Trouble Areas Flashcards

1
Q
Name the typical appearance of:
Histoplasmosis
Blastomycosis
Coccidioidiomycosis
Paracoccidioidomycosis.
A

Histo: Ovoid cells within macrophages; Blasto: broad based budding (RBC size); Coccidio: spherule filled with endosomes; Paracrypto: budding yeast w/ captain’s wheel formation (larger than RBC)

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2
Q
What are the Neural Crest Cell derivatives in the:
Nervous synstem
Bones/skin
Endocrine system
Heart
A

Nervous: Pia, Arachnoid, PNS (dorsal root ganglia, cranial nerves, autonomic ganglia, Schwann cells)

Bones/Skin: Skull bones, Odontoblasts, Melanocytes

Endocrine: Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla, Parafollicular cells of thyroid (C cells)

Heart: Endocardial cushion, Aorticopulmonary septum

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3
Q

Name the deficient enzyme/accum. substrate/inheritance pattern in:
Fabry disease

A

F: Alpha-galactosidase–>ceramide trihexoside (XR)

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4
Q

Name the deficient enzyme/accum. substrate/inheritance pattern in:
Gaucher disease

A

G: Glucocerebrosidase –> glucocerebroside (AR)

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5
Q

Name the deficient enzyme/accum. substrate/inheritance pattern in:
Niemann-Pich disease

A

NP: Sphingomyelinase –> sphingomyelin (AR)

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6
Q

Name the deficient enzyme/accum. substrate/inheritance pattern in:
Tay-Sachs disease

A

TS: Hexosaminidase A –> GM2 ganglioside (AR)

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7
Q

Name the deficient enzyme/accum. substrate/inheritance pattern in:
Krabbe disease

A

K: Galactocerebrosidase –>galactocerebroside, psychosine (AR)

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8
Q

Name the deficient enzyme/accum. substrate/inheritance pattern in:
Metachromatic Leukodystrophy

A

ML: Arylsulfatase A –> cerebroside sulfate (sulfatides) (AR)

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9
Q

Name the deficient enzyme/accum. substrate/inheritance pattern in:
Hurler syndrome

A

Hurl: Alpha-L-iduronidase –> heparan sulfate, dermatan sulfate (AR)

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10
Q

Name the deficient enzyme/accum. substrate/inheritance pattern in:
Hunter syndrome

A

Hunt: Iduronate sulfatase –> heparan sulfate, dermatan sulfate (XR)

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11
Q

How many oncogenes must be mutated to cause cancer? (Dominant/recessive?) When an oncogene is mutated, does the cell gain or lose fxn? How does this affect cancer risk? Does overexpression or underexpression lead to cancer?

A

Only 1 must be lost (dominant mutation) to cause a gain of fxn mutation that increases cancer risk.
Bottomline: A mutation of an oncogene results in increased activity of the gene (overexpression) that leads to too much protein/product that enhances growth, resulting in neoplasia.

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12
Q

How many tumor suppressor genes must be lost to cause cancer? When a tumor suppressor gene is mutated, does the cell gain or lose fxn? How does this affect cancer risk? Does overexpression or underexpression lead to cancer?

A

2 tumor suppressor genes must be lost (recessive mutation) to cause loss of fxn mutation that increases cancer risk.
Bottomline: A mutation of a tumor suppressor gene results in decreased activity of the gene (underexpression) that leads to a deficiency in protein/product that inhibits growth, resulting in neoplasia.

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13
Q

Gene: ALK
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; receptor tyrosine kinase; lung adenocarcinoma

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14
Q

Gene: BCR-ABL
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; tyrosine kinase; CML, ALL

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15
Q

Gene: BCL-2
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; antiapoptotic molecule; follicular and diffuse large B cell lymphoma

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16
Q

Gene: BRAF
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; serine/threonine kinase; melanoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma

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17
Q

Gene: c-KIT
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; cytokine receptor; gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)

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18
Q

Gene: c-MYC
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; transcription factor; Burkitt lymphoma

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19
Q

Gene: HER2/neu (c-erbB2)
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; tyrosine kinase; breast and gastric carcinomas

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20
Q

Gene: JAK2
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; tyrosine kinase; chronic myeloproliferative disorders

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21
Q

Gene: KRAS
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; GTPase; colon, lung, pancreatic cancer

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22
Q

Gene: MYCL1
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; transcription factor; Lung tumor (notice L in MYCL1)

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23
Q

Gene: MYCN
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; transcription factor; Neuroblastoma (notice N in MYCN)

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24
Q

Gene: RET
Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor?
What is its gene product?
What is the associated neoplasm?

