Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Neuropsychology > To Finish up > Flashcards

To Finish up Flashcards

(105 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What side of the body does the primary sensory cortex receive projections from?

A

contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Proprioceptive information from muscles and joints arrive where? To relay what information?

A

In the primary somatosensory cortex to relay info about the position of the body parts in relation to one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

role of S1 vs S2

A

primary processor of sensory input vs higher-order integration and interpretation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

location of S1 vs S2

A

postcentral gyrus vs parietal operculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

input of S1 vs S2

A

thalamus vs S1 and other brain regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

function of S1 vs S2

A

localization, discrimination, proprioception

integration, learning, complex tactile recognition, pain perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens if a lesion were to occur in the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

Varied degrees of focal impairment in sensation the contralateral side of body

acute stage: loss of all sensory modalities on contralateral body or face

chronic stage: recovery of sensation and pain and temperature and crude touch sensation (due to sensory cortices compensating + thalamic and S2 means recovery of pain and temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What would happen if the lateral left parietal lobe was lesioned?

A

Apraxia– patient loses sense of what particular movement is for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas cnnected?

A

acuate fasciculus in parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is Wernicke’s area mostly in the left hemispshere?

A

Bc language is mostly lateralized in the left hemisphere

language is different from speech → speech is supported by the entire motor system for vocalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would happen if the dominant (left) hemisphere of the association sensory cortex were lesioned?

A

at inferior parietal lobe at the level of the angular gyrus– alexia (inability to read written language)

at the inferior parietal lobe at the supramarginal gyrus – conduction aphasia (understand what is said, but unable to repeat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Alexia vs. Dyslexia?

A

Acquired (e.g. stroke) vs Developed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Damage to the superior parietal lobule results in?

A

Optic ataxia (inability to accurately point or reach for objects under visual guidance in contralateral right hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What would happen if the non dominant (right) hemisphere of the association sensory cortex were lesioned?

A

Would result in damage to other areas involving inferior parietal lobule

ex: Anosagnosia (lack of awareness or denial of one’s neurological deficit

ex: left visual field neglect (person has difficulty paying attention to or processing information on the left side of their visual field due to right hemisphere damage (hemineglect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the key functions of the temporal lobe?

A
  1. Olfaction
  2. Audition
  3. Emotion
  4. Memory: the medial temporal lobe; most significant
  5. areas overlapping with inferior occipital cortex (visual perception, or the “what” pathway)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are mitral cells?

A

Complex sets of olfactory receptors on different olfactory neurons that distinguish new odor from background environmental odors and determine the concentration of that odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are glomeruli?

A

clusters in the olfactory bulb that are formed by axons from the convergence olfactory sensory neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where do Mitral cells send their axons to?

A

Anterior olfactory nucleus, piriform cortex, medial amygdala, entorhinal cortex, olfactory tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Piriform cortex purpose

A

area most closely associated with identifying odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Medial amygdala purpose

A

social functions and associating an odor w/ an emotional reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Entornhinal cortex purpose

A

associated with memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Early signs of Anosmia, or loss of smell, is indicative of what?

A

serious neuropsychological problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the primary audition cortex come to represent?

A

acoustic frequencies and intensities of large range of pitched and unpitched sounds so as to permit recognition and spatial localization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Can unilateral damage cause deafness?

