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Flashcards in Traumatic Disorders Deck (93)
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1
Q

What defines a positive diagnostic peritoneal aspiration?q

A

Aspiration of >10mL of frank blood

2
Q

*x-ray from 369368

Diagnosis?

A

Patellar tendon rupture

3
Q

Clinical features of patellar tendon rupture

A

Classically patient falls while descending a staircase or stepping down from a curb

Exam shows superior displacement of patella with inferior pole tenderness and swelling

Inability to actively extend the affected knee or to maintain the passively extended knee against gravity

4
Q

ED management of patellar tendon rupture?

A

Immobilize knee in extension with knee immobilizer and apply ice and a compressive dressing

5
Q

Causes for knee extensor mechanism injury

A
  • Quadriceps tendon rupture
  • Patellar tendon rupture
  • Patellar fracture
  • Tibial tuberosity avulsion
6
Q

Retroperitoneum contents

A
  • Adrenal glands
  • Kidney
  • Aorta
  • Duodenum (except proximal segment)
  • Pancreas (except tail)
  • Ascending and descending colon
  • Rectum
  • Ureter
  • Esophagus
7
Q

What are Grey-Turner and Cullen signs?

A

Late findings
Grey-Turner: flank ecchymosis

Cullen: periumbilical ecchymosis

8
Q

What is Bryant sign?

A

Unilateral scrotal ecchymosis secondary to tracking blood

9
Q

Common mechanism for anterior urethral injuries

A

Direct trauma to the perineum such as straddle injuries, but also seen with penile fractures

10
Q

Symptoms of urethral injury

A
  • Blood at penile meatus
  • Inability to void
  • Gross hematuria
  • Perineal pain
  • Perineal swelling or ecchymosis
  • Absent, high-riding, or boggy prostate on exam
11
Q

Differences between anterior and posterior urethral injury

A

Physical exam findings are different
Classically for anterior: perineal hematoma or penile swelling
posterior: absent, high-riding, or boggy prostate

12
Q

Diagnosis of urethral injuries

A

Retrograde urethrogram

13
Q

What is the most common dysrhythmia seen in blunt cardiac injury outside of sinus tachycardia?

A

Atrial fibrillation

14
Q

Disposition for tympanic membrane perforation?

A

If involves <25%, can discharge with otic antibiotics
Keep ear dry
90% heal in few months; if not may require surgery

15
Q

What organ is the most common site of injury for gunshots to the abdomen?

A

Small intestine

16
Q

What organ is the most common site of injury in abdominal stab wounds?

A

Liver

17
Q

Signs of better prognosis in amputation injuries

A
  1. Distal > Proximal

2. Guillotine-like > avulsion or crush

18
Q

Digit amputations can tolerate a maximum of what amount of ischemic time prior to replantation?

A

12-24 hrs

19
Q

What is the proper method for preservation of amputation?

A

Wrap clean amputated part in saline-moistened gauze and seal in a dry plastic bag, then place on ice. Stump should be wrapped in moist gauze, kept elevated to reduce bleeding, and cooled with ice packs

20
Q

Zones of fingertip amputations

A

Zone I - amputation isolated to pulp and distal nail (healing by secondary intention)
Zone II - exposed bone
Zone III - involve eponychium

21
Q

Contraindications to replantation in amputation injuries

A
  1. Amputations in unstable patients
  2. Multiple-level amputations
  3. Self-inflicted
  4. Single-digit amputations proximal to flexor digitorum superficialis insertion
  5. Serious underlying dz like vascular, complicated DM, CHF
  6. Extremes of age
22
Q

Indications for replantation of amputation injuries

A
  1. Multiple digits
  2. Thumb
  3. Wrist and forearm
  4. Sharp amputations with minimal to moderate avulsion proximal to the elbow
  5. Single digits amputated between PIP and DIP
23
Q

Patients with persistent PTX following tube thoracostomy should be evaluated for what?

A

Possible bronchial injury

24
Q

What is a hangman fracture?

A

Spondylolysis of C2
- Caused by extreme hyperextension from abrupt deceleration
- Bilateral fractures of the pedicles of the axis (C2)
Q#977263

25
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Brown-Sequard Syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral loss of motor strength, vibratory sensation, and proprioception
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature

26
Q

Which incomplete spinal cord syndrome has the best prognosis of full recovery?