A

Oncogene; tyrosine kinase; MEN 2A and 2B, medullary thyroid cancer

25
Gene: BRCA1/BRCA2 Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; DNA repair protein; Breast and ovarian cancer
26
Gene: CDKN2A Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; p16 (blocks G1-->S phase); Melanoma, pancreatic cancer
27
Gene: DCC Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; DCC (deleted in colon cancer); Colon cancer
28
Gene: DPC4/SMAD4 Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; DPC (deleted in pancreatic cancer); pancreatic cancer
29
Gene: MEN1 Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; Menin; MEN1 (11q) (pituitary tumor, pancreatic endocrine tumor [Zollinger ellison, insulinoma, VIPoma, glucagonoma], parathyroid adenomas) - aka Werner syndrome
30
Gene: NF1 Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; Ras GTPase activating protein (neurofibromin); Neurofibromatosis type 1
31
Gene: NF2 Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; Merlin (schwannomin) protein; Neurofibromatosis type 2
32
Gene: PTEN Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; no gene product; Breast cancer, prostate cancer, endometrial cancer
33
Gene: Rb Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its fxn? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; Inhibits E2F - blocks G1 --> S phase; Retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma
34
Gene: TP53 Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; p53: activates p21 -->blocks G1 --> S phase
35
Gene: TSC1 Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; Hamartin protein; Tuberous sclerosis
36
Gene: TSC2 Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; Tuberin protein; Tuberous sclerosis
37
Gene: VHL Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; Inhibits hypoxia inducible factor 1a; von Hippel-Lindau disease, renal cell carcinoma
38
Gene: WT1/WT2 Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; no gene product; Wilms Tumor (nephroblastoma)
39
Gene: APC Is it an oncogene/tumor suppressor? What is its gene product? What is the associated neoplasm/condition?
Tumor suppressor; no gene product; Colorectal cancer (associated w/ FAP)
40
Which G-protein linked 2nd messengers are Gq, Gs, and Gi linked? Describe how each fxns.
Gq: Cutesies (QCs) HAVe 1 M&M; H1, alpha 1, V1, M1, M3 Gq stims. PLC, PLC cleaves lipids to PIP3, PIP3 cleaved to DAG and IP3, DAG activates PKC, IP3 increases calcium Gs: B1 - 3, D1, H2, V2 Gs upregs adenylyl cyclase, makes cAMP from ATP, cAMP activates PKA, PKA elevates calcium (heart) and inhibits MLCK (SM) Gi: MAD 2's: M2, alpha 2, D2 Gi inhibits adenylyl cyclase
41
OD Rx: Amphetamines (basic)
NH4Cl (ammonium chloride - acidify urine)
42
OD Rx: Antimuscarinic/anticholinergics
Phsostigmine, control hyperthermia
43
OD Rx: Arsenic
Dimercaperol, succimer (dimercaprolsuccinic acid)
44
OD Rx: ß-blockers
Saline, atropine, glucagon
45
OD Rx: Copper (also Wilson's disease)
Penicillamine (chelating agent), trientine (copper chalating agent for chronic hepatopathies like Wilson's)
46
OD Rx: Cyanide
Nitrate + thiosulfate (infusion of sodium nitrite produces cyanmetHb, followed by infusion of thiosulfate to produce thiocyanate, which is excreted.), hydroxycobalamin
47
OD Rx: Gold (myochrisine)
Penicillinamine, dimercaprol (BAL), succimer
48
OD Rx: Heparin
Protamine sulfate (binds heparin ionically)
49
OD Rx: Iron
Deferoxamine, deferasirox, deferiprone
50
OD Rx: Lead
EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine
51
OD Rx: Mercury
Dimercaprol, succimer
52
OD Rx: Methanol, ethylene glycol
Fomeprizole > ethanol, dialysis
53
OD Rx: Methemoglobin
Methylene blue, vitamin C
54
OD Rx: Salicylates
NaHCO3 (alkalinize urine), dialysis
55
OD Rx: TCAs
NaHCO3 (sodium replacement)
56
OD Rx: Warfarin
Fresh frozen plasma (immediately), Vitamin K (delayed effect)
57
Drugs that cause agranulocytosis
CCPMCG - Can Cause Pretty Major Collapse of Granulocytes | Clozapine, Carbamazepine, Propylthiouracil, Methimazole, Colchicine, Ganciclovir
58
Drugs causing aplastic anemia
CMNBCP - Can't Make New Blood Cells Properly | Carbamazepine, Methimazole, NSAIDs, Benzene, Chloramphenicol, Propylthiouracil