109
Q

1.109 When using cluster sampling, you:
A. make sure that the proportion of participants sampled from each identified group matches the proportion of individuals in the population.
B. systematically sample every “kth” element in each target group until the desired sample size is obtained.
C. first divide the population into relevant segments and then randomly sample from each segment.
D. identify and then randomly select naturally occurring groups of participants from the population

A
  1. 109 As its name implies, cluster sampling involves sampling “clusters.”
    a. Incorrect This describes proportionate sampling.
    b. Incorrect This sounds like systematic sampling.
    c. Incorrect This describes stratified random sampling.
    d. CORRECT When using cluster sampling, an investigator identifies naturally occurring clusters (groups) and then randomly selects clusters rather than individuals. All individuals in each cluster or a sample of individuals from each cluster are then included in the study.
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110
Q

1.110 Childhood-onset Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder:

A. is about equally common in boys and girls.
B. is four times more common in girls than boys
C. is two times more common in girls than boys.
D. is more common in boys than girls.

A
  1. 110 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the prevalence rates and gender ratios for several disorders including OCD. The rates and ratios you’re most likely to encounter on exam questions are included in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
    d. CORRECT While OCD is about equally common in adult males and females, because of its earlier onset in males, it is more common in male children than in female children.
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111
Q

1.111 Data published by Hans Eysenck in 1952:
A. confirmed the effectiveness of behavioral treatments for a variety of psychological disorders.
B. confirmed the “Dodo bird” hypothesis, which predicts that various types of therapy are equally effective for a variety of psychological disorders.
C. challenged the notion of “spontaneous remission.”
D. challenged the effectiveness of conventional psychotherapeutic interventions.

A
  1. 111 Eysenck’s 1952 publication sparked research on psychotherapy outcomes.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    b. Incorrect This sounds more like the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) meta-analysis, which found relatively few differences between various therapeutic approaches.
    c. Incorrect This is just the opposite of what Eysenck concluded.
    d. CORRECT Eysenck reported that 66% of patients in eclectic therapy and 44% in psychoanalytic psychotherapy improved versus 72% of those with similar problems who did not receive therapy.
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112
Q

1.112 When a predictor’s reliability coefficient is .75, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be:

A. no less than .75.
B. no greater than .75
C. no less than the square root of .75.
D. no greater than the square root of .75

A
  1. 112 Knowing the formula for the relationship between reliability and validity would have allowed you to identify the correct answer to this question.
    d. CORRECT As indicated by the formula in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, a test’s criterion-related validity coefficient cannot exceed the square root of its reliability coefficient.
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113
Q

1.113 Recent research suggests that higher rates of Schizophrenia among African-Americans is most likely attributable to:

A. heredity
B. family dynamics
C. socioeconomic factors
D. misdiagnosis of hallucinations and delusions

A
  1. 113 Studies in both the United States and England have found that members of certain minority groups (especially groups devalued by the dominant culture) are more likely to receive a diagnosis of Schizophrenia.
    d. CORRECT Research suggests that the discrepancy in rates of Schizophrenia is due to misdiagnosis rather than to actual differences in the prevalence of the disorder. A contributing factor to misdiagnosis may be that African-Americans have a higher incidence of hallucinations and delusions that are actually due to other disorders such as mania, depression, and alcohol abuse.
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114
Q

1.114 According to ______, successful intelligence is composed of three components— analytical, creative, and practical.

A. Sternberg’s triarchic model
B. Gardner’s multiple intelligences model
C. the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory
D. Carroll’s three-stratum theory

A
  1. 114 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four theories of intelligence listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
    a. CORRECT Sternberg’s triarchic theory describes successful intelligence as consisting of the three components listed in this question.
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115
Q

1.115 A 32 year old man doesn’t like talking to his neighbors or co-workers, says he’s not interested in marriage, doesn’t reciprocate smiling or nodding in conversations, and, in school, was an underachiever and was frequently teased by peers. These symptoms are most suggestive of:

A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder.
B. Schizoid Personality Disorder
C. Avoidant Personality Disorder.
D. Relational Problems NOS.

A
  1. 115 This individual exhibits a lack of desire for interpersonal relationships, which is characteristic of only one of the disorders listed.
    a. Incorrect There is nothing in the question to suggest the man is experiencing anxiety.
    b. CORRECT The man’s lack of interest in social relationships is a key characteristic of Schizoid Personality Disorder. In addition, peer problems are a common associated feature.
    c. Incorrect The question doesn’t say anything about a fear of criticism or rejection, which is characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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116
Q

1.116 Soon after starting to take an antidepressant, a young women develops several undesirable side effects including dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and blurred vision. Which of the following would be most useful for alleviating these symptoms?

A. caffeine
B. antihistamine
C. dopamine agonist
D. cholinergic agonist

A
  1. 116 The woman’s symptoms are anticholinergic side effects that are caused by the antidepressant drug’s interference with acetylcholine activity.
    d. CORRECT Cholinergic agonists (e.g., bethanechol) increase acetylcholine activity by enhancing the activity of endogenous acetylcholine or by binding to and activating acetylcholine receptors. A cholinergic agonist would help alleviate the woman’s anticholinergic side effects.
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117
Q

1.117 The ______ I sused to quantify a patient’s level of consciousness following a traumatic brain injury and entails assigning score for three functions- eye response, verbal response, and motor response.

A. Mini Mental State Exam
B. AVPU Scale
C. Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning
D. Glasgow Coma Scale

A
  1. 117 Several techniques are used to evaluate level of consciousness.
    a. Incorrect The Mini Mental State Exam is a screening test that is used to evaluate cognitive functioning.
    b. Incorrect The AVPU scale is used to assess consciousness but involves indicating a patient’s status in terms of four levels: alert, responds to vocal stimuli, responds to painful stimuli, or unresponsive.
    c. Incorrect The current version of the Rancho Scale entails evaluating the patient in terms of ten levels ranging from “no response” to “purposeful/appropriate response.”
    d. CORRECT Use of the Glasgow Coma Scale requires rating the patient in terms of best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. From these ratings, the patient receives a total score ranging from 3 (worst possible score) to 15 (best possible score).
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118
Q

1.118 Which of the following is generally considered the best defense for a psychologist in cases of litigation?

A. licensure
B. adequate records
C. informed consent
D. liability insurance

A
  1. 118 A review of the literature on risk management reveals consensus among the experts that good record-keeping is a key defense in cases of malpractice.
    b. CORRECT S. Knapp, for instance, notes that “An axiom of risk management is that if it is not documented, it did not occur” (Professional liability and risk management in an era of managed care, in D. T. Marsh and R. O. Magee [Eds.], Ethical and legal issues in professional practice with families, New York, John Wiley and Sons, 1997).
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119
Q

1.119 A researcher conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as “stimulus generalization” would most likely do which of the following after establishing a conditioned response in her participants?

A. Present new stimuli that are similar in varying degrees to the CS.
B. Repeatedly present the CS after a neutral stimulus.
C. Repeatedly present the CS without the US.
D. Pair presentation of the CS with a second US.

A
  1. 119 Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the CS elicit a response that is similar to the CR.
    a. CORRECT This procedure would be used to determine the extent of stimulus generalization following classical conditioning.
    b. Incorrect This answer describes higher-order conditioning.
    c. Incorrect This answer describes extinction.
    d. Incorrect The procedure described in this answer would not be useful for investigating stimulus generalization.
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120
Q

1.120 A psychologist is hired by a court to evaluate a defendant during the course of a criminal proceeding. The psychologist can subsequently include information about the results of the evaluation in a book she is writing on “the criminal mind”:
A. as long as the defendant was warned of the limits of confidentiality at the time of the evaluation.
B. as long as the information included in the book is part of the public record.
C. as long as the psychologist determines that the value of the information warrants its inclusion in the book.
D. only if the psychologist has received the permission of the defendant or the defendant’s legal representative to do so.

A
  1. 120 This situation is addressed in Paragraph E.3 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (APA, 1991).
    d. CORRECT Even if the information is in the public record, the psychologist who conducted the evaluation for the court should obtain the defendant’s permission to use evaluation data for another purpose.
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121
Q

1.121 Regarding the care and use of animals in research, the APA’s Ethics Code addresses all the following EXCEPT:

A. individuals under the supervision of psychologists.
B. the termination of an animal subject’s life.
C. security measures used to protect the laboratory
D. compliance with state and federal laws

A
  1. 121 Standard 8.09 focuses on the “humane care and use of animals in research.”
    a. Incorrect Supervision is addressed in 8.09(b): “Psychologists trained in research methods and experienced in the care of laboratory animals supervise all procedures involving animals and are responsible for ensuring appropriate consideration of their comfort, health, and humane treatment.”
    b. Incorrect Termination of animals is addressed in 8.09(g): “When it is appropriate that the animal’s life be terminated, it is done rapidly, with an effort to minimize pain, and in accordance with accepted procedures.”
    c. CORRECT The security of the laboratory is not explicitly discussed in the ethical standards.
    d. Incorrect Standard 8.09(a) requires psychologists who use animals in research to comply with federal, state, and local laws and regulations.
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122
Q

1.122 Research on bilingualism suggests that it:

A. has detrimental effects on several aspects of children’s cognitive performance, especially during the elementary school years.
B. has beneficial effects on children’s cognitive flexibility and metalinguistic awareness in the elementary school years but that these effects probably do not persist
C. has beneficial effects on cognitive flexibility and metalinguistic awareness that persist throughout childhood, adolescence, and adulthood.
D. has no demonstrable effect on cognitive development in childhood or adolescence.

A
  1. 122 This is a difficult question since the research findings on this issue have produced somewhat inconsistent results.
    a. Incorrect While there may be some temporary delays in language acquisition, overall, bilingualism seems to have more positive consequences for cognitive development than negative ones.
    b. CORRECT Bilingualism has been found to have benefits in terms of divergent thinking (including cognitive flexibility) and metalinguistic awareness. However, there is some evidence that these benefits are only temporary and that, in adolescence and adulthood, bilinguals are indistinguishable from monolinguals.
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123
Q

1.123 A middle-aged woman is admitted to the emergency room of a hospital, complaining of chest pain, tachycardia, and shortness of breath. During the examination and interview, she is very restless and often gets up to pace back and forth. She says she has had similar “attacks” in the past, but that this one is the worst. Assuming that there is no medical cause of the woman’s symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is which of the following?