A

NO! Each auditory cortex receives information from both ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the purpose of the auditory association cortex?
memory and classification of sounds (like langauge comprehension)
26
A unilateral lesion in dominant left hemisphere of auditory association cortex leads to?
pure word deafness (verbal auditory agnosia). This agnosia is restricted to words -- patient does NOT recognize speech sounds
27
if lesion in auditory association cortex is in the posterior area, you'll get what type of aphasia?
Wernicke's
28
Unilateral lesion in the right non dominant hemisphere of the auditory association cortex will lead to?
non-verbal auditory agnosia-amusia (inability to recognize non-verbal sounds)
29
What is the purpose of the amygdala?
Attaching emotional significance to events.
30
What happens when there's damage to the amygdala?
There is a marked decrease in the ability to express emotions
31
What cortical and subcortical structures of the limbic system are associated with memory?
Entorhinal cortex and hippocampal formation
32
What happens if there is a lesion in the structures of the limbic system?
Anterograde memory impairment (cannot form new memories)
33
What is hyposmia?
reduced ability to detect odors
34
What is anosmia?
complete loss of sell
35
What is dysosmia?
distorted or altered sense of smell; includes parosmia and phantosmia
36
What is phantosmia?
Perception of a smell that isn't actually there (olfactory hallucination)
37
What is parosmia?
distorted perception of a real odor
38
What is the uncus?
an anterior extremity of the parahippocampal gyrus (the part of th olfactory cortex that resides in the temporal lobe covers the uncus
39
lesions or seizures of the uncus can result in what?
olfacory hallucinations
40
What is retinal detachment?
separation of retinal cells from the layer of blood vessels that provide oxygen and nourishment to the eye
41
What are warning signs of retinal detachment?
reduced vision, sudden appearance of floaters and flashes of lights
42
What is trochlear nerve palsy
Diplopia-- when walking downstairs, complaining of double vision
43
What CN does Bell's Palsy deal with?
CN VII, or the facial nerve
44
Mnemonic for CNs?
Oh, Oh, Oh, to touch and feel very green veggies, AH!
45
Mnemonic for sensory, motor, or both?
Some say marry money, but my brother says big brains matter more
46
UMN of Bell's Palsy means that?
forehead is spared
47
LMN of Bell's Palsy means that?
forehead is weak
48
Grading muscle strength scale
0-5 0 is no movement 5 is normal strength
49
Issues with balance when eyes are OPEN means there are issues in what?
Cerebellum and vestibulocochlear CN
50
By closing patient's eyes and having them do a Romberg test, swaying means there's issues with?
proprioception
51
Cerebellum and feedback control: What do these stand for? A H A N D T
Ataxia Hyptonia Asynergia Nystagmus Dysmetria Tremor
52
Coordination and Gait testing
finter to nose/heel to shin testing + Romberg test
53
If a person has NO caudate, this is a sign of what?
Huntington's Chorea
54
What is the cause of Parkinson's Disease?
Degeneration of Substantia nigra & dopamine (less than 25% = Parkinson's). Lack of dopamine leads to inhibition of basal ganglia (putamen and globus pllidus)
55
What are symptoms of Parkinson's?
Bradykenisia Retropulsion Masked facies Stopped Posture Resting tremor vs intention tremor led pipe rigidity
56
What are the causes of Huntington's disease?
Genetic: autosomal dominant (short arm fo chromosome 4). Overabundance of dopamine, and parts of basal ganglia specifically degenerating are caudate and nucleus
57
Symptom's of Huntington's disease include:
Quick jerks, rapid movements loose muscle tone patient will have trouble swallowing in chronic stage due to twitching
58
Symptoms of atrophy of the vermis of the cerebellum
Broad based gait Can't tandem Speech slurring Rapid alternating movements off intention tremor limb control off
59
What does a coma require?
Damage to reticular activating system and both hemisphere's impaired
60
What manifestation of brain injury is decorticate posturing?
Rostral of midbrain
61
What manifestation of brain injury is decerebrate posturing?
Caudal of midbrain (pons)
62
Mental Status Exam includes tests of what?
Attention Language Memory Visuospatial Executive function
63
What are the immediate effects of a stroke?
sudden difficulty speaking, blindness in one eye, numbness and/or weakness usually on one side of the body
64
What are the risk factors of a stroke?
Hypertension, Cigarette smoking, Diabetes, Hypercholesterolemia, overweight/ no exercise
65
Atherosclerosis means?
"Hardened vessels"
66
What are plaques made of and what do they do?
fatty deposits of cholesterol accumulating inside arteries and blocking the lumen, reducing blood flow
