Tuberculosis Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

describe mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

aerobic and anaerobic
extra and intracellular
multidrug resistance
slow growing, latent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe the pathophysiology of Tb

A

very communicable spreads easily
aerosolized droplets
enter the bronchials then alveoli and settle in lower lobe
first line macrophage immunity followed by t cell over 2-8wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

risk factors for exposure

A
close contacts 
endemic areas - northern ca 
poor living conditions, crowded, correctional facilities 
health care workers 
homelessness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

results of tests in latent TB

A

negative xray, sputum stain and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

symptoms of latent TB

A

asymptomatic
spreads to regional lymph nodes
latent or dormant in seeded foci (ghon node) for months - years
NOT CONTAGIOUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does tst test work

A

heat sterilized protein derivative

delayed hypersensitivty response delayed 48-72hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what can cause false negatives

A
cutaneous anergy (absence of an IR to an antigen) 
preconversion 
neonate
elderly 
HIV
chemo 
lymphoma 
corticosteroids 
** use positive control mumps or candida
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

tst does not distinguish latent from what

A

active TB
BCG vaccination
other mycobacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

interferon gamma assay

A

blood test measures t cell release of interferon gamma

does not distinguish from active disease but most specific with patients vaccinated with BCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TST result <4mm indicates

A

negtive result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TST result >/=5

A
positive in certain people 
HIV 
exposure in past 2 years 
fibronodular disease on chest xray 
ESRD 
therapy with immunosuppressants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TST result >10

A

TST conversion within 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when should you treat latent TB how effective is it

A

90% effective
only if exposure to infectious TB wihtin the previous 2 years
assess risk vs benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

standard latent TB therapy

A

isonazid daily for 9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

alternative latent tb therapy

A

isonazid 6 months
isonazide/rifampin 3mon
rifampin 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when does primary tb occur

A

early within 4-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

risk factors for primary tb

A

age

immune function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

disseminated primary including cns tb most common in who

A

young and immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

most common place for primary tb

A

lymph node or pleural disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when does reactivation tb occur

A

18-24 months after infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is most common for reactivation tb

A

pneumonia - upper lobe pulmonary

extra pulmonary in immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

high risk factors for active tb

A
silicosis 
HIV AIDS 
chronic renal disease 
head and neck carcinoma 
recent TB infection 
abnormal chest xray-fibronodular disease 
immunosuppresive therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

moderate risk factors for active tb

A

diabetes
glucocorticoids
TNFalpha
0-4 years old when infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

diagnosis for active pulmonary tb

A

signs and symptoms
radiograph
microbiology testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
clinical signs and symptoms
dry then productive cough >2weeks fever, night sweats anorexia, weight loss hemoptysis, chest pain
26
microbial testing for active disease
acid fast bacilli smear stain - rapid inexpensive mycobaterial culture/susceptibility - gold standard, 2-8wks molecular diagnositics - pcr and susceptibility
27
radiograph for active disease
apical and upper lobe patchy infiltrates | volume loss and cavitation
28
goals of treatment for active tb
eradicate the bug to cure the disease, prevent complications, and reduce mortality prevent AM resistance prevent transmission
29
how often do you follow up sputum samples
monthly until to consecutive negatives
30
how long is someone with active tb in isolation
initial 2 weeks and until 3 consecutive negative results
31
principles of active tb AM
combo therapy adherance important both to optimize killing and decrease resistance
32
standard regimen 1 for active tb
isonazid, rif, ethambutol, pyranzinimide for 2 months | then inh and rif for 4 months
33
regimen 2 for active tb
inh, rif, emb for 2 months | then inh and rif for 7 months
34
what regimen should elderly use for active tb
regimen 2, higher hepatooxicity in the older people
35
what regimen should pregnant women use for active tb
either one
36
what is direct observed therapy
initial 2 months instead of daily 5x a week and then for the continuation 3x a week at higher doses
37
why is ethambutol added
in case there is resistance to the other agents can discontinue once results come back that its senstive to the others
38
risk factors for ressitance
high local resistance rates previous tb infection exposure to resistant tb
39
isonazid dose
5mg/kg max 300
40
rifampin dose
10mg/kg max 600
41
pyranzinamide dosing
20-25mg/kg
42
ethambutol dosing
15-20mg/kg
43
second line drugs for active tb
levofloxicin, moxi | ampikacin
44
ampikacin dosing
15mg/kg injection
45
which drugs have to be changed in hemodialysis
pyranzinimide 25- 35 3x a week | ethambutol 15-25 3x a week
46
which are cidal
rif, inh, pyr
47
which are static
emb
48
which are extracellular
inh, rif
49
which are intracellular
pyr, emb, rif
50
inh adverse effects
hypersensitivity hepatotoxicity NV peripheral neuropathy
51
what can you do to prevent peripheral neuropathy
give vit B6
52
what drug should be avoided when on therapy
tylenol - affects liver
53
what increases the incidence of hepatotoxicity
``` age >35 female pre existing liver disease other hepatotoxic drugs alcohol use ```
54
when should you monitor for hepatotoxicity
baseline then in 2 weeks then monthly
55
inh drug interactions
inhibits cyp 2C9 and 3A4 | antacids reduce absorption
56
rifampin adverse effects
hypersensitivity hepatotoxicity orange discoloration of saliva urine and tears
57
rifampin drug interactions
inducer of 3A4 and pgp | max in 7 days and returns to baseline in 14
58
pyranzinamide adverse effects
hepatotoxicity hypersensitivity hyperuricemia - gout if preexisting, arthralgias
59
ethambutol adverse effects
ocular neritis - eye exams indicated, dose dependent (high dose long time) CNS, peripheral neuritis hypersensitivity - rash, fever, dermatitis
60
what to do if the patient gets a drug induced rash
stop all drugs and start second line agent review other potential causes once rash resolves start inh in 3 days start rif (can take off second line here) in 3 days start emb if no rash assume it was pyr if rash occurs with any step then discontinue and restart all the others, adjust regimen based on those continues
61
what to do if patient experiences drug induced hepatotoxicity AST or ALT >5x ULN or clinical jaundice
discontiue all meds and start second line agent check for other causes , cehck viral hep serologies when levels normal start rif after 2 weeks start inh if normal transaminases after 2 weeks assume pyr and do not rechallenge if hepatitis occurs with any then discontinue and restart the others adjust treatment based on remaining