A. Somatization Disorder
B. Pain Disorder
C. Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia
D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A
  1. 123 The woman’s symptoms are characteristic of a panic attack.
    a. Incorrect Somatization Disorder involves recurrent and multiple somatic complaints.
    b. Incorrect Pain Disorder is characterized by pain as the predominant focus of clinical presentation, with psychological factors judged to have an important role in the pain.
    c. CORRECT The woman’s symptoms are most characteristic of Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia.
    d. Incorrect Although this woman is anxious and restless, her symptoms do not meet the criteria for Generalized Anxiety Disorder.
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124
Q

1.124 You receive a letter from the Ethics Committee asking for information about a former client who has filed a complaint against her current therapist. You stopped seeing the client over seven years ago. You should:

A. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending it a copy of the client’s file.
B. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending it the information you believe is relevant to the case.
C. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending it the information you believe is relevant to the case after confirming the client has signed a release
D. inform the Committee that the information you have about the client is seven years old and that you’re ethically obligated not to forward it to them.

A
  1. 124 Psychologists must cooperate fully with requests from the Ethics Committee.
    c. CORRECT This issue is addressed in Standard 1.06 of the Ethics Code, which notes that, when responding to a request for information from the Ethics Committee, psychologists must “address any confidentiality issues.” Therefore, this answer is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code.
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125
Q

1.125 A transformational leader defines a goal to employees in a way that imbues the goal with meaning and purpose. This is referred to as:

A. priming
B. escalating commitment
C. framing
D. positioning

A
  1. 125 Transformational leaders differ from transactional leaders in several ways. One way is that they motivate employees by giving goals added meaning by placing them in a larger context (e.g., the “good of society”).
    a. Incorrect The term priming is used in several contexts. For example, in the field of learning and memory, it refers to unconscious cues that activate related associations (e.g., seeing the word “test” reminds you of the licensing exam even if you are not aware that you saw the word “test”).
    b. Incorrect Escalating commitment refers to the tendency to continue with a previously chosen course of action even when it is not working.
    c. CORRECT Giving goals added meaning is referred to as framing. It is one of the characteristics of transformational leaders.
    d. Incorrect Positioning is a paradoxical technique used in family therapy. It involves helping the family see a symptom from a new perspective by exaggerating its severity.
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126
Q

1.126 A supervisor is asking to appraise the performance of the eight employees she supervises. When rating the first employee, the supervisor rates him as average on all dimensions of job performance. She subsequently rates the seven other employees within the average range of the rating scale on all dimensions of job performance. This supervisor appears to be demonstrating which of the following?

A. halo effect
B. Hawthorne effect
C. Social desirability bias
D. Central tendency bias

A
  1. 126 This supervisor’s ratings seem to be tainted by a rater bias, which is a risk whenever a subjective rating scale is used. Common rater biases are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
    a. Incorrect The halo effect occurs when a rater”s rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects his/her ratings of the employee on unrelated dimensions.
    b. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is not a rater bias but, instead, refers to the tendency for research participants to behave differently just because they are participating in a research project.
    c. Incorrect Social desirability is the tendency for research participants or test takers to act or respond in a manner that they believe to be most socially acceptable.
    d. CORRECT The central tendency bias occurs when a rater uses the middle (average) range of a rating scale regardless of the actual performance of the ratees. Of course, in this situation, all of the supervisor”s employees may have been working at an average level but, of the alternatives given, central tendency bias is the best choice.
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127
Q

1.127 According to DSM-IV-TR, Sleep Terror Disorder usually begins:

A. between the ages of 3 and 7 and has a chronic course.
B. between the ages of 4 and 12 and remits spontaneously during adolescence
C. between the ages of 8 and 12 and remits spontaneously in early adulthood.
D. in early adolescence and has a chronic course with a waxing and waning of symptom severity.

A
  1. 127 Sleep Terror Disorder is characterized by abrupt awakening from sleep, often beginning with a “panicky scream or cry” (DSM-IV-TR, 2000, p. 634).
    b. CORRECT In some cases, Sleep Terror Disorder does begin in adulthood. However, according to the DSM, the onset is most commonly in childhood, and the disorder typically resolves spontaneously in adolescence.
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128
Q

1.128 Helms’s (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six statuses, with each status being associated with a different information processing strategy. For example, the “flexibility and complexity” strategy is characteristic of the ______ status.

A. internalization
B. integrative awareness
C. reintegration
D. autonomy

A
  1. 128 Helms’s six identity statuses are: contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion/emersion, and autonomy.
    d. CORRECT Not surprisingly, information processing flexibility and complexity are characteristic of the final status in Helms’s model. The attributes of the autonomy status include awareness of one’s own “whiteness” and role in perpetuating racism and a commitment to abandoning a sense of White entitlement.
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129
Q

1.129 Diabetes mellitus has been identified as a risk factor for Vascular Dementia. With regard to Alzheimer’s Dementia, diabetes:

A. is not associated with an increased risk.
B. is associated with an increased risk only for those who do not receive insulin treatment.
C. is associated with an increased risk even among those who did receive insulin treatment
D. is associated with an increased risk only for the early onset type of Alzheimer’s Dementia.

A
  1. 129 Diabetes has been recognized as a high risk factor for Vascular Dementia for some time but has also been recently linked to Alzheimer’s Dementia.
    a. Incorrect See explanation below.
    b. Incorrect See explanation below.
    c. CORRECT The risk for Alzheimer’s Dementia is double for those with diabetes and four times greater for those with diabetes who receive insulin treatment. See, e.g., A. Ott et al., Diabetes mellitus: The risk for dementia, Neurology, 53, 1937-1942, 1999.
    d. Incorrect In Ott et al.’s study, 14% of patients with diabetes eventually developed Vascular Dementia, while 70% developed Alzheimer’s Dementia.
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130
Q

1.130 Although it is necessary to avoid stereotypes when providing services to members of ethnic and racial minority groups, some generalizations are often made. For example, when working with Hispanic and Hispanic American clients, it is important to keep in mind all of the following except:

A. different levels of acculturation among Hispanics can influence their perceptions of and responses to therapy.
B. Family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of the Hispanic family
C. behavioral and other active, problem-oriented therapies are usually more acceptable than insight-oriented therapies
D. sex-roles tend to be demarcated clearly and are fairly rigid.

A
  1. 130 Some generalizations about the treatment of Hispanic and Hispanic American clients have been made in the literature, and you should be familiar with them for the licensing exam.
    a. Incorrect This is true. There are different levels of acculturation not only between families but also within families (i.e., younger members of the family tend to be more acculturated to the white middle-class way of life).
    b. CORRECT Although Hispanic families do tend to be hierarchical, this does not preclude them from family therapy. In fact, family therapy is often the treatment-of-choice because of the close relationships between family members.
    c. Incorrect This is true not only for Hispanics but also members of other minority groups.
    d. Incorrect This is also generally true.
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131
Q

1.131 When using _____ as a memory aid, a phrase or rhyme is constructed from the first letter of each word in the list of words that is to be recalled.

A. the chunking strategy
B. the keyword method
C. an acronym
D. an acrostic

A
  1. 131 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four memory devices listed in the answers to this question.
    a. Incorrect Chunking involves grouping related items of information. To remember a string of 21 numbers, for instance, you might chunk the numbers into groups of three, resulting in seven distinct units of information. Chunking is useful for maintaining information in working memory.
    b. Incorrect The keyword method is an imagery mnemonic that is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked. It involves creating an image for each word and visually joining the two images. As an example, to remember that the French word for church is eglise, you could form an image of a church with a giant egg outside the church doors.
    c. Incorrect An acronym is a word that is formed using the first letter of each item in a list. For example, the acronym HOMES is used to remember the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, and Superior).
    d. CORRECT An acrostic is made up of words beginning with the first letter of each word or phrase that is to be remembered. For example, the acrostic “my very educated mother just sent us nachos” is used to memorize the names of the eight planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune).
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132
Q

1.132 A young man who has received a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder is most likely to have exhibited which of the following during childhood?

A. stuttering
B. hyperactivity/impulsivity
C. cruelty to animals
D. social isolation

A
  1. 132 Antisocial Personality Disorder is characterized by superficial charm, lying, lack of regard for others, an absence of shame or remorse, an inability to form close personal relationships, and an inability to learn from experience
    a. Incorrect Stuttering has not been identified as a predictor of antisocial behavior.
    b. Incorrect Hyperactivity and impulsivity are not characteristic precursors of Antisocial Personality Disorder.
    c. CORRECT Cruelty to animals is one symptom of Conduct Disorder, which is a precursor to Antisocial Personality Disorder.
    d. Incorrect Social isolation has not been linked to a high risk for Antisocial Personality Disorder.
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133
Q

1.133 Which of the following best describes a psychologist’s legal obligations when providing mental health services over the internet?

A. A psychologist may not provide mental health services over the Internet except in emergency (crisis) situations.
B. A psychologist may not provide mental health services over the Internet unless he/she has been certified as an Internet provider.
C. A psychologist may provide mental health services over the Internet but must inform clients about potential risks and benefits of those services and the availability of alternative services
D. A psychologist may provide mental health services over the Internet but must provide the client with a standard disclaimer before doing so.