67
What are clots and what causes them?
immune cells traffic to area to remove cholesterol deposits that lead to plaques, and release substances that inevitably aids in forming the clot
68
What is a thrombus?
clot attached to artery wall
69
What is an embolism?
clot floating in a bloodstream
70
How does an aneurysm occur?
when an artery wall balloons under pressure, and the weakened wall cans subsequently burst (burst aneurysms are usually fatal)
71
What is a stroke?
an injury to the brain caused by interruption of blood flow to a focal area of brain or bleeding into or around the brain
72
What is a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
a temporary stroke; caused by a brief interruption of blood flow to the part of the brain "mini-stroke" or "warning-stroke"
73
2 main types of strokes include?
Ischemic (83%) and Hemorrhagic (17%)
74
What is an ischemic stroke?
obstruction of blood vessel supplying brain by a blood clot that deprives brain of essential nutrients. If blood flow is not stored, it will lead to irreversible damage. Can lead to thrombus or embolism
75
Hemorrhagic Stroke is?
Bleeding into the brain substance or around the brain
76
What are the four subtypes of ischemic strokes?
Atherothrombic (most common) Cardioembolic (second most common) Lacunar stroke (small vessel disease/ 15% of ischemic strokes) and other causes
77
What causes an atherothrombic stroke?
Atherosclerosis of major extra cranial and intracranial vessels extracranial -- internal carodid, vertebral arteries intracranial-- basilar, carotid siphon, orgin of middle and posterior cerebral arteries
78
Balloon angioplasty is what?
when a balloon is inflated in the coronary artery to "squash" the plaque and widen the lumen
79
What is a stent?
roll of wire used to hold open the coronary artery
80
What is acute Ischemia?
Sudden onset and short duration (minutes to hours)
81
Causes of acute ischemia?
thrombis, embolism, trauma
82
What is chronic ischemia?
Gradual onset, long duration (months to years)
83
Causes of chronic ischemia?
Atherosclerosis and inflammatio of blood vessels
84
Causes of cardioembolic?
thrombus arising from heart
85
Lacunar stroke (aka small vessel disease) can lead to?
Can lead to vascular dementia
86
Cellular mechanisms of stroke
loss of blood supply --> leads to failure of ionic pumps and mitochondrial injury Cellular effects lead to production of free radicals and activation of leukocytes/ influx of sodium, calcium, and chloride ions, release of excitatory neurotransmitters like glutamate
87
What is the main symptom of the intracerebral hemorrhage?
"worst headache of patients life" + vomiting or nausea, focal neurological deficit (can be caused by AVM)
88
What are microtubules?
Microtubule associated proteins (MAPs) regulate microtuble assembly and function . . . changes in MAPs are called tau
89
Cytosleketon gives a neuron it's shape, and the bones are made of:
Microtubules
90
Tau proteins are supposed to guide ____ to where it needs to go in your brain
nutrients
91
What gene increases the risk of late onset AD?
ApoE4
92
What are mutations on Tau linked to?
Fronto-Temporal Dementia
93
What is the role that microglia play in alzheimer's disease?
release inflammatory proteins and attempts to clean up damage caused by beta-amyloid plaques but actually seem to contribute to spread
94
What are treatment options of AD?
Cholinergic replacement and anti-amyloid agents
95
What are picks bodies?
abnormal clumps of tau protein inside neurons
96
Is Pick's disease early or late onset?
Early (40's-60's)
97
FTD symptoms include?
changes in personality, behavior, language, motor skill. behavioral variant is most common and can cause disinhibition, apathy, loss of empathy
98
After AD what is the most common type of dementia?
Vascular dementia
99
What is vascular dementia caused by?
strokes or damage to blood vessels
100
What are the causes of acute dementia?
Delirium (intoxications) Metabolitic abnormalities (renal failure, substrate deficiencies like B12, hypthyroidism) Depression (pseudodementia) Infection agents (fungal meningitis/ HIV/ Neurosyphilis
101
Difference between focal and obtuse TBI
focal is confined to one area of the brain and diffuse happens in more than one area
102
location of brain tumors in adults vs children
cerebral hemispheres vs brainstem and cerebellum
103
Amygdala is the trigger structure for emotion from ______ inducers
primary
104
OFC/VM prefrontal cortex is the trigger structure for emotion from _______ inducers
secondary
105
emotion vs feeling
emotion: what an outside observer can see or measure feeling: what the individual senses or subjectively reports

Neuropsychology (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions