Treatment of Endodontic Disease Flashcards

(211 cards)

1
Q

_____ difference between infiltrations and PSA blocks for maxillary first molars

A

No
Aggarwal

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2
Q

Addition of palatal anesthesia ________ increase anesthetic success rates but does increase ______

A

Does not
Duration
Aggarwal

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3
Q

No difference between ______ and ______ for maxillary teeth

A

Lidocaine and Articaine

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4
Q

For mandibular anteriors and premolars _______ often provide sufficient anesthesia.

A

infiltrations

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5
Q

Mandibular infiltration works as a _______ and ______ nerve block

A

mental and incisive

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6
Q

Single mandibular infiltration has _____ success. Double infiltration has ______ success

A

80-87%
92-94%

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7
Q

No advantage of ______ or _____ techniques over standard IANB

A

Gow-gates or akinosi

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8
Q

_____ fold increase in parasthesias when articaine is used for IANB

A

5

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9
Q

Anesthetic _______ has little-no effect on anesthetic success

A

volume

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10
Q

_______ alone is not predictable enough to serve as primary technique for mandibular posterior anesthesia

A

infiltration

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11
Q

Commonly cited reasons for local anesthetic failure (5)

A

Lower pH of inflamed tissue
unsuccessful techniques
Altered resting potential in inflamed nerves
Upregulation of anesthetic- and tetrodotoxin resistant sodium channels
Patient anxiety

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12
Q

Success rate of standard IANB alone

A

15-57%
Reader

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13
Q

Repeat IAN successful ______

A

32%

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14
Q

Buccal infiltration after failed IANB

A

84%

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15
Q

______ significantly more effective than ______ when used as buccal infiltration

A

articaine than lidocaine

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16
Q

Caution with IO injection when coexisting ______ disease

A

cardiac
(increased heart rate)

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17
Q

Intrapulpal success rate

A

92%

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18
Q

Intrapulpal mechanism

A

pressure

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19
Q

Use of rubber dam is standard of care according to ______

A

AAE 2010

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20
Q

Rubber dam benefits (4)

A

isolation
visualization
aspiration
survival probability enhanced

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21
Q

Microscope is an integral and important part of the performance of modern endodontic techniques.