A
  1. 133 Requirements for providing online therapy are still in the process of being developed and agreed upon. However, APA and CPA have both offered some guidelines.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with the provisions of the American Psychological Association’s Ethics Code [see, e.g., Standard 10.01(b)] and the Canadian Psychological Association’s Ethical Guidelines for Psychologists Providing Psychological Services via Electronic Media. While online therapy is considered acceptable, special precautions must be taken – e.g., clients must be warned of the potential limits on confidentiality and of the availability of alternative services. In addition, some experts recommend that it begin with an in-person intake and assessment interview and that the client be given the names of mental health professionals in the client’s locality that he/she can contact in a crisis situation [M. M. Maheu, Exposing the risk, yet moving forward: A behavioral e-health model, Journal of Computer-Mediated Communication, 6(4), 2001, available at http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/j.1083-6101.2001.tb00130.x/full].
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
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134
Q

1.134 Which of the following is listed in the DSM-IV-TR as a diagnostic (versus associated) feature of Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A. inflated sense of self
B. lack of remorse
C. lack of empathy
D. superficial charm

A
  1. 134 A diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) requires a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others.
    a. Incorrect Inflated sense of self is listed as an associated feature in the DSM-IV-TR, not a diagnostic feature.
    b. CORRECT For this diagnosis, the DSM requires the presence of at least three of seven characteristic behaviors. One of the seven is a lack of remorse.
    c. Incorrect Lack of empathy is another associated feature of APD.
    d. Incorrect Superficial charm is also mentioned as a common associated feature.
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135
Q

1.135 Research investigating the effects of job satisfaction has generally found that:

A. it is correlated with physical and psychological health and longevity
B. it is correlated with physical health and longevity but not with mental health.
C. it is correlated with psychological health but not with physical health or longevity
D. it is not correlated with physical or mental health or longevity.

A
  1. 135 Studies assessing the consequences of job satisfaction have found that it not only affects certain on-the-job factors but also factors outside the job environment.
    a. CORRECT Job satisfaction has been found to correlate with longevity, while dissatisfaction has been associated with both psychological and physical disorders (e.g., ulcers, high blood pressure, alcoholism).
    b. Incorrect Job satisfaction has been found to be related to all three factors.
    c. Incorrect Job satisfaction has been found to be related to all three factors.
    d. Incorrect Job satisfaction has been found to be related to all three factors.
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136
Q

1.136 Researchers interested in cognitive processes distinguish between schemas and scripts. From this perspective, a script is:

A. an integrated cluster of knowledge about a concept.
B. a cluster of knowledge about sequences of events and actions in a particular situation
C. a socially defined pattern of behaviors related to one’s status or function.
D. a set of implicit goals, desires, and needs that guides one’s behavior.

A
  1. 136 Even if you’re unfamiliar with schemata and scripts, you may have been able to select the correct response by considering what the term “script” generally means.
    a. Incorrect This defines a schema.
    b. CORRECT A script tells you what to do in specific situations.
    c. Incorrect This is not entirely incorrect but is a better definition of “role” than of “script.”
    d. Incorrect This is not how script is defined in the context of cognitive processes.
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137
Q

1.137 You are hired by a university to teach a graduate seminar in the psychology department. In terms of the Ethics Code, you are explicitly required to do which of the following?

A. ensure that the course content reflects the most recent research in the area
B. ensure that accurate information about the seminar is available to all interested parties
C. ensure that the seminar content is consistent with the interests and needs of the students
D. ensure that the grading and evaluation of students is fair

A
  1. 137 The issue addressed by this question is covered in Ethical Standard 7.02 of the Ethics Code.
    a. Incorrect This is generally a good idea but it is not explicitly required by the Code. Also, there would be times when it would not apply – e.g., when the seminar is covering the history of clinical psychology.
    b. CORRECT Of the responses given, only this one represents the explicit requirements of the Ethics Code.
    c. Incorrect Although student interests and needs are a consideration when defining course content, they are certainly not the only consideration. Also, this is not explicitly required by the Code.
    d. Incorrect Again, this is a good idea, but it is not specifically stated in the Ethics Code.
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138
Q

1.138 “Criterion contamination” is a concern when:

A. items on the measure of performance are dichotomously scored.
B. the performance measure will be scored by more than one rater.
C. rating categories are not mutually exclusive.
D. the measure of performance is subjectively scored

A
  1. 138 Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of a ratee’s performance on a predictor biases his/her ratings of the ratee on the criterion.
    d. CORRECT Subjectively scored criterion measures are susceptible to biases, including criterion contamination. When criterion contamination occurs, the criterion may not be providing accurate information.
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139
Q

1.139 Brain imaging techniques have linked ADHD to smaller-than-normal globus pallidus, caudate nucleus, and:

A. temporal lobe
B. parietal lobe
C. prefrontal lobe
D. entorhinal cortex

A
  1. 139 Functional and structural brain imaging techniques have linked ADHD to abnormalities in several areas of the brain.
    c. CORRECT The right frontal lobe (especially the prefrontal cortex) and the caudate nucleus and globus pallidus (structures of the basal ganglia) tend to be smaller in individuals with ADHD and to have lower-than-normal levels of metabolic activity.
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140
Q

1.140 A menopausal woman who is considering hormone replacement therapy (HRT) should be advised that this treatment may do all of the following except:

A. reduce the risk for osteoporosis.
B. reduce or eliminate “hot flashes.
C. increase sex drive
D. reduce mood symptoms.

A
  1. 140 HRT continues to be controversial because it is not only associated with a number of benefits but also with some negative side effects.
    a. Incorrect This is one of the major advantages of HRT.
    b. Incorrect HRT is effective for alleviating hot flashes.
    c. CORRECT The results of research investigating the effects of HRT on libido are inconsistent, and the best conclusion that can be drawn at this time is that it does not increase sex drive.
    d. Incorrect HRT does alleviate mood swings.
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141
Q

1.141 The notion of “collaborative empiricism” is associated with:

A. Ellis
B. Beck
C. Adler
D. Perls

A
  1. 141 Collaborative empiricism refers to the collaborative relationship between client and therapist that involves working together to gather data and test the logic of the client’s thoughts and beliefs.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT Collaborative empiricism is a key strategy of Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy. When using this strategy, the therapist and client work together to gather evidence and test hypotheses about the client’s beliefs.
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142
Q

1.142 Jamal Jones, an African-American client, is aloof and unwilling to talk about his personal problems during his initial therapy sessions with Dr. Curt Cooper, a White therapist. Dr. Cooper’s best course of action would be to:

A. establish an egalitarian relationship by disclosing some personal information about himself
B. establish credibility and authority by describing his education and previous professional experience.
C. reassure Jamal that anything he reveals in therapy is confidential.
D. recognize Jamal’s behavior as resistance and help him understand that it will impede the progress of therapy.

A
  1. 142 The best course of action in this situation would depend on several factors, including Jamal’s stage of racial/ethnic identify development.
    a. CORRECT Given the limited information presented in this question, this is the best answer. Sue and Sue (2003) note that African American individuals often prefer an egalitarian, personal relationship with a therapist, which the therapist can establish through self-disclosure or by discussing non-counseling issues.
    b. Incorrect Establishing credibility by describing his education and experience would probably be most effective with Asian American therapy clients.
    c. Incorrect Confidentiality may be an issue, but a therapist can never reassure a client that “anything” revealed in therapy is confidential (e.g., a therapist is legally and ethically required to breach confidentiality when the client is a danger to self or others).
    d. Incorrect The research has shown that, for African American therapy clients, unwillingness to self-disclose is often due to factors other than resistance (e.g., healthy cultural paranoia).
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143
Q

1.143 A client reveals to you that he and a friend robbed a convenience store six months ago. He says he knows that what he did was wrong and will never do it again. He also says that he notices that you “make notes” while he is talking, and he asks that you not keep any written record of the robbery. You should:

A. agree to exclude information about the robbery from his file.
B. determine whether the robbery is clinically relevant before deciding whether or not to include information about it in his file.
C. inform the client that you are legally required to report the matter to the authorities before you actually do so.
D. reassure the client that anything he tells you is confidential and will not be revealed without his consent.

A
  1. 143 Psychologists are generally not required to report criminal conduct unless it is conduct explicitly addressed by the law (e.g., child abuse, danger to others).
    a. Incorrect Omitting client information from the record at the client’s request is not necessarily in the best interests of the client or the therapist.
    b. CORRECT This is the best response of those given. A similar situation is discussed by R. Woody, who notes that client records are for the benefit of both the client and the therapist and that, if the client “communicates information that is relevant to the services provided, it should be entered into the record” (Legally safe mental health practice: Psycholegal questions and answers, Madison, CT, Psychosocial Press, 1997, p. 70).
    c. Incorrect See explanation above.
    d. Incorrect It is important to keep in mind that it is impossible to guarantee that any client information will never be revealed under any circumstance.
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144
Q

1.144 Research using brain imaging techniques has confirmed that repeated exposure to alcohol during prenatal development is most likely to negatively impact the:

A. hypothalamus, thalamus, and parietal lobes.
B. medulla, thalamus, and temporal lobes.
C. basal ganglia, hippocampus, and frontal lobes
D. brainstem, amygdala, and frontal lobes.

A
  1. 144 Familiarity with the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
    c. CORRECT FAS is characterized by a combination of behavioral and cognitive symptoms including mental retardation, impaired attention and memory, hyperactivity, impaired motor coordination, impulsivity, and poor judgment. The areas of the brain listed in this answer mediate some of these functions and are often adversely affected by prenatal exposure to alcohol. Other areas that are commonly affected include the corpus callosum, cerebellum, and hypothalamus.
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145
Q

1.145 The _____ proposes that aggressive impulses “build up” inside an individual and must be released and that such release reduces the risk for future aggression.

A. displaced aggression hypothesis
B. contact hypothesis
C. catharsis hypothesis
D. deindividual model

A
  1. 145 Several theories have been developed to explain aggressive behavior.
    a. Incorrect Displaced aggression refers to aggression that varies in either type or target from that actually preferred by the aggressor.
    b. Incorrect The contact hypothesis was proposed by Allport as a method for reducing hostility and prejudice between members of majority and minority groups.
    c. CORRECT One implication of the catharsis hypothesis is that watching someone else engage in violence (e.g., watching a violent TV show) will lead to catharsis, which will then reduce the risk of aggressive behavior in the future. The catharsis hypothesis has not been well-supported by the research.
    d. Incorrect The deindividuation model predicts that people may be more willing to act aggressively when acting as a group member than when acting alone because of the anonymity that the group provides.
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146
Q

1.146 A friend asks you how you liked the concert you went to last Saturday night. As you try to recall the concert, you realize that you memory is being affected by other concerts you have attended in the past. In other words, your memory of last Saturday’s concert is being affected by:

A. your implicit memory of concerts.
B. a lack of encoding specificity.
C. positive memory transfer.
D. your schema for concerts.

