Trauma, C38 P226-246 Flashcards

(163 cards)

1
Q

What widely accepted
protocol does trauma care
in the United States follow?
P226

A

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS)
precepts of the American College of
Surgeons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three main
elements of the ATLS
protocol?
P226

A
  1. Primary survey/resuscitation
  2. Secondary survey
  3. Definitive care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How and when should the
patient history be obtained?
P227

A

It should be obtained while completing
the primary survey; often the rescue
squad, witnesses, and family members
must be relied upon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PRIMARY SURVE
What are the five steps of
the primary survey?
P227

A
Think: “ABCDEs”:
Airway (and C-spine stabilization)
Breathing
Circulation
Disability
Exposure and Environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
PRIMARY SURVE
What principles are followed
in completing the primary
survey?
P227
A

Life-threatening problems discovered
during the primary survey are always
addressed before proceeding to the
next step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AIRWAY
What are the goals during
assessment of the airway?
P227

A

Securing the airway and protecting the

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
AIRWAY
In addition to the airway,
what MUST be considered
during the airway step?
P227
A

Spinal immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AIRWAY
What comprises spinal
immobilization?
P227

A

Use of a full backboard and rigid cervical

collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
AIRWAY
In an alert patient, what is
the quickest test for an
adequate airway?
P227
A

Ask a question: If the patient can speak,

the airway is intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AIRWAY
What is the first maneuver
used to establish an airway?
P227

A

Chin lift, jaw thrust, or both; if successful,
often an oral or nasal airway can be
used to temporarily maintain the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
AIRWAY
If these methods are
unsuccessful, what is the
next maneuver used to
establish an airway?
P227
A

Endotracheal intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
AIRWAY
If all other methods are
unsuccessful, what is the
definitive airway?
P228 (picture)
A
Cricothyroidotomy, a.k.a. “surgical airway”:
Incise the cricothyroid membrane
between the cricoid cartilage inferiorly
and the thyroid cartilage superiorly and
place an endotracheal or tracheostomy
tube into the trachea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
AIRWAY
What must always be kept
in mind during difficult
attempts to establish an
airway?
P228
A
Spinal immobilization and adequate
oxygenation; if at all possible, patients
must be adequately ventilated with 100%
oxygen using a bag and mask before any
attempt to establish an airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

BREATHING
What are the goals in
assessing breathing?
P228

A

Securing oxygenation and ventilation

Treating life-threatening thoracic injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

BREATHING
What comprises adequate
assessment of breathing?
P228

A
Inspection—for air movement, respiratory
    rate, cyanosis, tracheal shift, jugular
    venous distention, asymmetric chest
    expansion, use of accessory muscles
    of respiration, open chest wounds
Auscultation—for breath sounds
Percussion—for hyperresonance or
    dullness over either lung field
Palpation—for presence of subcutaneous
    emphysema, flail segments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
BREATHING
What are the life-threatening
conditions that MUST be
diagnosed and treated
during the breathing step?
P228
A

Tension pneumothorax, open

pneumothorax, massive hemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

BREATHING
What is it?
P229

A

Injury to the lung, resulting in release of air
into the pleural space between the normally
apposed parietal and visceral pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

BREATHING
How is it diagnosed?
P229

A

Tension pneumothorax is a clinical
diagnosis: dyspnea, jugular venous
distention, tachypnea, anxiety, pleuritic
chest pain, unilateral decreased or absent
breath sounds, tracheal shift away from
the affected side, hyperresonance on the
affected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

BREATHING
What is the treatment of a
tension pneumothorax?
P229

A
Rapid thoracostomy incision or immediate
decompression by needle thoracostomy
in the second intercostal space
midclavicular line, followed by tube
thoracostomy placed in the anterior/
midaxillary line in the fourth intercostal
space (level of the nipple in men)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BREATHING
What is the medical term for
a “sucking chest wound”?
P229

A

Open pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

BREATHING
What is a tube thoracostomy?
P229

A

“Chest tube”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
BREATHING
How is an open
pneumothorax diagnosed
and treated?
P229
A
Diagnosis: usually obvious, with air
    movement through a chest wall defect
    and pneumothorax on CXR
Treatment in the ER: tube thoracostomy
    (chest tube), occlusive dressing over
    chest wall defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BREATHING
What does a pneumothorax
look like on chest X-ray?
P229 (picture