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

27
Q

Perilunate vs. lunate dislocation

A

Both from FOOSH
Perilunate: MC carpal dislocation, palpable dorsal wrist fullness. X-ray shows dorsal displacement of capitate
Lunate: palpable volar wrist fullness, volar displacement of lunate with spilled teacup or piece of pie sign

28
Q

What nerve is at risk of being compressed in a perilunate dislocation?

A

Median nerve

29
Q

What is the most commonly injured visceral organ in blunt trauma?

A

Spleen

30
Q

When to consult oculoplastic specialist for eyelid lacerations

A
  • Within 6-8mm of medial canthus
  • Involves lacrimal duct or sac
  • Involves inner surface of the lid
  • Involves lid margins
  • Associated with ptosis
  • Involves the tarsal plate or levator palpebrae muscle (if visible fat protrusion, this is likely)
31
Q

Indications for intubation in flail chest

A
  • Shock
  • Severe head injury
  • Comorbid pulmonary disease
  • Fx of 8+ ribs
  • Age >65
  • O2 sat <95% despite O2 supplementation
  • Pulmonary contusion
32
Q

Most commonly injured organ in adult blunt abdominal trauma?

A

Spleen

33
Q

Most common cause of lethal hemorrhage in blunt abdominal trauma in pediatrics?

A

Severe liver injury (spleen is still more frequently injured)

34
Q

Neck zones

A

Zone 3 - above angle of mandible and anterior to mastoid air cells

Zone 2 - Above cricoid cartilage and below angle of mandible

Zone 1 - Below cricoid cartilage to sternum

35
Q

Blunt trauma to carotid artery may lead to injury to the sympathetic chain. What is the name of the syndrome associated with this and its components?

A

Horner Syndrome - ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

36
Q

Hard signs in penetrating neck trauma

A
  • Expanding hematoma
  • Diminished pulse
  • Paralysis
  • Hemorrhage
  • Stroke
37
Q

Management of tuft fracture (partially amputated open distal phalanx fx)

A
  • Reattach partially amputated fragment
  • Make sure nail bed is exposed and realigned properly to prevent abnormal nail growth
  • Discharge for follow-up with hand surgeon
38
Q

Best location for placement of a chest tube in pregnancy?

A

Third intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

Diaphragm rises an extra 4cm with compensatory flaring of the ribs

39
Q

In penetrating abdominal trauma in a pregnant patient, what is at greatest risk of injury?

A

Bowel

40
Q

Hard evidence of vascular injury

A
  • Absent distal pulses
  • Distal ischemia
  • ABI <0.8
  • Expanding or pulsatile hematoma

-> surgical exploration

41
Q

What is a “dimple” sign?

A

Seen on physical exam in posterolateral knee dislocation

42
Q

Nerve and artery complications from knee dislocations

A

Nerve: Common peroneal nerve - can note hypoesthesia in first web space or loss of dorsiflexion of the foot

Artery: Popliteal

43
Q

Clinical presentation of anterior cord syndrome

A
  • Loss of motor function below lesion
  • Loss of pain and temperature below lesion
  • Preservation of position and vibratory function
44
Q

Nexus criteria

A
  • No c-spine midline tenderness
  • No focal neuro deficit
  • No AMS
  • No intoxication
  • No distracting injury
45
Q

Ellis Classification of tooth injuries and their management

A

I. Fracture of enamel -> smooth edge with file and discharge with dental follow-up

II. Fracture through dentin and enamel (ivory-yellow appearance) -> smooth edge with file and apply calcium hydroxide covering over exposed dentin with dental follow-up

III. Fracture through pulp, dentin, and enamel -> dental consult for pulpotomy to prevent infection

46
Q

Most common location for blunt aortic injury

A

Left subclavian artery origin - aorta is anatomically fixed at this point by ligamentum arteriosum

47
Q

How are partial-thickness traumatic aortic injuries medically managed?