A
  1. 146 In this situation, your memory of a particular concert is affected by your previous experiences with concerts.
    d. CORRECT A schema is a group or cluster of knowledge about an object or event. Your recollection of last Saturday’s concert is being affected by your “cluster of knowledge” regarding concerts.
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147
Q

1.147 A person-centered (Rogerian) therapist would most likely respond to a client’s transference by:

A. interpreting it
B. challenging it
C. disregarding it
D. reflecting it

A
  1. 147 Transference is not expected to develop in person-centered therapy, at least not at the intense level that it does in psychodynamic therapy.
    c. CORRECT Transference in person-centered therapy is essentially accepted and disregarded rather than interpreted as it is in many other forms of therapy. This is consistent with the here-and-now approach of person-centered therapy.
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148
Q

1.148 The diagnosis of PTSD requires a duration of symptoms for at least ____, and the specifier “Acute” is assigned when the duration of symptoms is less than ______.

A. three weeks; one week
B. one month; two weeks
C. one month; three months
D. three months; three months

A
  1. 148 The DSM provides three specifiers for PTSD: Acute, Chronic, and Delayed Onset. See the Abnormal Psychology chapter for additional information about the diagnostic criteria for PTSD and requirements for each specifier.
    c. CORRECT The diagnosis of PTSD requires a duration of characteristic symptoms for at least one month, and the specifier Acute is assigned when the symptoms have lasted for less than three months.
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149
Q

1.149 Scores on a predictor that will be used to estimate job performance rating range from 0 to 200. If the predictor’s cutoff score is raised from 130 to 150, this will have which of the following effects?

A. increase the number of true positives
B. increase the number of true positives and true negatives
C. decrease the number of false positives
D. decrease the number of false positives and false negatives

A
  1. 149 Drawing a scatterplot (like the one in the Test Construction materials) would have helped you recognize the correct answer to this question.
    a. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff decreases the number of true and false positives.
    b. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff decreases the number of true positives and increases the number of true negatives.
    c. CORRECT All positives (true and false) are decreased and all negatives (true and false) are increased by raising the predictor cutoff.
    d. Incorrect The number of false negatives increases.
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150
Q

1.150 One of the most common impairments following brain injury is memory loss. Although the nature of the disturbance depend on the locus and extent of the damage, most often it involves:

A. an inability to recall information stored in remote long-term memory.
B. profound deficits in memory for events that occurred in the days to weeks prior to the incident that caused the injury.
C. “spotty” deficits in memory for both recent and past events.
D. problems related to retaining new information.

A
  1. 150 Not surprisingly, brain injury typically affects memory, at least temporarily.
    d. CORRECT The exact nature of the memory disturbance depends on the location and severity of the injury. However, new learning is most commonly impaired, and the severity of the injury is often measured by the length of this post-traumatic (anterograde) amnesia. Additional information on memory loss following head trauma is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
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151
Q

1.151 As defined in the EEOC Uniform Guidelines, “unfairness” is problem when:

A. different groups obtain consistently different scores on the predictor but similar scores on the criterion
B. different groups obtain consistently different scores on the criterion but similar scores on the predictor.
C. the predictor has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups.
D. the predictor has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups.

A
  1. 151 Unfairness is one of the possible causes of adverse impact.
    a. CORRECT A test is “unfair” when it has a similar validity coefficient for members of two (or more) groups and members of the groups have similar criterion performance, but members of one group consistently score lower on the predictor than members of the other group(s). In this situation, if the same predictor cutoff is used for all individuals, there may be adverse impact for members of the low-scoring group.
    b. Incorrect See explanation above.
    c. Incorrect This describes differential validity.
    d. Incorrect See explanation above.
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152
Q

1.152 The original catecholamine hypothesis identified which of the following as being due to abnormalities in norepinephrine levels?

A. schizophrenia
B. seizure disorders
C. social and simple phobia
D. depression and mania

A
  1. 152 The original catecholamine hypothesis was proposed by Schildkraut in 1935.
    d. CORRECT According to Schildkraut, depression is due to decreased levels of norepinephrine while mania is due to increased levels. This hypothesis was subsequently expanded to include abnormalities in both norepinephrine and dopamine and other hypotheses were eventually proposed (e.g., the serotonin hypothesis, the serotonin-norepinephrine dichotomy hypothesis).
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153
Q

1.153 The “rebound effect” associated with benzodiazepine use refers to:

A. the persistence of symptoms despite an increase in the dose of the drug
B. the re-emergence of symptoms after long-term use of the drug.
C. an initial paradoxical increase in symptoms.
D. a temporary increase in severity of symptoms when the drug is discontinued

A
  1. 153 Discontinuation of a benzodiazepine may result in a variety of undesirable symptoms including a “rebound effect.”
    d. CORRECT A person taking a benzodiazepine for anxiety, for instance, may experience “rebound anxiety” when he/she stops taking the drug. Rebound anxiety occurs within hours to days after the drug is stopped and is more severe than the original symptoms.
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154
Q

1.154 To reduce a client’s cigarette smoking, the client is exposed to several treatment sessions in which stale cigarette smoke is blown into his face soon after he begins to smoke a cigarette and this continues until he stops smoking. Eventually, the client feels nauseous whenever he even thinks about smoking. In this situation, the stale cigarette smoke has acted as:

A. a conditioned stimulus.
B. an unconditioned stimulus
C. a negative punisher.
D. a negative reinforcer.

A
  1. 154 In this situation, two stimuli are being “paired” in order to change the response that is elicited by one of the stimuli. This procedures describes classical conditioning, would eliminates answers c and d since punishers and reinforcers are associated with operant conditioning.
    a. Incorrect The cigarette is the conditioned stimulus (CS) in this situation. By being paired with stale cigarette smoke, it eventually elicits nausea.
    b. CORRRECT The stale cigarette smoke naturally elicits nausea, so it is the unconditioned stimulus (US).
    c. Incorrect A Skinnerian might describe the stale cigarette smoke as a positive (not negative) punishment, but a Skinnerian would not claim that a new response to smoking had been established, only that the person avoids cigarettes in order to avoid the punishment.
    d. Incorrect See explanation above.
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155
Q

1.155 In oragnizations, person-organization (P-O) fit is achieved primarily through:

A. career/vocational counseling
B. organizational development
C. training and evaluation
D. selection and socialization

A
  1. 155 The person-organization fit refers to the match between the employee’s values, needs, preferences, etc. and the culture of the organization. A good P-O fit has been linked to several benefits including enhanced satisfaction, motivation, and organizational commitment and reduced stress and turnover.
    d. CORRECT Selection and socialization have been idenified as the primary opportunities for ensuring a good person-organization fit (e.g., Chatman, 1991): Selection helps identify individuals whose characteristics match the characteristics of the organization, while socialization (e.g., behavioral modeling by and feedback from the supervisor, participation in work-related social events) helps employees acquire the skills, knowledge, and attitudes that are compatible with the organization’s culture.
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156
Q

1.156 The rational-economic model of decision-making views decision-makers as attempting to make:

A. “satisficing” decisions
B. “bounded” decisions
C. representative decisions
D. optimal decisions

A
  1. 156 The rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers are perfect and rational.
    a. Incorrect This better describes the assumption underlying the administrative model of decision-making.
    b. Incorrect “Bounded rationality” is also associated with the administrative model, which does not view decision-makers as entirely perfect and rational.
    c. Incorrect This is not associated with the rational-economic model.
    d. CORRECT The rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers will consider all possible alternatives and choose the optimal one.
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157
Q

1.157 The SAT Reasoning Test is used to:

A. help skilled and semi-skilled workers choose an occupation.
B. help high school students choose a college major.
C. predict the graduate school success of college seniors.
D. predict the college success of high school seniors

A
  1. 157 Knowing that SAT refers to the Scholastic Assessment Test may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
    d. CORRECT The Scholastic Assessment Test is an admissions test that is used to predict the college success of high school seniors. It consists of two parts – the SAT Reasoning Test and the SAT Subject Tests.
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158
Q

1.158 Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he emphasized the role of ______ on current behavior.

A. early experiences
B. biological drives
C. future goals
D. cognitive schemas

A
  1. 158 Teleology is derived from the Greek word teleo, which means goals.
    c. CORRECT Although Adler recognized the impact of early childhood experiences on subsequent behavior, he also believed that all behavior is purposeful and emphasized the impact of future goals. As described by Adler, the ultimate goal is a striving for superiority, which refers to attaining a sense of mastery or competence.
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159
Q

1.159 The best way to keep two sets of six digits in working memory is to:

A. visualize the digits in a string.
B. convert the 12 digits to “chunks”
C. connect each digit with a visual image.
D. repeat the digits first forward and then backward several times.

A
  1. 159 Working memory is another name for short-term memory. Two processes are useful for maintaining information in short-term memory: chunking and rehearsal (especially elaborative rehearsal).
    b. CORRECT The number of digits exceeds the number of units that can be held in short-term memory. Therefore, it would be necessary to “chunk” the digits into a smaller number of units; e.g., four chunks of three digits each.
    c. Incorrect This might be useful after the digits have been chunked to transfer information from short-term to long-term memory.
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160
Q

1.160 Older adults at a particularly high risk for ______, with the risk being increased by medical illness and surgery.

A. depersonalization
B. derealization
C. dementia
D. delirium

A
  1. 160 Advancing age is one of the factors that increases the risk for Delirium.
    d. CORRECT Several factors place people at higher risk for delirium. People over 60 are usually cited as the group at highest risk in general. Moreover, the risk for this population increases as the result of a medical illness or surgery. Other high risk factors include cardiotomy, burns, and rapid withdrawal from alcohol or a sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic.
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161
Q

1.161 Freud (1984) introduced the concept of “defense” in his description of hysteria and attributed hysteria to which of the following defense mechanisms?