A

Loss of lung markings (Figure shows a
right-sided pneumothorax; arrows point
out edge of lung-air interface)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Flail Chest
What is it?
P230 (picture)

A

Two separate fractures in three or more

consecutive ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Flail Chest How is it diagnosed? P230
Flail segment of chest wall that moves paradoxically (sucks in with inspiration and pushes out with expiration opposite the rest of the chest wall)
26
``` Flail Chest What is the major cause of respiratory compromise with flail chest? P230 ```
Underlying pulmonary contusion!
27
Flail Chest What is the treatment? P230
Intubation with positive pressure ventilation and PEEP PRN (let ribs heal on their own)
28
Cardiac Tamponade What is it? P230
Bleeding into the pericardial sac, resulting in constriction of heart, decreasing inflow and resulting in decreased cardiac output (the pericardium does not stretch!)
29
Cardiac Tamponade What are the signs and symptoms? P230
Tachycardia/shock with Beck’s triad, | pulsus paradoxus, Kussmaul’s sign
30
Cardiac Tamponade Define the following: Beck’s triad P231
1. Hypotension 2. Muffled heart sounds 3. JVD
31
Cardiac Tamponade Define the following: Kussmaul’s sign P231
JVD with inspiration
32
Cardiac Tamponade How is cardiac tamponade diagnosed? P231
Ultrasound (echocardiogram)
33
Cardiac Tamponade What is the treatment? P231
Pericardial window—if blood returns then median sternotomy to rule out and treat cardiac injury
34
Massive Hemothorax How is it diagnosed? P231
Unilaterally decreased or absent breath sounds; dullness to percussion; CXR, CT scan, chest tube output
35
Massive Hemothorax What is the treatment? P231
Volume replacement Tube thoracostomy (chest tube) Removal of the blood (which will allow apposition of the parietal and visceral pleura, sealing the defect and slowing the bleeding)
36
``` Massive Hemothorax What are indications for emergent thoracotomy for hemothorax? P231 ```
``` Massive hemothorax  1. >1500 cc of blood on initial placement of chest tube 2. Persistent >200 cc of bleeding via chest tube per hour x 4 hours ```
37
CIRCULATION What are the goals in assessing circulation? P231
Securing adequate tissue perfusion; | treatment of external bleeding
38
CIRCULATION What is the initial test for adequate circulation? P231
Palpation of pulses: As a rough guide, if a radial pulse is palpable, then systolic pressure is at least 80 mm Hg; if a femoral or carotid pulse is palpable, then systolic pressure is at least 60 mm Hg
39
CIRCULATION What comprises adequate assessment of circulation? P231
Heart rate, blood pressure, peripheral perfusion, urinary output, mental status, capillary refill (normal <2 seconds), exam of skin: cold, clammy = hypovolemia
40
CIRCULATION Who can be hypovolemic with normal blood pressure? P232
Young patients; autonomic tone can maintain blood pressure until cardiovascular collapse is imminent
41
``` CIRCULATION Which patients may not mount a tachycardic response to hypovolemic shock? P232 ```
Those with concomitant spinal cord injuries Those on -blockers Well-conditioned athletes
42
CIRCULATION How are sites of external bleeding treated? P232
By direct pressure; / tourniquets
43
``` CIRCULATION What is the best and preferred intravenous (IV) access in the trauma patient? P232 ```
“Two large-bore IVs” (14–16 gauge), IV catheters in the upper extremities (peripheral IV access)
44
CIRCULATION What are alternate sites of IV access? P232
Percutaneous and cutdown catheters in the lower leg saphenous; central access into femoral, jugular, subclavian veins
45
``` CIRCULATION For a femoral vein catheter, how can the anatomy of the right groin be remembered? P232 ```
``` Lateral to medial “NAVEL”: Nerve Artery Vein Empty space Lymphatics Thus, the vein is medial to the femoral artery pulse (Or, think: “venous close to penis”) ```
46
CIRCULATION What is the trauma resuscitation fluid of choice? P232
Lactated Ringer’s (LR) solution (isotonic, and the lactate helps buffer the hypovolemia-induced metabolic acidosis)
47
CIRCULATION What types of decompression do trauma patients receive? P232
Gastric decompression with an NG tube and Foley catheter bladder decompression after normal rectal exam
48
``` CIRCULATION What are the contraindications to placement of a Foley? P232 ```
``` Signs of urethral injury: Severe pelvic fracture in men Blood at the urethral meatus (penile opening) “High-riding” “ballotable” prostate (loss of urethral tethering) Scrotal/perineal injury/ecchymosis ```
49