A

Similar to aortic dissections with BP and HR control

48
Q

Parkland Formula

A

Volume of LR = 4 x TBSA x Weight (kg)

First half over first 8 hours; second half over next 16 hours

49
Q

Rule of Nines in Burn

A

Q180115

50
Q

Differences between first, second, third, fourth degree burns

A
  1. First-degree: only affect epidermis; erythema, pain, blanching of skin
  2. Second-degree: epidermis and the dermis; severe pain and blistering
  3. Third-degree: full involvement of epidermis and dermis; pale, leathery, insensate
  4. Fourth-degree: all third-degree burns that involve fat, muscle, or bone
51
Q

Target UOP in burns

A

0.5-1 mL/kg/hr in adults

1-2 mL/kg/hr in children

52
Q

How might duodenal hematoma present?

A

Hematoma can lead to partial or complete luminal obstruction which results in gastric distention and vomiting
Vomiting can be delayed up to 48 hours
Examine for ecchymosis, seat belt sign, peritoneal signs, abdominal distension, presence of bowel sounds, presence of palpable abdominal mass

53
Q

Management for duodenal hematoma

A

Most cases resolve without operative intervention

- Observation with NG decompression, bowel rest, parenteral nutrition

54
Q

What are indications for operative fixation of a flail chest segment?

A
  • Inability to wean patient from ventilator
  • Severe chest wall instability
  • Persistent pain
  • Progressive pulmonary function decline
55
Q

What is the most commonly reported gastric injury associated with blunt abdominal trauma in children?

A

Gastric perforation

56
Q

What is Beck triad?

A

For pericardial effusion with tamponade

  • Hypotension
  • JVD
  • Muffled heart sounds
57
Q

Initial management of pericardial effusion resulting in tamponade

A
  • Preload dependent - IVF

Pericardiocentesis, pericardial window

58
Q

What is C1 burst fracture?

A

Also a “Jefferson” fracture

Q313552 for image

59
Q

Presentation and Mechanism for C1 burst fracture

A
  • Axial compression injury such as fall onto head or dive into shallow pool
  • Rarely with immediate neurologic impairment; only finding may be midline tenderness
60
Q

What is the most common location and cause of spinal column injuries in children?

A

Cause: MVC

Vast majority involve cervical spine

61
Q

Management of C1 Burst Fracture

A

Immobilization with semipermanent device such as Halo traction brace
- unstable fracture

62
Q

Minimum MAP goal for neurogenic shock?

A

85

63
Q

Treatment for neurogenic shock?

A

Appropriate fluid resuscitation
Levophed; if still refractory -> Phenylephrine
Methylprednisolone possibly for nonpenetrating traumatic spinal cord injury, but controversial and speak with spine surgeon first

64
Q

Spinal cord injuries above what level can result in neurogenic shock?

A

At or above T5

65
Q

What is the most common cause of perforated bowel in MVC

A

Sudden deceleration injury -> shear forces

66
Q

What organ is most often damaged from a handlebar injury?

A

Duodenum - classically delayed 48-72 hours

67
Q

What is Kehr’s sign?

A

Acute pain in tip of shoulder due to presence of blood or other irritants in peritoneal cavity when patient is laying down and legs are elevated. Classic symptom of ruptured spleen

68
Q

Within how many minutes should a perimortum c-section be performed?

A

Ideally within 4 minutes of loss of maternal pulses to allow for delivery within 5 minutes of start of maternal resuscitation

CPR should continue during procedure

69
Q

Describe procedure of perimortem c-section

A

Midline vertical incision from pubis symphysis to epigastrium followed by midline vertical incision of uterus

70
Q

What is minimum gestational age for perimortem c-section?

A

Somewhat controversial; most guidelines only if >/= 20 weeks gestation (uterus at level of umbilicus or higher)

71
Q

If patient hypotensive, tachycardic, FAST negative and retroperitoneal hemorrhage suspected, what is the best next step in diagnosis?