A. projection
B. reaction formation
C. sublimation
D. repression

A
  1. 161 Freud’s initial explanation for hysteria was that it represents an attempt to eliminate memories related to early psychic trauma from consciousness.
    d. CORRECT Repressions is considered the most basic defense mechanism because it underlies all others. It was the initial defense mechanism identified by Freud, and he used it to explain the etiology of hysteria.
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162
Q

1.162 You receive a court order requesting that you provide information about a 19 year old client who is currently the defendant in a court case. You discuss the request with the client but he refuses to sign a waiver of confidentiality. You should:

A. refuse to provide the court with the requested information until you obtain a waiver from the client.
B. refuse to provide the court with the requested information until you obtain a waiver from the client’s attorney or legal guardian.
C. provide the court only with information that you believe will not be harmful to the client.
D. provide the court with the requested information

A
  1. 162 The key term in this question is “court-ordered.”
    d. CORRECT Therapist-client privilege implies that, in most circumstances, a psychologist does not reveal confidential client information in the context of a legal proceeding without the consent of the client or his/her legal representative. There are exceptions to privilege, however, and a court order is one of these exceptions. (If the information is damaging to the client, the normal procedure is to request that it be read by the judge in camera – i.e., in the privacy of the judge’s chambers.)
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163
Q

1.163 When Rosenhan’s (1973) “pseudopatients” were admitted to a mental hospital:

A. they were quickly recognized as being “normal” by both staff members and other patients.
B. they were not recognized as being “normal” by either staff members or other patients
C. they were recognized as being “normal” only when they stopped feigning symptoms.
D. they were more often recognized as being “normal” by other patients than by staff members

A
  1. 163 Rosenhan and seven assistants had themselves admitted to different mental health facilities by complaining of “hearing voices.” Once admitted, they stopped feigning symptoms and “acted normal.”
    d. CORRECT Nearly one-third of the patients recognized the pseudopatients as sane. However, staff members diagnosed all but one pseudopatient as schizophrenic. For additional information on this study, see the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
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164
Q

1.164 Social loafing is most likely to occur when a group member:

A. believes he/she has more task-related expertise than other members do.
B. did not voluntarily agree to participate in the group.
C. knows that his/her contribution to the group task will not be recognized
D. is highly motivated to achieve the group’s goals.

A
  1. 164 Social loafing is the tendency to exert less effort when working as a group member than when working alone.
    a. Incorrect This has not been identified as a predictor of social loafing.
    b. Incorrect This has not been linked to social loafing.
    c. CORRECT Social loafing is most likely to occur when group members believe that their contribution to the group product will not or cannot be evaluated.
    d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Social loafing is unlikely to occur when group members are motivated to achieve the group’s goal.
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165
Q

1.165 Bob B. always perceived the sound of a piano as blue, the sound of a violin as green, and the sound of a trumpet as purple. This condition is referred to as:

A. achromatopsia
B. paresthesia
C. synesthesia
D. simultagnosia

A
  1. 165 Bob B. is perceiving sounds as colors.
    a. Incorrect Achromatopsia is a congenital deficit in the perception of color.
    b. Incorrect Paresthesias are abnormal neurological sensations – e.g., numbness, tingling, burning.
    c. CORRECT Synesthesia refers to a sensation that occurs in one sense modality when another modality has been stimulated – e.g., perceiving auditory stimuli as color.
    d. Incorrect Simultagnosia is an inability to recognize multiple elements in a visual object or scene.
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166
Q

1.166 As described in the DSM-IV-TR, common associated features for many of the Somatoform Disorders are:

A. disturbances in memory and concentration.
B. phobic and paranoid reactions.
C. anxiety and depression
D. pseudologia fantastica and vorbeireden.

A
  1. 166 The Somatoform Disorders include Body Dysmorphic Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Hypochondriasis, Somatization Disorder, and Pain Disorder.
    a. Incorrect Disturbances in memory and concentration are associated with a number of mental disorders. However, the DSM-IV-TR does not list these as common symptoms of the Somatoform Disorders.
    b. Incorrect Phobic and paranoid reactions are not associated with disorders in this category.
    c. CORRECT The DSM-IV-TR lists anxiety and depression as common associated features for many of the Somatoform Disorders.
    d. Incorrect Pseudologia fantastica (uncontrollable, pathological lying about one’s history) and vorbeireden (giving approximate answers) are associated with the Factitious Disorders.
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167
Q

1.167 ___ is used to determine the minimum sample size needed for a study, given a particular level of significance, expected effect size, and other factors.

A. power analysis
B. meta-analysis
C. incremental analysis
D. sensitivity analysis

A
  1. 167 Knowing that statistical power is affected by sample size would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
    a. CORRECT A common use of power analysis is to determine the minimum sample size needed, given the desired level of power, type of statistical test, level of significance, and expected effect size.
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168
Q

1.168 A therapist using a multisystems approach when working with an African-American family will:

A. focus primarily on issues related to problems in the nuclear family.
B. incorporate other key individuals, agencies, and institutions into the treatment plan
C. focus primarily on interactions between family members that are contributing to the family’s presenting problem(s).
D. view an individual family member’s problems as the direct result of factors in the macrosystem.

A
  1. 168 N. Boyd-Franklin (Black Families in Therapy: A Multisystems Approach, New York, Guilford Press, 1989) argues that, to successfully treat African-American families, a therapist must be willing to consider and, when feasible, to intervene at multiple levels and in multiple systems.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT Even if you are unfamiliar with the multisystems approach, its name implies that it involves addressing multiple systems such as the extended family, the church, schools, and social service agencies.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect While some problems may, indeed, be related to the macrosystem (society), not all problems would be considered the direct result of factors in that system.
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169
Q

1.169 Lawler’s (1973) model of facet satisfaction:

A. is similar to equity theory and assumes that job satisfaction is affected by comparisons of one’s own inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of others
B. is similar to need hierarchy theory and assumes that job satisfaction is related to the fulfillment of one’s most prepotent needs.
C. is similar to two factor theory and views satisfaction and dissatisfaction as independent factors.
D. is similar to goal setting theory and proposes that participation in the setting of work objectives is crucial for job satisfaction.

A
  1. 169 Lawler’s model of facet satisfaction is based on the premise that job satisfaction is a product of comparisons of one’s job inputs, the inputs of others, and the job’s characteristics to one’s outcomes and the outcomes of others.
    a. CORRECT Like equity theory, Lawler’s model predicts that workers compare their own input/outcome ratios to the input/outcome ratios of comparable others. When the ratios are the same, the worker is satisfied; when the worker’s own ratio is larger than that of comparable others, the worker may feel guilt or other discomfort; and when the worker’s ratio is less than that of comparable others, he/she is dissatisfied.
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170
Q

1.170 A dopamine agonist would be LEAST useful for treating which of the following?

A. the cognitive impairments of Alzheimer’s disease
B. the motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease
C. the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. the symptoms of restless leg syndrome

A
  1. 170 Dopamine agonists stimulate dopamine receptors.
    a. CORRECT Cholinesterase inhibitors are currently used to treat the memory and other cognitive symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease. These drugs reduce the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain. (Knowing that memory loss associated with Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to ACh abnormalities would have helped you identify this as the correct answer.)
    b. Incorrect Dopamine agonists are increasingly being used as the first-line defense in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease as well as in conjunction with levadopa during the later stages of this disorder. Dopamine agonists help control tremor, muscle stiffness, balance problems, and other motor symptoms.
    c. Incorrect Most theories of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) attribute it to dopamine blockade, and some experts recommend the use of dopamine agonists to alleviate its symptoms, especially in severe cases.
    d. Incorrect Pramipexole, a dopamine agonist, has been found to be an effective treatment for restless leg syndrome for some patients.
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171
Q

1.171 The split-plot ANOVA is used when:

A. one of the independent variables is an extraneous variable.
B. all independent variables are quantitative
C. the researcher has used a “matched-pair” design.
D. the researcher has used a “mixed” design

A
  1. 171 The split-plot ANOVA is one of several forms of the ANOVA that you want to be familiar with for the exam.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
    d. CORRECT Knowing that the split-plot ANOVA is also referred to as the mixed ANOVA would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. For additional information on the split-plot ANOVA, see the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
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172
Q

1.172 According to DSM-IV-TR, for approximately 30-40% of the individuals with Mental Retardation seen in clinical setting, no clear cause can be identified. For the remaining individuals, heredity is responsible in _____ of cases.

A. less than 1%
B. about 5%
C. about 20%
D. more than 50%

A
  1. 172 Over 500 genetic diseases have been associated with Mental Retardation.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT Despite the large number of genetic conditions that have been linked with Mental Retardation, only about 5% of cases are due to hereditary factors. Included in this category are metabolic problems that are inherited through autosomal recessive mechanisms.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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173
Q

1.173 A(n) ____ seizure begins in a localized area of the brain, spreads to other areas, produces a clouding or loss of consciousness, and ordinarily lasts from one to two minutes.

A. absence
B. atonic
C. simple partial
D. complex partial

A
  1. 173 For the exam you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the major types of seizures.
    a. Incorrect An absence seizure is a type of generalized seizure that involves a brief loss of consciousness (usually 10 to 20 seconds) without prominent motor symptoms.
    b. Incorrect An atonic seizure is another type of generalized seizure. It involves a brief loss of consciousness accompanied by a loss of postural tone.
    c. Incorrect A simple partial seizure affects only one side of the brain and does not involve a loss of consciousness.
    d. CORRECT A complex partial seizure begins in one side of the brain but may spread to the other side and involves some degree of loss of consciousness.
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174
Q

1.174 During the first therapy session with a couple who are experiencing numerous problems in their relationship, their therapist requests that, during the next week, they identify things in their relationship that they would like to continue. Most likely, this therapist is a practitioner of:

A. solution-focused therapy
B. Milan systemic family therapy.
C. behavioral marital therapy.
D. interpersonal therapy

A
  1. 174 In the situation described in this question, the therapist has assigned the couple a task that will help them focus on the positive aspects of their relationship.
    a. CORRECT In solution-focused therapy, this is an example of a “formula task.” Its purpose is to help the couple identify positive aspects of their relationship that, in turn, can lead to solutions to their marital difficulties.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
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175
Q

1.175 Trainability tests are:

A. paper-and-pencil tests that assess the aptitudes required for a particular job.
B. paper-and-pencil tests that assess motivation and other job-related attitudes.
C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation
D. multimodal assessment techniques used to determine what training current workers require.