A

AAE position 2012

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22
Q

Shape and location of access preparation reflects _____

A

pulpal anatomy

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23
Q

______ provides the most consistent landmark for the pulp chamber

A

CEJ

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24
Q

High correlation between working lengths measured by ______ and _______

A

CBCT and electronic apex locators

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25
Conventional vs digital films for working length determination
Conventional more accurate with smaller file sizes
26
Apex locators are ______% accurate Author
96% Shabahang
27
Apex locators accuracy not affected by
presence of solutions
28
Apex locators safe to use with
pacemakers Wilson
29
______ increases irrigant efficiency at the apex
Maintaining patency Vera
30
Negative aspects of maintaining patency (2)
transportation increases apical cracks
31
Crown-down as defined by
Morgan and Montgomery
32
All instrumentation techniques ______ in terms or debris left behind
similar
33
Heat treated NiTi remains in
martensite and R phases (More flexible, better fatigue resistance)
34
______ instruments remain better centered in the root canal system
rotary
35
Minimum MAF of _______ allowed penetration of irrigants to the apex
30.02
36
MAF should be ______ sizes larger than the initial apical size
3
37
2 components of the smear layer
surface of the canal wall debris packed into dentinal tubules
38
Smear layer may block the _______ of NaOCl and CHX
disinfecting properties
39
Instrumentation leaves ______% of canal walls untouched
35%
40
_____ and _____ can not be instrumented
isthmuses and lateral anatomy
41
Properties of an ideal irrigant (5)
Broad antimicrobial effective against anaerobes and facultatives Inactivates LPS Dissolves vital and necrotic tissue Prevents or dissolves smear layer
42
Most common concentration of NaOCl
5.25%
43
NaOCl can only dissolve the ______ component of the smear layer
organic
44
EDTA _____ calcium ions
chelates
45
EDTA dissolves ______ components of the smear layer
both (organic and mineralized)
46
Caution when using both NaOCl and EDTA together to avoid
excessive erosion of root canal dentin
47
CHX binds to dentin and exhibits substantivity for up to _____ days
48
48
Carcinogenic precipitate when mixing NaOCl and CHX
Parachloroaniline
49
Passive ultrasonic irrigation improves cleanliness of both ____ and _____
main canal and isthmuses Gutarts
50
No difference in outcomes between single visit and multi visit tx Author
Penesis
51
pH of CH
between 11 and 12
52
CH reduces the cytotoxic response to LPS by destroying _____
Lipid A moiety
53
CH is less ______ to the apical papilla stem cells compared to ABX pastes
cytotoxic
54
______ or ______ should be used to remove CH from the canals
rotary instrumentation PUI
55
Drawbacks of CH (5)
decreased fracture resistance PDL necrosis tissue necrosis parasthesia inhibits setting of eugenol based sealers
56
GP is a naturally occurring polymer of _____
isoprene
57
Components of GP
65% zinc oxide 20% GP Other -- waxes, resins, metals
58
GP is in ______ form as a cone
beta crystalline
59
GP is in _____ form once heated to 42-49 C
alpha crystalline
60
In regards to GP, Care should be used in patients with
severe type I allergy to latex
61
Lateral condensation ________ faster than vertical condensation
leaks microbes
62
____ difference in outcomes noted between lateral and vertical condensation
No
63
Idea behind resilon
Mono block -- sealer bonds to both dentin and filling. Not supported by research.
64
Carrier-based systems ______ significantly more than lateral or vertical condensation Author
leak Baumgardner
65
Instrumentation and obturation should terminate at the
CDJ
66
Extruded obturation materials have been associated with _______
chronic inflammation
67
_____mm thickness of cavit required for adequate seal
3.5mm
68
Cavit leaks after ______ days
42
69
Cavit and IRM both leak more than
GI
70
Properties of eugenol (3)
alters neurotransmission, increases potassium, decreases sodium blocks neuropeptide transmission decreases vascular response to epi
71
Factors associated with recurrent apical periodontitis (7)
Coronal leakage intraradicular infection extraradicular infection untreated canal anatomy fractures foreign body reaction true cystic lesions
72
____ minutes of ultrasonic vibration is effective in metal post removal
16
73
Care must be taken when using ultrasonics to remove posts due to
Significant heat production capable of causing bony damage
74
Temperature increase of _____ within 15 seconds of ultrasonic without irrigation
10 degrees C
75
_______ is the only solvent capable of completely dissolving GP
chloroform
76
Silver points ____ in the presence of tissue fluid producing highly toxic byproducts
corrode Seltzer
77
______ of silver points is not indicated
Prophylactic revision
78
Two steps to carrier-based system retreatment
1. chloroform to soften surrounding GP 2. Hand files to remove the carrier
79
Surgical endodontic therapy is indicated when
orthograde endodontic treatment is not feasible
80
3 modern advances in surgical endodontics
1. Magnification - Von arx 2. ultrasonic retropreparations - de Lange 3. improved filling materials - Kim
81
With modern techniques, surgical endodontics provides _______ Author
Predictable means of eradicating periapical pathology Tsesis
82
Hemostasis is essential for ____ and _____
visibility minimize blood loss
83
Average of _____ mL of blood is lost during surgery
9.5mL Selim
84
Bone wax is no longer used due to ______
robust inflammatory response
85
Epinephrine acts by interacting with blood vessel ______ receptors, producing ________
alpha vasoconstriction
86
Local anesthestics containing 1:50,000 offer: (4)
