Trauma Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

How does neurogenic shock work

A

Spinal chord transection either decreases sympathetic or increases parasympathetic tone leading to increased peripheral dilation

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2
Q

Examination findings of neurogenic shock

A

Low BP
Warm peripheries

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3
Q

What causes a low BP in trauma patients

A

Most commonly haemorrhage
Can be;
- tension pneumothorax
- spinal chord injury
- cardiac tamponade
- cardiac contusion

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4
Q

What is used to treat neurogenic shock

A

Vasopressors

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5
Q

What defines SIRS

A

Systemic inflammatory response
- temp 36-38
- HR >90
- RR >20
- WCC>12,000 or <4,000

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6
Q

What defines severe sepsis

A

Sepsis with organ failure

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7
Q

What defines septic shock

A

Sepsis with refractory hypotension

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8
Q

What is parkland formula

A

4ml x %body surface area x weight (kg)
50% given in first 8 hours
50% given in next 16 hours

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9
Q

What fluid is given in burns patients

A

Crystalloid- hartmanns

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10
Q

What drugs impair all wounds from healing

A

NSAIDs
Steroids
Immunosuppressive drugs

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11
Q

What can cause drop in sats on insertion of intubation tube

A

Oesophageal placement

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12
Q

What are indications for head CT within 1 hour

A

GCS <13 on assessment
GCS<15 at 2 hours post injury
Post traumatic seizure
Focal neurology
More than 1 vomiting episode
Any indication of skull fracture
- battle sign
- CSF leak
- panda eyes

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13
Q

What are indications for head CT within 8 hours

A

65 or older
History of coagulation disorder
On anticoagulants
Dangerous mechanism
30 minutes of retorgrade amnesia

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14
Q

What counts as dangerous mechanism for CT within 8 hours

A

Pedestrian struck by car
5 stairs fallen down
Fall over 1m

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15
Q

What do if patient onanticoagulant hits head

A

CT within 8 hours

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16
Q

Who does autonomic dysreflexia occur in

A

Those with spinal injury above T6

17
Q

Presentation of autonomic dysreflexia

A

Sweating and flushing above the level of lesion
Severe HTN

18
Q

What is management of autonomic dysreflexia

A

Manage HTN
Relieve cause- ie urinary retention or faecal impaction

19
Q

How assess if endotracheal tube is in the oesophagus

A

End tidal CO2

20
Q

When is ICP monitorning necessary

21
Q

What is management if raised ICP from a bleed

A

Take to surgery
In meantime give IV mannitol

22
Q

What vein does a central line go into

23
Q

Patient with long term endotracheal tube starts choking after feeds and coughing sputum

A

Tracheo oesophageal fistula

24
Q

What is the best investigation for diffuse axonal injury

25
What are panda eyes
Bruising around the eyes
26
Signs of basilar skull fracture
Battles sign Panda eyes CSF leakage from the ears and nose
27
If cant get IV access in an arrest call what do
Call trained individual who can get intraosseous access
28
What is difference between membranous and bulbar urethral injury
MB in terms of proximal to distal
29
What causes membranous vs bulbar urethral injury
Membranous- Pelvic fracture Bulbar- straddle injuries
30
Signs of urethral injury
- urinary retention - perineal and penile haematoma - blood at the meatus - prostate displaced upwards
31
How are urethral injuries investigated
Ascending urethrogram
32
What is immediate management of urethral injury
Suprapubic catheter
33
Investigation for bladder injury
IVU
34
What is a laryngeal mask
Mask which goes into cover airway during anaesthesia which channels oxygen to lungs
35
Problem of laryngeal mask
Poor control against reflux of gastric contents
36
What is tracheostomy
Where hole made in neck to gain access to airway
37
What is best IV induction agent if haemodynamically unstable
Ketamine as causes very little mycocardial depression
38
Management of haemothorax plus indications for second line
Chest drain Thoracotomy if drain over 1.5L or 200ml/hour over 2 hours
39
Most common primary if bony mets ( man vs woman)
Woman= breasts Men= prostate