A
  1. 175 As their name implies, trainability tests are used to determine if individuals will benefit from training.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    c. CORRECT Trainability tests are similar to work samples except they are given to people who currently do not have sufficient skills or knowledge to perform the job. They are used to determine if a job applicant is likely to benefit from training.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
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176
Q

1.176 Which of the following is believed to be responsible for the phenomenon known the “cocktail party effect”?

A. divided attention
B. echoic memory
C. selective attention
D. implicit memory

A
  1. 176 The cocktail party effect occurs when, in a crowded noisy environment (e.g., a cocktail party), a person is able to listen to one speaker while tuning out other speakers and other noise.
    a. Incorrect As its name suggests, divided attention refers to simultaneously paying attention to more than one stimulus at a time.
    b. Incorrect Echoic memory is memory for auditory information that is maintained in sensory memory for a very brief period.
    c. CORRECT Selective attention refers to the ability to focus conscious awareness on a particular stimulus in the presence of multiple stimuli.
    d. Incorrect Implicit memory refers to memories that are retrieved without conscious effort or awareness.
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177
Q

1.177 Lesions in the dorsolateral area of the prefrontal cortex will most likely produce which of the following?

A. dysexecutive syndrome
B. disinhibition syndrome
C. apathetic syndrome
D. Gerstmann’s syndrome

A
  1. 177 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the symptoms associated with damage to the three major areas of the prefrontal cortex. These are described in the Physiological Psychology and Pharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
    a. CORRECT Dysexecutive syndrome is characterized by problems related to planning, problem-solving, abstract thinking, and insight as well as perseveration, inappropriate behaviors, and apathy. It is caused by lesions in the dorsolateral area of the prefrontal cortex of the frontal lobes
    b. Incorrect Disinhibition syndrome is caused by lesions in the orbitofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex.
    c. Incorrect Mesial frontal apathetic syndrome is caused by lesions in the mediofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex.
    d. Incorrect Gerstmann’s syndrome is caused by damage to the left (dominant) parietal lobe.
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178
Q

1.178 In a study one group decision-making, it is found that the average group response is much more extreme, but in the same direction, as the average response given by group members before participating in the group. This phenomenon is referred to as:

A. the free-rider effect
B. groupthink
C. group polarization
D. the risky shift

A
  1. 178 This question is asking about the phenomenon in which group decisions tend to be more extreme (either riskier or more conservative) than decisions made by individuals.
    a. Incorrect The free-rider effect suggests that people reduce their effort on a group task when they observe that their contributions to a group are dispensable and that the group will succeed without them.
    b. Incorrect Groupthink refers to a suspension of critical and objective thinking that can occur under certain circumstances in group decision-making. Although groupthink can result in more extreme decisions, this isn’t necessarily so.
    c. CORRECT Group (response) polarization occurs when a person makes a more extreme decision in a group than he/she would have made alone.
    d. Incorrect The risky shift is like group polarization but includes only the “risky” end of the decision continuum. Therefore, answer c is a better response.
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179
Q

1.179 You would use which of the following to estimate what a predictor’s criterion-related validitiy coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion had a reliability coefficient of 1.0?

A. Spearman-Brown prophecy formula
B. correction for attenuation formula
C. coefficient of concordance
D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20

A
  1. 179 For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the formulas listed in the answers to this question. They are described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT The correction for attenuation formula is used for the purpose described in this question.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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180
Q

1.80 A sudden loud noise would elicit which of the following reflexes from a one-month old infant?

A. Babkin
B. Darwinian
C. Moro
D. Babinski

A
  1. 180 A sudden loud noise produces a startle reaction.
    a. Incorrect The Babkin reflex occurs in response to an object being placed against both of an infant’s palms.
    b. Incorrect The Darwinian (palmar) reflex occurs in response to placing an object in the infant’s hand.
    c. CORRECT The Moro reflex occurs in response to either a loud noise or being dropped.
    d. Incorrect The Babinski reflex is produced by tickling the middle of the soles of the infant’s feet.
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181
Q

1.181 According to McGregor (196), Theory X managers assume that:

A. employees have an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it when they can
B. employees are inherently motivated to work and are capable of self-control and self-direction.
C. the most effective management style depends on the nature of the organizational climate.
D. the most effective management style depends on the nature of the task and certain characteristics of the employees.

A
  1. 181 As described by McGregor (1960), Theory X and Theory Y managers are distinguished by their different assumptions about employee characteristics.
    a. CORRECT Knowing that Theory X managers have a pessimistic view of employees would have enabled you to identify this as the correct response.
    b. Incorrect This is more consistent with the assumptions of Theory Y managers who have more positive views of employees.
    c. Incorrect McGregor’s theory does not identify factors that determine the most effective management style. Instead, McGregor proposed that a Theory Y style is most likely to have the greatest benefits for an organization.
    d. Incorrect See explanations above.
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182
Q

1.182 An ongoing debate in the literature centers on a therapist’s responsibility when working with a client who is HIV-positive and is engaging in risky sexual behavior. A central issue in this debate it:

A. social responsibility
B. client abandonment
C. foreseeability of harm
D. vicarious liability

A
  1. 182 As noted in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials, this issue is often discussed within the framework of the Tarasoff decision.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    c. CORRECT In discussing this topic, S. Knapp and L. VandeCreek, for example, note that three issues are involved in the duty to protect: a fiduciary relationship, an identifiable victim, and the foreseeability of harm. They note that the “issue of foreseeability creates the greatest problems with the duty to protect with HIV-positive patients because the research has not identified all the risk factors involved in HIV transmission” (Application of the duty to protect to HIV-positive patients, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 21(3), 161-166, 1990).
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
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183
Q

1.183 Privilege:

A. can be waived by the client.
B. can be waived by the client’s therapist.
C. can be waived only by the court.
D. is waived by the attorney in a legal proceeding.

A
  1. 183 Privilege refers to a client’s right to confidentiality in legal proceedings. Privilege is legally defined and belongs to the client. For additional information on privilege, see the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
    a. CORRECT The client is the holder of the privilege and can waive privilege.
    b. Incorrect A therapist can “assert the privilege” but he/she cannot waive it.
    c. Incorrect There are legal exceptions to privilege, but the court cannot “waive” privilege.
    d. Incorrect As noted above, only the client can waive privilege.
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184
Q

1.184 Which of the following is most likely to be an accurate description of the relationship between two sisters, ages 14 and 16?

A. emotionally intense
B. somewhat distant but egalitarian
C. conflictual and resentful
D. competitive and aggressive

A
  1. 184 The studies have found that sibling relationships vary over the course of childhood and adolescence in a fairly predictable way. Information on this issue is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT In adolescence, siblings spend less time together, their relationship becomes less emotionally intense and more distant, and the friction between them usually declines as they begin to view one another as equals.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
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185
Q

1.185 Dr. Dither is hired by the court to conduct an evaluation of a family as part of a child protection matter. Based on Dr. Dither’s evaluation and other evidence, the court determines that the child can remain at home with his family who will be provided with supervision and counseling. Six months after the case is heard in court, Dr. Dither is contacted by the mother who says she would like to begin therapy with him for issues unrelated to the child protection matter. According to the APA’s Guidelines for Psychological Evaluations in Child Protection Matters, Dr. Dither should:

A. agree to see the woman in therapy since the child protection matter has been resolved.
B. agree to see the woman in therapy only if her problem is, in fact, unrelated to the child protection matter.
C. agree to see the women in therapy since his familiarity with her situation will be an advantage.
D. refer the woman to a colleague

A
  1. 185 In most situations, multiple relationships are to be avoided.
    d. CORRECT According to the Guidelines, “therapeutic contact with the child or involved participants following a child custody evaluation is undertaken with caution.”
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186
Q

1.186 Gerald Patterson and his colleagues have developed a model to explain the origins of adolescent delinquency. Their approach is most consistent with which of the following?

A. object relations theory
B. social learning theory
C. cognitive developmental theory
D. social comparison theory

A
  1. 186 According to Patterson and his colleagues, adolescent delinquency is traceable to unskilled and inefficient childrearing by the child’s parents, high levels of punishment, and a tendency to react to a child’s negative actions in kind.
    b. CORRECT Patterson’s model emphasizes the impact of modeling/imitation and reinforcement and, therefore, is consistent with a social learning approach. Additional information about Patterson’s model is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter in the written study materials.
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187
Q

1.187 From the Freudian perspective, interpretation:

A. is appropriate only during the final “working through” phase of therapy.
B. is most useful when it evokes material at the deepest level of the unconscious.
C. helps the client uncover and gain insight into unconscious material
D. involves restating and clarifying the client’s statements in clearer terms.

A
  1. 187 Interpretation is a key process in Freudian psychoanalysis and is applied to free associations, dreams, resistances, etc.
    a. Incorrect Interpretations are made throughout therapy.
    b. Incorrect The opposite is true. Interpretation is most successful when it addresses unconscious material that is just below the surface.
    c. CORRECT This is the most accurate description of interpretation.
    d. Incorrect This is a better description of clarification than interpretation.
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188
Q

1.188 You suspect a colleague of violating ethical guidelines. To be consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code, you should:

A. report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee immediately.
B. report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee only if the ethical violation is a serious one
C. attempt to handle the situation informally by discussing the violation with the colleague and file a report only if he is uncooperative.
D. either handle the situation informally or file a report, depending on which course of action you believe is most appropriate

A
  1. 188 The provisions of the Ethics Code allow psychologists to use their own discretion about the best course of action in cases where another psychologist is suspected of acting unethically.
    d. CORRECT Psychologists can either attempt to resolve an ethical infraction informally or file a complaint with the Ethics Committee, depending on which course of action they deem most appropriate. (Of course, it is always necessary to consider client confidentiality first before taking any action, but none of the responses given address this issue.)
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189
Q

1.189 Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) relapse prevention model focuses on:

A. situation antecedent to relapse
B. the perceived consequences of relapse.
C. controlled drinking.
D. contingency management.

