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Flashcards in Tricky SOB's II Deck (35):
1

The Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is characterized and most often caused by what?

Characterized by right upper quadrant pain also referred to as perihepatitis. Most of these are due to chlamydial infection.

2

Esterase nitrate is a screening tool for what?

Screens for pyuria in urine which means a lack of less than 10 wbc per cubic millilimeter of urine. 90% of UTIs are identified as polyuria.

3

What is the number one causitive agent of urinary tract infections?

Escherichia coli followed closely by staphylcoccus saprophyticus.

4

Enterobacteriaceae are known to ferment ... reduce ...

Ferment glucose with a reduction in nitrate.

5

Are enterobactericae oxidase negative or positive?
Catalase?

Oxidase negative
Catalase positive.

6

Enterobactericeae K and H antigens are responsible for what?

These are virulence factors and are consistently alterated to protect themselves from host antibodies.

7

E. coli contain a virulence factor known as hemolysin (HlyA). This factor does what?

This factor lyses eryhrocytes and other cell types leading to induction of an inflammatory respons.

Also have adhesins (p pili) and endotoxin.

8

Type 1 pilli expressed by E. coli perform what function?

where do p. pilli bind?

Bind to mannose residues.
Think Type 1 = mannose
The number one MANnose.

P. pilli specifically bind to sugar residues found on uroepithelial cells.

9

Which microbe is most commonly found to be the cause of cystitis in sexually active young women?

Staphylococci saprophyticus.

10

Proteus s most noticibly know to produce what specific odor and uses what unqiue enzyme?

Produces ureas and an unusual fishy odor.

11

What is Proteus treated with

TMP-SMX works excellently against proteus.

12

In patients with very long periods of time with indwelling catheders and being treated with multiple treatments of antibiotics you would suspect what bacterium?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

13

Which types of bacteria are considered type D strep?]

What distinguishes it from other Strep?

Enterococcus species.
Gram + with a group D carbohydrate
Extremely tolerant to high salt and bile content without being sensitive to optochin.

14

If a patient has had prolonged hospitalization and has been treated with a broad selection of antibacterials what would you suspect them to be infected with?

Enterococcus species as these guys are extremely resistant.

15

Breakbone fever is most commonly related to what pathogen?

Dengue fever!

16

Dengue hemorrhagic fever presents in what manner?

After the degue fever subsides the pt then becomes restless or lethargic and the pt begins to show circulatory failure, skin hemorrhages, bleeding gums etx.

17

Toxic phase Yellow fever is distinguished by what?

Toxic phase occurs within 24 hours of acute phase yellow fever and causes the patient to rapidly develop jaundice.

18

Of the viruses spread by mosquitos, which has a vaccine available?

Yellow fever has a vaccine available that provides immunity within the week and provides protection for up to a year.

19

What virus is known to cause "Dengue-Like fever"

Zika virus!

20

what are the complications of Zika virus?

Microcephally, guillain Barre syndrome, sexaual transmission.

21

Hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS) is caused by what viral infection?

Caused by Hantavirus, a virus spread through dead mice/ excrement from rodents mostly in asia and parts of europe.

22

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is caused by what virus?

Hantavirus - Sin Nombre.

23

An illness characterized as febrile illness that develops into an acute pulmonary edema stimulating acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) refers to what virus?

Hantavirus!

24

What vrus infects and replicates within erythroid precursor cells?

Colorado Tick fever virus which can be found within red blood cells or in the progenitor cells resuting in leukopenia and thrombocytopnia.
Leukopeia is considered the hallmark of this disease!

25

What is the treatment for Bacillus anthracis?

Amoxicillin for topical
Doxycycline and fluoroquinone for inhilation/ digestion with 2 additional antibiotics.

26

What is the hallmark feature of brucella infections?

An alternating fever that begins at night and goes down in the morning specifically around cows pigs or sheep.

27

What is Brucella treated with?

6 week course of tetracycline (doxycycline) and rifampin.

28

Cellulitis and lymphadenopathy within 12-24 hours of a dog or cat bite is indicitive of what sort of infection?

Pasteurella mutocida.

29

A person swimming in the tropics who ends up with influenzae like sickness slowly leading into jaundice, meningitis, or renal failure most likely contracted what?

Leptospirosis interrogans.

30

What can leotispira interrogans be treated with

Penicillin.

31

What is the well known vector for Francisella?

Hard shelled ticks found within rabbits!
Typically seen in the summer during tick season or winter during small game season.

32

Pt comes in after being bit with tick, says within 48 hours had red painful papule at bite. Pt also has regional lymphnnode swelling full of pus that ulcerate. What is the Dx and the Perscription?

Francisella tularensis

Treatment: Gentamicin

33

Histological geimsa stains reveal a rod with bipolar staining appearing safety pin like. What is the Dx?

Yersinia pestis.

34

The three plasmids Yersinia carries code for what specifcially?

Biofilm to resist phagocytosis
Enhanced resistance to macrophage killing
Resistance to complement mediated lyses.

35

What is the treatment for bubonic plague?

Streptomycin or gentamicin / fluoroquinones.