``` CIRCULATION What test should be obtained prior to placing a Foley catheter if urethral injury is suspected? P233 ```
Retrograde UrethroGram (RUG): dye in penis retrograde to the bladder and x-ray looking for extravasation of dye
50
``` CIRCULATION How is gastric decompression achieved with a maxillofacial fracture? P233 ```
Not with an NG tube because the tube may perforate through the cribriform plate into the brain; place an oral-gastric tube (OGT), not an NG tube
51
DISABILITY What are the goals in assessing disability? P233
Determination of neurologic injury | Think: neurologic disability
52
DISABILITY What comprises adequate assessment of disability? P233
``` Mental status—Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) Pupils—a blown pupil suggests ipsilateral brain mass (blood) as herniation of the brain compresses CN III Motor/sensory—screening exam for lateralizing extremity movement, sensory deficits ```
53
DISABILITY Describe the GCS scoring system. P233
``` Eye opening (E) 4—Opens spontaneously 3—Opens to voice (command) 2—Opens to painful stimulus 1—Does not open eyes (Think: Eyes = “four eyes”) Motor response (M) 6—Obeys commands 5—Localizes painful stimulus 4—Withdraws from pain 3—Decorticate posture 2—Decerebrate posture 1—No movement (Think: Motor = “6-cylinder motor”) Verbal response (V) 5—Appropriate and oriented 4—Confused 3—Inappropriate words 2—Incomprehensible sounds 1—No sounds (Think: Verbal = “Jackson 5”) ```
54
DISABILITY What is a normal human GCS? P234
GCS 15
55
DISABILITY What is the GCS score for a dead man? P234
GCS 3
56
DISABILITY What is the GCS score for a patient in a “coma”? P234
GCS ⩽8
57
DISABILITY How does scoring differ if the patient is intubated? P234
Verbal evaluation is omitted and replaced with a “T”; thus, the highest score for an intubated patient is 11 T
58
EXPOSURE AND ENVIRONMENT What are the goals in obtaining adequate exposure? P234
Complete disrobing to allow a thorough visual inspection and digital palpation of the patient during the secondary survey
59
EXPOSURE AND ENVIRONMENT What is the “environment” of the E in ABCDEs? P234
Keep a warm Environment (i.e., keep the patient warm; a hypothermic patient can become coagulopathic)
60
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What principle is followed in completing the secondary survey? P234 ```
Complete physical exam, including all orifices: ears, nose, mouth, vagina, rectum
61
SECONDARY SURVEY Why look in the ears? P234
Hemotympanum is a sign of basilar skull fracture; otorrhea is a sign of basilar skull fracture
62
``` SECONDARY SURVEY Examination of what part of the trauma patient’s body is often forgotten? P234 ```
Patient’s back (logroll the patient and | examine!)
63
SECONDARY SURVEY What are typical signs of basilar skull fracture? P234
Raccoon eyes, Battle’s sign, clear otorrhea | or rhinorrhea, hemotympanum
64
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What diagnosis in the anterior chamber must not be missed on the eye exam? P234 ```
Traumatic hyphema = blood in the | anterior chamber of the eye
65
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What potentially destructive lesion must not be missed on the nasal exam? P235 ```
Nasal septal hematoma: Hematoma must be evacuated; if not, it can result in pressure necrosis of the septum!
66
SECONDARY SURVEY What is the best indication of a mandibular fracture? P235
Dental malocclusion: Tell the patient to “bite down” and ask, “Does that feel normal to you?”
67
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What signs of thoracic trauma are often found on the neck exam? P235 ```
Crepitus or subcutaneous emphysema from tracheobronchial disruption/PTX; tracheal deviation from tension pneumothorax; jugular venous distention from cardiac tamponade; carotid bruit heard with seatbelt neck injury resulting in carotid artery injury
68
SECONDARY SURVEY What is the best physical exam for broken ribs or sternum? P235
Lateral and anterior-posterior compression | of the thorax to elicit pain/instability
69
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What physical signs are diagnostic for thoracic great vessel injury? P235 ```
``` None: Diagnosis of great vessel injury requires a high index of suspicion based on the mechanism of injury, associated injuries, and CXR/radiographic findings (e.g., widened mediastinum) ```
70
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What is the best way to diagnose or rule out aortic injury? P235 ```
CT angiogram
71