A
  1. 189 Marlatt and Gordon’s approach to the definition and treatment of addictions is classified as a social learning approach that combines behavioral and cognitive principles.
    a. CORRECT According to Marlatt and Gordon, relapse is a failure to maintain a behavior change after treatment and is best avoided by identifying and dealing with its antecedents. (The research has shown that “negative affect” is the most common antecedent of relapse.)
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190
Q

1.190 A pigeon is placed in a cage that has two levers. Lever #1 delivers reinforcement on a VI-30-second schedule, while Lever #2 delivers reinforcement on a VI-60-second schedule. What proportion of the pigeon’s pecks will be on Lever #1?

A. one-third
B. two-thirds
C. one-half
D. three-fourths

A
  1. 190 When using a concurrent VI schedule, each lever or key delivers reinforcement on a different variable interval schedule. In this situation, the animal matches the relative frequency of its pecks on each key to the relative frequency of reinforcement obtained with that key.
    b. CORRECT In the situation described in the question, the pigeon will peck the VI-30 key twice as often as the VI-60 key. Put another way, 2/3 of the pigeon’s pecks will be on the VI-30 key and the remaining 1/3 will be on the VI-60 key.
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191
Q

1.191 In therapy, an American Indian family is likely to respond most positively to interventions that:

A. reflect a “value-free” perspective.
B. reflect a spiritual, “holistic” orientation to life
C. make a clear distinction between mental and physical well-being.
D. take into account the hierarchical structure of the family.

A
  1. 191 It is always important to take a therapy client’s culture into account when deriving a diagnosis and developing a treatment plan.
    a. Incorrect When working with American Indian clients, adopting a “value-free” perspective can lead to mistrust.
    b. CORRECT American Indians are likely to have a spiritual, holistic orientation to life that emphasizes harmony with nature.
    c. Incorrect As a general rule, American Indians do not make clear distinctions between mental and physical health.
    d. Incorrect The structure of American Indian families varies; however, families are usually not hierarchical.
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192
Q

1.192 Visual agnosia is best conceptualized as:

A. visual “not caring.”
B. visual “not knowing”
C. visual repression.
D. visual blindness

A
  1. 192 Visual agnosia is the loss of the ability to recognize visual stimuli even though visual acuity is intact.
    b. CORRECT The term “agnosia” is derived from the Greek word “agnostos,” which means “unknown, unknowable, not knowing.”
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193
Q

1.193 Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) used meta-analysis to combine the results of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies published between 1941 and 1976 and obtained a mean effect size of ___, which indicated that the average therapy client was “better off” than about 80% of individuals who needed therapy but did not receive it.

A. .40
B. .55
C. .85
D. .98

A
  1. 193 For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) study as well as with the interpretation of an effect size, which indicates the difference between average individuals in the treatment and control groups on the outcome measure in terms of standard deviation units.
    c. CORRECT If you didn’t remember the effect size reported by Smith et al., being familiar with the areas under the normal curve may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: In a normal distribution, 84% of cases fall below the score that is one standard deviation above the mean. Therefore 80% of cases will fall below the score that is slightly below one standard deviation above the mean.
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194
Q

1.194 Random selection of the sample from the target population is an assumption of:

A. parametric statistical tests only.
B. nonparametric statistical tests only.
C. both parametric and nonparametric statistical tests
D. neither parametric nor nonparametric statistical tests.

A
  1. 194 Parametric and nonparametric inferential statistical tests are based on probability theory and indicate the likelihood (probability) that an obtained value could have occurred or have been obtained by chance alone.
    c. CORRECT To determine if obtained results are due to random (chance) factors versus the effects of the independent variable, the sample must be an unbiased representation of the population. The best way to obtain an unbiased sample is through random selection of the sample from the population – and random selection is an assumption underlying the use of both paramatric and nonparametric tests (although it is often violated).
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195
Q

1.195 Borderline Personality Disorder is most commonly diagnosed in individuals ages:

A. 19 through 34
B. 29 through 44
C. 39 through 54
D. 49 through 64

A
  1. 195 Knowing that the symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder tend to dissipate with increasing age would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
    a. CORRECT The rates of BPD are highest during the young adult years. Although individuals with this disorder often continue to exhibit some symptoms throughout their life, by age 40, many no longer meet the diagnostic criteria for BPD.
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196
Q

1.196 A therapist is most likely to say that which of the following is the most stressful type of client behavior?

A. threats of a malpractice suit
B. demands for time and attention
C. suicidal statements
D. a lack of gratitude

A
  1. 196 Therapists experience stress and burnout for several reasons. Not surprisingly, the most difficult situation–i.e., the one requiring an immediate response–is the one that is associated with the greatest stress.
    c. CORRECT Surveys of therapists have revealed that suicidal ideation and threats are considered the most stress-producing client behaviors.
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197
Q

1.197 An examinee obtains a score of 70 on a test that has a mean of 80, a standard deviation of 15, and a standard error of measurement of 5. The 95% confidence interval for the examinee’s score is:

A. 65 to 75
B. 60 to 80
C. 55 to 85
D. 50 to 90

A
  1. 197 As described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, the 95% confidence interval for an obtained test score is constructed by multiplying the standard error of measurement by 1.96 and adding and subtracting the result from the examinee’s score.
    b. CORRECT This interval is closest to the 95% confidence interval and was obtained by multiplying the standard error by 2.0 (instead of 1.96) and adding and subtracting the result from the examinee’s score of 70.
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198
Q

1.198 Which of the following is true about the standard error of the mean?

A. It increases as the standard deviation decreases.
B. It is not affected by the size of the standard deviation.
C. It decreases as sample size increases
D. It decreases as the number of samples increases.

A
  1. 198 The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean. It is equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
    a. Incorrect As the population standard deviation increases or decreases, the standard error of the mean changes in the same direction: i.e., as one increases, the other increases.
    b. Incorrect The standard error of the mean is affected by the standard deviation, so changes in the standard deviation will impact the standard error.
    c. CORRECT As sample size increases, the standard error decreases.
    d. Incorrect The standard error of the mean is affected by the size (not the number) of samples.
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199
Q

1.199 When using protocol analysis to assess problem-solving in adolescents, a psychologist will ask each adolescent to:

A. assemble a representative set of task assignments that the psychologist will review
B. report the first answer he/she thinks of when presented with a problem.
C. describe how he/she determined the solution after working on a problem.
D. “think aloud” while solving a problem

A
  1. 199 Protocol analysis involves analyzing the transcript (protocol) of a person’s verbalizations while solving a problem, making a decision, etc.
    a. Incorrect This sounds like portfolio assessment.
    b. Incorrect This sounds like free association.
    c. Incorrect This is called “retrospective debriefing.”
    d. CORRECT Having a person think-aloud while solving a problem, recording the person’s verbalizations, and then analyzing the transcript of that recording are the procedures used in protocol analysis.
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200
Q

1.200 Overall, research investigating the effects of examiner race on the performance of African American children on IQ tests suggests that:

A. the performance of African American children is significantly suppressed when the examiner is White
B. the performance of African American children is significantly improved when the examiner is African American.
C. the performance of African American children is enhanced somewhat when the examiner is White and clearly unbiased.
D. the performance of African American children is affected more by the examiner’s testing experience and attitudes than by his or her race

A
  1. 200 This is one of the controversies in psychology that has not been completely resolved. However, in general, matching in terms of race or ethnicity has not been found to be a critical factor in testing, therapy, or other situations.
    d. CORRECT This is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the existing studies. When an examiner’s race appears to have an impact on the examinee’s performance, it is often the result of factors other than race. (Even Arthur Jensen found that, when a White examiner adopted a more informal style with African American children, the children’s scores on IQ tests were higher.)
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201
Q

1.201 According to ______, a person’s perception of the magnitude of a stimulus is directly proportional to the logarithm of the actual magnitude of the stimulus.

A. Fechner’s Law
B. Stevens’s Power Law
C. Weber’s Law
D. Gerstmann’s Law

A
  1. 201 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the three psychophysical laws listed in answers a, b, and c.
    a. CORRECT The description in this question describes the prediction made by Fechner’s Law regarding the relationship between the actual intensity of a physical stimulus and perception of that intensity.
    b. Incorrect Stevens’s Power Law predicts that perceived intensity of a stimulus is an exponential function of the actual intensity of the stimulus.
    c. Incorrect Weber’s Law predicts that, the greater the intensity of a stimulus, the greater the increase in stimulus intensity needed for the increase to produce a just noticeable difference in intensity.
    d. Incorrect There is no “Gerstmann’s Law.” Instead, there’s a Gerstmann’s syndrome that you want to be familiar with. It is caused by damage to the left parietal lobe and its symptoms are finger agnosia, right-left confusion, agraphia, and acalculia.
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202
Q

1.202 Anomia is a likely outcome of damage to which of the following areas of the brain?

A. somatosensory cortex
B. mammillary bodies
C. Wernicke’s area
D. Papez’s circuit

A
  1. 202 Knowing that anomia is a symptom of some types of aphasia and/or that it involves an inability to name familiar objects and people would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
    a. Incorrect The somatosensory cortex is located in the parietal lobe and is involved in pressure, temperature, pain, and proprioception.
    b. Incorrect The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus and play a role in learning and memory.
    c. CORRECT Wernicke’s area is a major language area in the brain, and damage causes deficits in language comprehension and production, including an inability to name familiar objects and people.
    d. Incorrect Papez’s circuit was proposed as a brain mechanism (circuit) that mediates the experience and expression of emotion.
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203
Q

1.203 Participants in a research study are asked to tap with a finger to keep time with a metronome. After several taps, the metronome is turned off and participants are asked to continue with the same beat. Participants with damage to which of the following areas of the brain will have the most difficulty with this task?