A

?CT scan was answer. “Hemodynamically resuscitated and CT obtained”

72
Q

Characteristics of toddler fracture

A
  • Nondisplaced spiral fracture of the tibia
  • Age 9 months and 3 years
  • Mechanism = twisting of leg during a fall as a low-energy fracture
  • Fx can take up to 7 days to appear on radiographs
73
Q

Tx for toddler fracture

A

Immobilization in controlled ankle movement boot and follow-up with orthopedist within a week. If boot unavailable, can be placed in short leg cast
- Preferred over casting as similar outcomes without risks involved with casting such as skin breakdown and longer duration of immobilization

74
Q

In the case of hemothorax, what is an indication for operative management?

A

Chest tube bleeding > 2-3 mL/kg/hr or hypotension unresponsive to transfusion

75
Q

Tx for nasal septal hematoma

A

I&D

  1. Anesthetize with lidocaine-soaked pledgets
  2. Small horizontal incision through hematoma and perichondrium (lateral) and any clots evacuated
  3. Pack hematoma with a gauze wick and bilateral nares should be packed to prevent reaccumulation
76
Q

Complications of nasal septal hematoma

A

Necrosis of septum leading to saddle nose deformity and associated nasal obstruction which would require operative repair

77
Q

What is the “lover’s triad”?

A

Name associated with injuries that may occur after jumping from an upper floor window

  1. Calcaneal fracture
  2. Vertebral compression fracture
  3. Forearm fracture
78
Q

Indications for ophthalmology consult for eyelid laceration

A

Involves:

  • Lid margin
  • Canalicular system
  • Tarsal plate
  • Orbital septum
79
Q

Indications for surgery in traumatic hemothorax

A

More than 20 mL/kg or 1500 mL initial drainage
Persistent bleeding of more than 200mL/hr for 3 hours
Persistent bleeding of 7 mL/kg/hr at any time
Refractory shock
Increasing hemothorax seen on CXR

80
Q

Most commonly fractured facial bones

A
  1. Nasal bone

2. Mandible

81
Q

What type of injury typically causes central cord syndrome?

A

Forced hyperextension

82
Q

What is the most common type of incomplete spinal cord syndrome?

A

Central Cord Syndrome

83
Q

Indications for renal imaging in trauma

A
  • Penetrating trauma (abdomen, flank, lower chest)
  • Blunt abdominal trauma and gross hematuria
  • Blunt abdominal trauma, microhematuria (>5 red blood cells per high-power field), and hemodynamic instability
  • High index of suspicion for injury based on mechanism

In cases of blunt renal injury where the patient is hemodynamically stable and only microscopic hematuria present, patient can be safely observed in ED without further imaging

84
Q

What are complications of basilar skull fractures?

A
  • Cranial nerve palsies 2-3 days after injury

- Bacterial meningitis (rare but increases if leaking CSF for greater than 7 days)

85
Q

What is the first step to perform if a patient deteriorates during trauma evaluation?

A

Repeat primary survey to identify and treat any new problems that may have arisen

86
Q

What is the most common complication of penetrating neck trauma in children?

A

Vascular injury

87
Q

What is the most consistent physical exam finding in patients with compartment syndrome?

A

Loss of two-point discrimination

88
Q

ED management of high-pressure injection injuries (commonly to finger)

A

Urgent hand surgery consultation
Initiation of broad-spectrum abx
Splinting affected extremity

89
Q

What material is associated with highest rate of amputations in high-pressure injection injuries?

A

Paint and paint thinner produce a large early inflammatory response

90
Q

Management of auricular hematoma

A
  • Acute (<48 hrs) and small (<2cm): needle aspiration
  • Large (>2cm) or 48hrs-7days: I&D
  • Pressure dressing (suturing a pledget to both sides of ear using through-and-through sutures or by packing the helix and ear cavity and wrapping the ear and head with compressive wrap) to prevent recurrence of hematoma
  • > 7 days: referral to ENT/plastics
91
Q

What paralytic might be avoided if patient with globe trauma needs intubation?

A

Succinylcholine may increase intraocular pressure

92
Q

Complications from petrous temporal bone fracture

A

Middle ear structures (ossicles, stapedius muscle, semicircular canals, vestibulocochlear nerve)
Internal carotid artery
Facial Nerve Branches
Venous structures

93
Q

Timing of reimplanting completely avulsed teeth

A

Up to 60 minutes, after that soak in citric acid/fluoride and consult oral surgeon