1. Reduced blood loss by half 2. reduced surgical time 3. better visibility 4. improved post op hemostasis Buckley
87
Other hemostatic agents (6)
1. racemic epi pellets 2. ferric sulfate (curretage before close) 3. collagen based agents 4. cellulose based agents 5. gelatin based agents 6. calcium sulfate
88
Intrasulcular incision is associated with ______ compared to other incision types
increased post op recession and scarring
89
Submarginal incision requires _____ mm of attached gingiva
2mm
90
Papilla-based incision mitigates the risk of ______
recession
91
______ + ______ creates the soft tissue flap
horizontal incision vertical incision
92
1 vertical releasing incision produces a ____ flap while two produces a _____ flap
triangular rectangular/trapezoidal
93
Length to width ratio of _____ is recommended for rectangular flaps
2:1
94
_______ osteotomy preparations are associated with more favorable outcomes
smaller
95
_____mm of apical resection will remove the majority of apical deltas
3mm Block
96
_____mm of apical resection of MB roots of maxillary first molars may be necessary due to isthmuses
4mm Weller
97
Bevels are associated with _____
leakage
98
Methylene blue uses: (4)
1. outlines root anatomy 2. delineates dentin from bone 3. stains isthmuses 4. stains fractures
99
_____mm of retropreparation is recommended Author
3mm Matisson
100
Bur retropreparations are covered in _______
smear layer
101
Amalgam retrofillings are associated with more ________ (4)
leakage - Torabinejad poor biocompatability and inflammation - Baek poorer outcomes - Setzer
102
Super EBA outcomes are ______ compared to MTA
as favorable Kim
103
Upon setting, MTA forms ____ and ______
Calcium silicate hydrate calcium hydroxide Camilleri
104
MTA provides a ______ apical seal even in the presence of ______
better blood Torabinejad
105
MTA promotes _____ and ______ coverage
cementum and bone
106
Bioactive cements are composed of _____ and ______
calcium silicate calcium phosphate
107
Bioactive cements are similar to MTA in terms of ______
in vitro and in vivo biocompatibility Damas, Ma
108
Bioactive cements create a ________ To dentin, providing an ________
mechanical bond excellent seal Damas
109
Retropreparation following root-end resection may be unnecessary for ____ and _____
MTA apical plugs -- Andelin Well-condensed GP -- Harrison and Todd
110
Sutures promote healing by ______ Author
primary intention Harrison
111
______ sutures are recommended
monofilament synthetic
112
Benefits of monofilament synthetic sutures (3)
1. Less traumatic 2. Discourage inflammation 3. promote less bacterial adhesion
113
_____ suture gauges are recommended to avoid tissue necrosis and scarring
Smaller (6-0 and 8-0)
114
Sutures should be removed _______ hours post-op
48-96 Velvart
115
3 categories of grafts
osteogenic osteoconductive osteoinductive
116
Osteogenic grafts
contain cells capable of producing bony matrix
117
Osteoinductive grafts
release mediators that signal the host to induce new bone formation
118
Osteoconductive grafts
serve as scaffolds on which new bone can grow
119
Graft categories by source (4)
Autogenous grafts Allografts Xenografts Alloplasts
120
Autografts derived from
host
121
Allografts derived from
non-host member of same species
122
Xenografts derived from
different species from host
123
Alloplasts are
Inert materials that serve as scaffolds (not derived from biologic donors)
124
Concomitant use of a bone graft and a membrane consititutes
guided tissue regeneration
125
For apical surgery with loss of only one cortical plate, use of membranes offer ______, but may improve outcomes for ______ and _____
no advantage -- Garrett through-and-through lesions -- Lin Large periapical defects -- Tsesis
126
_____ membranes are favored over _____ membranes
resorbable nonresorbable
127
Post-op pain is correlated with ______
pre-op pain -- Tsesis
128
Avoid post-op CHX rinses for _____ hours as it may negatively affect ______
48 hours tensile wound strength
129
Sinus perforations tend to _______ regardless of size
self-repair
130
Managing sinus perforations (3)
Primary closure Sinus precautions Rx decongestant
131
Aid in avoiding IAN during surgery
pre-op CBCT -- Kovisto
132
Sensory disturbance of the lower lip occurs in _____% of mn molar surgeries
20%
133
____% of patients retain permanent deficit following mn molar surgery
1%
134
Stages of healing progression (5)
Clotting and inflammation epithelial healing connective tissue healing maturation remodeling
135
Day 1 of healing
Thin epithelial seal Blood clot PMNs predominate Periosteal necrosis
136
Day 2 of healing
Multi-layered epithelial seal Type III collagen production Macrophages predominate
137
Day 4 of healing
Clot replaced by granulation tissue Type 1 collagen production Osteocyte proliferation from the endosteum
138
Day 14 of healing
Normal sulcular epithelium Woven bony trabeculae occupy the wound New periosteum evident
139
Day 28 of healing
Maturing bony trabeculae occupy the wound
140
Tx recommendations for intentional replantation (5)
Atraumatic extraction minimal handling of root surface extra-oral time of less than 10 minutes biocompatible apical fill nonrigid post-op splint
141
Success rate of intentional replantation
81%
142
Ideal donor tooth for autotransplantation has a ______ root with an ______
partially developed root with an open apex
143
Maintaining pulp vitality in permanent teeth with open apices is called _______
apexogenesis
144
Pulp caps should be placed _______ for the best prognosis
immediately -- Bergenholtz
145
Histologic response to pulp capping is _____ followed by ______
coagulative necrosis hard tissue bridging
146
______ may become useful in vital pulp therapy (cholesterol medication)
Simvastatin
147