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What must be considered in every penetrating injury of the thorax at or below the level of the nipple? P235 ```
Concomitant injury to the abdomen: Remember, the diaphragm extends to the level of the nipples in the male on full expiration
72
SECONDARY SURVEY What is the significance of subcutaneous air? P235
Indicates PTX, until proven otherwise
73
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What is the physical exam technique for examining the thoracic and lumbar spine? P235 ```
Logrolling the patient to allow complete visualization of the back and palpation of the spine to elicit pain over fractures, step off (spine deformity)
74
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What conditions must exist to pronounce an abdominal physical exam negative? P235 ```
Alert patient without any evidence of head/spinal cord injury or drug/EtOH intoxication (even then, the abdominal exam is not 100% accurate)
75
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What physical signs may indicate intra-abdominal injury? P236 ```
Tenderness; guarding; peritoneal signs; progressive distention (always use a gastric tube for decompression of air); seatbelt sign
76
SECONDARY SURVEY What is the seatbelt sign? P236
Ecchymosis on lower abdomen from wearing a seatbelt (10% of patients with this sign have a small bowel perforation!)
77
SECONDARY SURVEY What must be documented from the rectal exam? P236
Sphincter tone (as an indication of spinal cord function); presence of blood (as an indication of colon or rectal injury); prostate position (as an indication of urethral injury)
78
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What is the best physical exam technique to test for pelvic fractures? P236 ```
Lateral compression of the iliac crests and greater trochanters and anteriorposterior compression of the symphysis pubis to elicit pain/instability
79
SECONDARY SURVEY What is the “halo” sign? P236
Cerebrospinal fluid from nose/ear will form | a clear “halo” around the blood on a cloth
80
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What physical signs indicate possible urethral injury, thus contraindicating placement of a Foley catheter? P236 ```
High-riding ballotable prostate on rectal exam; presence of blood at the meatus; scrotal or perineal ecchymosis
81
SECONDARY SURVEY What must be documented from the extremity exam? P236
Any fractures or joint injuries; any open wounds; motor and sensory exam, particularly distal to any fractures; distal pulses; peripheral perfusion
82
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What complication after prolonged ischemia to the lower extremity must be treated immediately? P236 ```
Compartment syndrome
83
SECONDARY SURVEY What is the treatment for this condition? P236
Fasciotomy (four compartments below | the knee)
84
``` SECONDARY SURVEY What injuries must be suspected in a trauma patient with a progressive decline in mental status? P236 ```
``` Epidural hematoma, subdural hematoma, brain swelling with rising intracranial pressure But hypoxia/hypotension must be ruled out! ```
85
TRAUMA STUDIES What are the classic blunt trauma ER x-rays? P237
1. AP (anterior-to-posterior) chest film | 2. AP pelvis film
86
TRAUMA STUDIES What are the common trauma labs? P237
Blood for complete blood count, chemistries, amylase, liver function tests, lactic acid, coagulation studies, and type and crossmatch; urine for urinalysis
87
``` TRAUMA STUDIES Will the hematocrit be low after an acute massive hemorrhage? P237 ```
No (no time to equilibrate)
88
TRAUMA STUDIES How can a C-spine be evaluated? P237
1. Clinically by physical exam | 2. Radiographically
89
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What patients can have their C-spines cleared by a physical exam? P237 ```
No neck pain on palpation with full range of motion (FROM) with no neurologic injury (GCS 15), no EtOH/drugs, no distracting injury, no pain meds
90
TRAUMA STUDIES How do you rule out a C-spine bony fracture? P237
With a CT scan of the C-spine
91
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What do you do if no bony C-spine fracture is apparent on CT scan and you cannot obtain an MRI in a COMATOSE patient? P237 ```
This is controversial; the easiest answer is | to leave the patient in a cervical collar
92
``` TRAUMA STUDIES Which x-rays are used for evaluation of cervical spine LIGAMENTOUS injury? P237 ```
MRI, lateral flexion and extension | C-spine films
93
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What findings on chest film are suggestive of thoracic aortic injury? P237 ```