A. cerebellum
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. cortex
D. hippocampus

A
  1. 203 Knowing that the cerebellum is involved in the timing and coordination of movements would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.
    a. CORRECT This question describes a study conducted by Keele and Ivry who propose that an underlying impairment in cerebellar damage is a loss of timing. In their study, patients with cerebellar damage had more trouble on this task than patients with damage to the cortex or basal ganglia, leading these authors to conclude that the cerebellum is involved in the timing of movements [S. W. Keele and R. Ivry, Does the cerebellum provide a common computation for diverse tasks? A timing hypothesis, Annals of the New York Academy of Sciences, 608, 1991].
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204
Q

1.204 Damage to the frontal lobes is MOST likely to cause which of the following?

A. impaired comprehension of speech and written language
B. neglect of the opposite side of the body
C. inability to carry out planned activities
D. inability to recognize familiar objects

A
  1. 204 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions of the four lobes of the cerebral cortex. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
    a. Incorrect Impaired language comprehension is caused by damage to Wernicke’s area, which is located in the temporal lobe.
    b. Incorrect Contralateral neglect is caused by damage to the non-dominant parietal lobe.
    c. CORRECT Damage to certain areas of the frontal lobes can result in profound deficits in planning, insight, and judgment.
    d. Incorrect Visual agnosia is caused by damage to the occipital lobe.
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205
Q

1.205 Approximately ____ percent of left-handed people are left hemisphere dominant for language.

A. 5 to 10
B. 20 to 30
C. 50 to 60
D. 90 to 95

A
  1. 205 The majority of people are left-hemisphere dominant for language, while the rest are right-hemisphere dominant or have mixed dominance.
    c. CORRECT The studies have not produced entirely consistent results but, overall, indicate that about 95 to 99% of right-handed people and 50 to 60% of left-handed people are left-hemisphere dominant for language. See, e.g., H. S. Kirshner, Handbook of neurological speech and language disorders, New York, Informal Healthcare, 1995.
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206
Q

1.206 According to Noam Chomsky’s nativist theory, language is largely the result of:

A. innate factors
B. operant conditioning
C. parental modeling
D. cognitive development

A
  1. 206 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the nativist, behaviorist, and interactionist approaches to language development, which are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
    a. CORRECT Chomsky proposed an innate language acquisition device that consists of language rules and that allows children to acquire language just by being exposed to it.
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207
Q

1.207 The parent of a one year old says her daughter shows signs of understanding some of what is said to her. However, the girl is still babbling and the closest she has come to a word is “dadada.” You:

A. advise the parent that this is within the range of normal language development
B. tell the parent that most children don’t speak their first words until 16 or 17 months of age.
C. refer the parent and her daughter to a speech pathologist for an evaluation of the child’s language ability.
D. consider the possibility of a diagnosis of Expressive Language Disorder.

A
  1. 207 At 12 months of age, children still babble, although their babbling consists primarily of identical sound sequences (“dadada”). While many children have spoken their first words by this age, it is not uncommon for first words to appear in subsequent months.
    a. CORRECT The child’s language development is “on track.”
    b. Incorrect Most children utter their first words prior to 17 or 18 months.
    c. Incorrect The child’s language skills do not indicate developmental delays, so this is unnecessary.
    d. Incorrect The child’s language abilities are not indicative of a disorder.
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208
Q

1.208 Mr. and Mrs. Wolff bring their 17 month old son, Walter, to you for an evaluation because they are concerned that he has not yet started walking or talking. You should:

A. reassure the parents that Walter is developing within normal limits.
B. refer the family to a physician for an evaluation of Walter
C. administer an appropriate developmental screening device.
D. obtain a thorough family history.

A
  1. 208 Being familiar with the major developmental milestones would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
    b. CORRECT At 17 months of age, most children are talking and walking, so Walter’s developmental delays may be indicative of a serious problem. Referral to a physician to help pinpoint the causes of Walter’s delays would be the appropriate course of action. Administering a screening test (response c) is not the best action in this case since the boy’s delays are clearly significant.
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209
Q

1.209 A depressed client says she feels worthless and unlikable and every time she tries to do something to make things better, she is faced with barriers put up by her parents, husband, and boss, who don’t seem to recognize her efforts. In terms of the third component of Beck’s cognitive triad, you would expect the client to also say:

A. other people are “out to get her.”
B. she had a “lousy childhood.”
C. she feels that things will never change
D. nothing seems to make her feel good.

A
  1. 209 This person’s statements reflect a negative view of the self and the world, which are two of the three elements of Beck’s cognitive triad.
    c. CORRECT The third element is a negative view of the future. According to Beck, depressed people feel that failures, disappointments, etc. will never stop or change.
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210
Q

1.210 The behavioral technique known as response cost makes use of which of the following to alter a person’s behavior?

A. positive punishment
B. negative punishment
C. positive reinforcement
D. negative reinforcement

A
  1. 210 When using response cost, a stimulus is removed each time the target behavior is performed in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
    a. Incorrect Positive punishment involves applying a stimulus following a behavior to reduce that behavior.
    b. CORRECT Negative punishment involves removing a stimulus following a behavior to reduce that behavior. In the case of response cost, the stimulus is something that the individual finds reinforcing such as money or computer privileges.
    c. Incorrect Positive reinforcement involves applying a stimulus following a behavior to increase that behavior.
    d. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior to increase that behavior.
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211
Q

1.211 As described by Beck, automatic thoughts involve:

A. interpreting experiences in patterned, reflexive ways
B. enduring schemas that have been repeatedly reinforced.
C. “shoulds,” “musts,” and “oughts.”
D. episodic memories.

A
  1. 211 Automatic thoughts are a primary target in Beck’s cognitive therapy.
    a. CORRECT As their name implies, automatic thoughts are automatic or reflexive. They also usually have an interpretive component (e.g., “this is awful”).
    b. Incorrect Although automatic thoughts may be the result of cognitive schemas, Beck does not associate them with repeated reinforcement.
    c. Incorrect Shoulds, musts, and oughts are of interesst to practitioners of REBT.
    d. Incorrect See explanation above.
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212
Q

1.212 Which of the following is not true about the employees with a high need for achievement (nACH)?

A. They are more concerned with personal accomplishment than with obtaining praise or recognition.
B. They like to receive frequent and concrete feedback about their job performance.
C. They usually prefer to work alone or with others who are high in need for achievement.
D. They prefer high-risk projects and goals that maximally challenge their ability to excel

A
  1. 212 Need for achievement was identified by David McClelland as one of the primary needs underlying human motivation.
    a. Incorrect This is true about people with high nACH. For these individuals, rewards are important only to the extent that they serve as indicators of personal accomplishment.
    b. Incorrect Individuals with a high nACH desire regular feedback because it allows them to monitor and, if necessary, modify their performance.
    c. Incorrect This is also true about individuals with high nACH.
    d. CORRECT McClelland contrasted people high in need for achievement with gamblers. According to McClelland, gamblers are high risk takers while achievement-motivated people prefer moderate levels of risk. For example, workers with high nACH prefer moderately difficult performance goals (i.e., goals that have a 50% chance of success).
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213
Q

1.213 In a police department, the usual rotating 8 hour shift of the officers is replaced by a fixed 12 hour compressed shift. Most likely, this change will have which of the following effects?

A. decrease productivity and satisfaction
B. decrease productivity but increase satisfaction
C. increase productivity but decrease satisfaction
D. increase satisfaction but have little or no effect on productivity

A
  1. 213 Questions on the effects of work schedules are difficult to answer since the research on this issue has produced inconsistent results. However, a good generalization is that innovative work schedules have a greater impact on attitudes than on productivity (especially objective measures of productivity).
    d. CORRECT This is the best overall conclusion and the one that was reached in a meta-analysis of research on the compressed work week by B. Baltes et al. [Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work-related criteria, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 496-513, 1999].
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214
Q

1.214 In a study designed to evaluate the correlates of achievement motivation, a psychologist would be likely to find that, in comparison to people with a low need for achievement, people with a high need for achievement will prefer which of the following kinds of tasks?

A. tasks of low difficulty
B. tasks of moderate difficulty
C. tasks of high difficulty
D. tasks representing a range of difficulty levels

A
  1. 214 Achievement-oriented people tend to prefer moderate to moderately difficult tasks.
    a. Incorrect You probably could have eliminated this response on the basis of common sense. People who are achievement-oriented would not get too much gratification from success on easy tasks.
    b. CORRECT This might not be the answer you’d guess if you’re totally unfamiliar with the research on this topic, but, in fact, it is the correct answer.
    c. Incorrect Somewhat surprisingly, it is people with a low need for achievement who choose more difficult tasks.
    d. Incorrect If you had eliminated answer “a” for the correct reason, that should have helped you eliminate this answer too since tasks of varying difficulty levels would include easy tasks.
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215
Q

1.215 According to John D. Krumboltz (1996), career development and career choice are related primarily to:

A. needs and drives.
B. early childhood experiences.
C. ego identity development.
D. social learning

A
  1. 215 Krumboltz proposes that career decisions are based on what the individual has learned.
    d. CORRECT Krumboltz’s emphasis is on social learning – i.e., modeling and other aspects of the social environment – and his theory is referred to as the Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM). Additional information about Krumboltz’s theory is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
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216
Q

1.216 When using the Critical Incident Technique (CIT), a supervisor:

A. identifies an employee’s typical (average) job behaviors.
B. identifies an employee’s effective and ineffective job behaviors
C. determines if an employee has achieved his/her performance goals.
D. determines if an employee’s performance matches a predefined standard of performance.

A
  1. 216 The Critical Incident Technique (CIT) is a performance appraisal technique that is used to provide employees with feedback about their job performance.
    b. CORRECT As originally described, CIT involves having the supervisor observe an employee during a designated period and record the employee’s behaviors that represent satisfactory or unsatisfactory performance.
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217
Q

1.217 When attempting to expand your private practice, it is important to keep in mind that in-person solicitations:

A. are always unethical.
B. are unethical only when they target individuals receiving similar services from another professional.
C. are unethical only when they include deceptive or misleading information.
D. are unethical when they include deceptive information or when the person solicited is susceptible to undue influence

A
  1. 217 Although the APA’s prohibitions against solicitation of clients have been limited by the requirements of the Federal Trade Commission, APA still considers certain types of business solicitations unethical.
    a. Incorrect In-person solicitations might be ethically acceptable in some situations (e.g., when they are “invited” solicitations).
    b. Incorrect This type of solicitation might also be acceptable in some situations.
    c. Incorrect This is not the most complete response of those given.
    d. CORRECT This is most consistent with Standard 5.06 of the Ethic Code: Solicitations are unethical when they include deceptive or false information or when their targets are individuals who are vulnerable to undue influence.
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