Removal of the coronal portion of a vital pulp to preserve the vitality of the radicular pulp
Pulpotomy
148
Indications for pulpotomy (2)
1. continued root development in immature permanent teeth 2. Emergency care in mature teeth until definitive care can be completed
149
______ enters systemic circulation following formocresol pulpotomies
Formaldehyde Pashley
150
______ and ______ are unsafe and ineffective, their use is unjustifiable.
Formaldehyde paraformaldehyde AAE
151
Restorative material options for pulptomy (3)
CH -- Cvek MTA -- Bakland Platelet-rich fibrin -- Keswani
152
Treatment aimed at apical barrier creation
Apexification
153
Apical barriers typically form in an average of _______
1 year
154
CH can be changed every _____ during apexification
3, 6, 8 months, or never
155
Long-term CH apexification has been associated with increased risk of _______
cervical root fracture Cvek
156
MTA apexifications outcomes are _____ or ______ compared to CH
equivalent or better
157
MTA apexifications mitigate_____ and _____
decreased fracture resistance from CH treatment time/follow-up
158
Biologically based procedures designed to physiologically replace damaged tooth structures as well as cells of the pulp-dentin complex
Regenerative endodontics
159
Etiology of pulp necrosis is ______ when considering regendo
unimportant Law
160
Regenerative endodontics may provide a reasonable alternative to ______
Apexification
161
Requirements for tissue engineering (3)
Stem cells growth factors scaffold
162
Mesenchymal stem cells that infiltrate the canal space for regendo originate in the ______ Author
Apical papilla Lovelace
163
Hargreaves recommends _____ and _____ for regendo
minimal instrumentation gentle irrigation
164
Regendo recommended irrigation protocol (Martin)
1.5% NaOCl followed by 17% EDTA
165
Benefit of EDTA in regendo
Release of growth factors from dentin
166
An intracanal medicament should be placed for _______ weeks following instrumentation and disinfection during regendo.
2-4 weeks Law
167
Use of antibiotic pastes during regendo is problematic due to _____
negative effect on stem cell viability Ruparel
168
______ does not reduce stem cell viability
CH
169
Introduction of stem cells, growth factors, and scaffolds into the canal space is achieved by _______
Overinstrumentation in to the apical papilla to stimulate bleeding
170
Capping material of choice for regendo is
MTA
171
MTA facilitates ______ when used in regendo
migration and proliferation of apical papilla stem cells Mente
172
______ serves as the scaffold during regendo Author
blood clot Hargreaves
173
2 aims of successful regendo
elimination of apical periodontitis increase in root length and width
174
Tissue formed from regendo resembles
cementum, PDL, and bone Wang
175
_____ has been associated with increased risk of resorption following internal bleaching.
Superoxol Madison and Walton
176
Non-surgical patients should have at least ______ post-op exam and use _____ to assess healing
1 year, PAI score Orstavik
177
_______ % of lesions take more than 1 year to heal Author
70% Murphy
178
______% of unhealed lesions at 1 year will improve over time while _____% will worsen
57% improved 31% worsened Yu
179
Predictors for worsening of unhealed lesions (4)
size symptoms (pain on biting at recall) history of post-obturation flare non ideal length
180
Surgical patients should be examined _____ post-op
1 year Rud
181
For surgeries that have healed at early exam periods, periapical status remains _____ for several years
stable Kim
182
Oral fluids may reach the apex in as little as _____ with exposure to the oral environment
3 days -- Swanson and Madison 3 weeks -- Torabinejad
183
Access opening reduces tooth stiffness by _____%
5%
184
Tooth stiffness reduced by ______% when preparation involves both marginal ridges
60%
185
Significant _____ in failures in temporarily vs permanently restored teeth
reduction Chugal
186
_________ significantly improves outcomes of mn and mx premolars and molars
full coronal coverage Sorensen and Martinoff
187
Full coronal coverage does not impact outcomes for _____
anterior teeth
188
Full coverage restorations must respect principals of _____ and ______
biologic width ferrule
189
Biologic width should total ______
3mm Gargiulo
190
Biologic width consists of ______
sulcus depth epithelial attachment connective tissue attachment
191
Ferrule consists of
1.5-2mm of circumferential vertical wall
192
Proper ferrule decreases ______ and provides _____ and _____
fracture rate of endo treated teeth retention and resistance
193
Proper length of posts
Greater of the length of the crown or 2/3 the root length
194
Posts do not improve ______ or _______
strength longterm outcomes
195
Posts may actually _______ Author
decrease success rates of endo treated teeth Doyle 2007
196
_____mm of apical GP should remain following post space preparation
5-7mm Mattison
197
Absolute failure rate of both RCT and implants
6.1% Doyle
198
______% of patients with cracked teeth had symptoms eliminated with placement of a temporary crown.
89% Guthrie
199
_____% of crowned cracked teeth end up needing RCT
21% Krell
200
Ethical obligations often _____ legal duties
exceed
201
5 principals of ADA code of ethics
Patient autonomy Beneficience Veracity Justice Nonmaleficence
202
Patients' right to self governance
Patient autonomy
203
Do no harm
Nonmaleficence
204
Do good
Beneficence
205
Fairness
Justice
206
Truthfulness
Veracity
207
1 Cartridge of 2% LA is _____mg of anesthetic.
36mg
208
1 cartridge of LA is _____mL
1.8 mL
209
1 cartridge of LA with 1:100k epi contains _____ mg of epi
0.018 mg
210
Max dose of epi is _____ mg which is ______ cartridges of 1:100k epi
0.2 mg of epi 11 cartridges
211
Max dose of anesthetic is _____ mg which is _____ cartridges of 2%
300 mg 8.3 carps