``` Widened mediastinum (most common finding), apical pleural capping, loss of aortic contour/KNOB/AP window, depression of left main stem bronchus, nasogastric tube/tracheal deviation, pleural fluid, elevation of right mainstem bronchus, clinical suspicion, high-speed mechanism ```
94
TRAUMA STUDIES What study is used to rule out thoracic aortic injury? P238
Spiral CT scan of mediastinum looking for mediastinal hematoma with CTA Thoracic arch aortogram (gold standard)
95
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What is the most common site of thoracic aortic traumatic tear? P238 ```
Just distal to the take-off of the left | subclavian artery
96
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What studies are available to evaluate for intra-abdominal injury? P238 ```
FAST, CT scan, DPL
97
TRAUMA STUDIES What is a FAST exam? P238
Ultrasound: Focused Assessment with | Sonography for Trauma = FAST
98
TRAUMA STUDIES What does the FAST exam look for? P238
Blood in the peritoneal cavity looking at Morison’s pouch, bladder, spleen, and pericardial sac
99
TRAUMA STUDIES What does DPL stand for? P238
Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage
100
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What diagnostic test is the test of choice for evaluation of the unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma? P238 ```
FAST
101
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What is the indication for abdominal CT scan in blunt trauma? P238 ```
Normal vital signs with abdominal | pain/tenderness/mechanism
102
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What is the indication for DPL or FAST in blunt trauma? P238 ```
Unstable vital signs (hypotension)
103
TRAUMA STUDIES How is a DPL performed? P238
Place a catheter below the umbilicus (in patients without a pelvic fracture) into the peritoneal cavity Aspirate for blood and if <10 cc are aspirated, infuse 1 L of saline or LR Drain the fluid (by gravity) and analyze
104
TRAUMA STUDIES What is a “grossly positive” DPL? P238
⩾10 cc blood aspirated
105
``` TRAUMA STUDIES Where should the DPL catheter be placed in a patient with a pelvic fracture? P239 ```
``` Above the umbilicus Common error: If you go below the umbilicus, you may get into a pelvic hematoma tracking between the fascia layers and thus obtain a false-positive DPL ```
106
TRAUMA STUDIES What constitutes a positive peritoneal tap? P239
Prior to starting a peritoneal lavage, the DPL catheter should be aspirated; if >10 mL of blood or any enteric contents are aspirated, then this constitutes a positive tap and requires laparotomy
107
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What are the indicators of a positive peritoneal lavage in blunt trauma? P239 ```
``` Classic: Inability to read newsprint through lavaged fluid RBC ⩾ 100,000/mm WBC ⩾ 500/mm (Note: mm, not mm) Lavage fluid (LR/NS) drained from chest tube, Foley, NG tube ``` ``` Less common: Bile present Bacteria present Feces present Vegetable matter present Elevated amylase level ```
108
TRAUMA STUDIES What must be in place before a DPL is performed? P239
NG tube and Foley catheter (to remove the stomach and bladder from the line of fire!)
109
TRAUMA STUDIES What injuries does CT scan miss? P239
Small bowel injuries and diaphragm | injuries
110
TRAUMA STUDIES What injuries does DPL miss? P239
Retroperitoneal injuries
111
``` TRAUMA STUDIES What study is used to evaluate the urethra in cases of possible disruption due to blunt trauma? P239 ```
Retrograde urethrogram (RUG)
112
TRAUMA STUDIES What are the most emergent orthopaedic injuries? P240
1. Hip dislocation—must be reduced immediately 2. Exsanguinating pelvic fracture (binder or external fixator)
113
TRAUMA STUDIES What findings would require a celiotomy in a blunt trauma victim? P240
Peritoneal signs, free air on CXR/CT scan, unstable patient with positive FAST exam or positive DPL results
114
TRAUMA STUDIES What is the treatment of a gunshot wound to the belly? P240
Exploratory laparotomy
115
TRAUMA STUDIES What is the evaluation of a stab wound to the belly? P240
``` If there are peritoneal signs, heavy bleeding, shock, perform exploratory laparotomy; otherwise, many surgeons either observe the asymptomatic stab wound patient closely, use local wound exploration to rule out fascial penetration, or use DPL ```
116
PENETRATING NECK INJURIES What depth of neck injury must be further evaluated? P240
Penetrating injury through the platysma
117
PENETRATING NECK INJURIES Define the anatomy of the neck by trauma zones: Zone III P240
Angle of the mandible and up
118
PENETRATING NECK INJURIES Define the anatomy of the neck by trauma zones: Zone II P240
Angle of the mandible to the cricoid | cartilage
119
PENETRATING NECK INJURIES Define the anatomy of the neck by trauma zones: Zone I P240 (picture)
Below the cricoid cartilage
120
``` PENETRATING NECK INJURIES How do most surgeons treat penetrating neck injuries (those that penetrate the platysma) by neck zone: Zone III P241 ```
Selective exploration
121
``` PENETRATING NECK INJURIES How do most surgeons treat penetrating neck injuries (those that penetrate the platysma) by neck zone: Zone II P241 ```
Surgical exploration vs. selective | exploration
122
``` PENETRATING NECK INJURIES How do most surgeons treat penetrating neck injuries (those that penetrate the platysma) by neck zone: Zone I P241 ```
Selective exploration
123
PENETRATING NECK INJURIES What is selective exploration? P241
Selective exploration is based on diagnostic studies that include A-gram or CT A-gram, bronchoscopy, esophagoscopy
124
``` PENETRATING NECK INJURIES What are the indications for surgical exploration in all penetrating neck wounds (Zones I, II, III)? P241 ```
``` “Hard signs” of significant neck damage: shock, exsanguinating hemorrhage, expanding hematoma, pulsatile hematoma, neurologic injury, subQ emphysema ```
125
``` PENETRATING NECK INJURIES How can you remember the order of the neck trauma zones and Le Forte fractures? P241 (picture) ```
In the direction of carotid blood flow
126
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the “3-for-1” rule? P241
Trauma patient in hypovolemic shock acutely requires 3 L of crystalloid (LR) for every 1 L of blood loss
127
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the minimal urine output for an adult trauma patient? P241
50 mL/hr
128
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS How much blood can be lost into the thigh with a closed femur fracture? P242 ```
Up to 1.5 L of blood
129
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS Can an adult lose enough blood in the “closed” skull from a brain injury to cause hypovolemic shock? P242 ```
Absolutely not! But infants can lose enough blood from a brain injury to cause shock
130
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS Can a patient behypotensive after an isolated head injury? P242
Yes, but rule out hemorrhagic shock!
131
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the brief ATLS history? P242
``` “AMPLE” history: Allergies Medications PMH Last meal (when) Events (of injury, etc.) ```
132
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS In what population is a surgical cricothyroidotomy not recommended? P242 ```
Any patient younger than 12 years; instead | perform needle cricothyroidotomy
133
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What are the signs of a laryngeal fracture? P242
Subcutaneous emphysema in neck Altered voice Palpable laryngeal fracture
134
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment of rectal penetrating injury? P242
``` Diverting proximal colostomy; closure of perforation (if easy, and definitely if intraperitoneal); and presacral drainage ```
135
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment of EXTRAperitoneal minor bladder rupture? P242 ```
“Bladder catheter” (Foley) drainage and observation; intraperitoneal or large bladder rupture requires operative closure
136
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What intra-abdominal injury is associated with seatbelt use? P242
Small bowel injuries (L2 fracture, | pancreatic injury)
137
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment of a pelvic fracture? P242
+/- pelvic binder until the external fixator is placed; IVF/blood; +/- A-gram to embolize bleeding pelvic vessels
138
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS Bleeding from pelvic fractures is most commonly caused by arterial or venous bleeding? P242 ```
Venous (≈85%)
139
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS If a patient has a laceration through an eyebrow, should you shave the eyebrow prior to suturing it closed? P242 ```
No—20% of the time, the eyebrow will | not grow back if shaved!
140
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment of extensive irreparable biliary, duodenal, and pancreatic head injury? P243 ```
Trauma Whipple
141
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the most common intra-abdominal organ injured with penetrating trauma? P243 ```
Small bowel
142
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS How high up do the diaphragms go? P243
To the nipples (intercostal space #4); thus, intra-abdominal injury with penetrating injury below the nipples must be ruled out
143
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS Classic trauma question: “If you have only one vial of blood from a trauma victim to send to the lab, what test should be ordered?” P243 ```
Type and cross (for blood transfusion)
144
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment of penetrating injury to the colon? P243
If the patient is in shock, resection and colostomy If the patient is stable, the trend is primary anastomosis/repair
145
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment of small bowel injury? P243
Primary closure or resection and primary | anastomosis
146
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment of minor pancreatic injury? P243
Drainage (e.g., JP drains)
147
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the most commonly injured abdominal organ with blunt trauma? P243 ```
Liver (in recent studies)
148
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment for significant duodenal injury? P243
Pyloric exclusion: 1. Close duodenal injury 2. Staple off pylorus 3. Gastrojejunostomy
149
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment for massive tail of pancreas injury? P244
``` Distal pancreatectomy (usually perform splenectomy also) ```
150
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is “damage control” surgery? P244
``` Stop major hemorrhage and GI soilage Pack and get out of the O.R. ASAP to bring the patient to the ICU to warm, correct coags, and resuscitate Return patient to O.R. when stable, warm, and not acidotic ```
151
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the “lethal triad”? P244
``` “ACH”: 1. Acidosis 2. Coagulopathy 3. Hypothermia (Think: ACHe = Acidosis, Coagulopathy, Hypothermia) ```
152
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What comprises the workup/ treatment of a stable parasternal chest gunshot/ stab wound? P244 ```
1. CXR 2. FAST, chest tube, / O.R. for subxiphoid window; if blood returns, then sternotomy to assess for cardiac injury
153
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the diagnosis with NGT in chest on CXR? P244 (picture)
``` Ruptured diaphragm with stomach in pleural cavity (go to ex lap) ```
154
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What films are typically obtained to evaluate extremity fractures? P244 ```
Complete views of the involved extremity, including the joints above and below the fracture
155
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS Outline basic workup for a victim of severe blunt trauma In ER: Airway, physical exam. IV X 2, labs, type and cross, OGT/NGT, Foley, chest tube PRN X-rays: CXR, pelvic, femur (if femur fracture is suspected) [Note: AP = anteroposterior; Ext = extremity; OGT = orogastric tube; FAST = Focused Assessment Sonogram for Trauma; lat = lateral; C = cervical.] P245 (Table)
(see table
156
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What finding on ABD/pelvic CT scan requires ex lap in the blunt trauma patient with normal vital signs? P245 ```
Free air; also strongly consider in the patient with no solid organ injury but lots of free fluid = both to rule out hollow viscus injury
157
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS Can you rely on a negative FAST in the unstable patient with a pelvic fracture? P245 ```
No—perform DPL (above umbilicus)
158
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What lab tests are used to look for intra-abdominal injury in children? P246 ```
Liver function tests (LFTs) = ↑AST | and/or ↑ALT
159
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the only real indication for MAST trousers? P246
Prehospitalization, pelvic fracture
160
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is the treatment for human and dog bites? P246
Leave wound open, irrigation, antibiotics
161
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What percentage of pelvic fracture bleeding is exclusively venous? P246 ```
85%
162
MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What is sympathetic ophthalmia? P246
Blindness in one eye that results in subsequent blindness in the contralateral eye (autoimmune)
163
``` MISCELLANEOUS TRAUMA FACTS What can present after blunt trauma with neurological deficits and a normal brain CT scan? P246 ```
Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI), carotid | artery injury