TUMOR MARKER Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

AFP

A

hepatic and testicular cancer

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2
Q

ALP (placental-ALP)

A

lung cancer

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3
Q

Amylase

A

Pancreatic cancer

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4
Q

BRCA-1

A

Breast or Ovarian cancer

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5
Q

CA-125

A

Ovarian cancer (recurrence and treatment

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6
Q

CA 15-3

A

Breast cancer (treatment and recurrence)

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7
Q

CA- 19.9

A

Gastric, pancreatic and colorectal cancer

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8
Q

CA-50

A

Gastric and pancreatic cancer (recurrence and treatment)

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9
Q

CA 27-29

A

Breast Cancer (treatment an recurrence)

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10
Q

Calcitonin

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

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11
Q

Cathepsin-D

A

Breast Cancer

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12
Q

CEA

A

Breast, lungs, colorectal and stomach cancer (recurrence and treatment)

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13
Q

CK-1

A

Small cell lung cancer; prostate cancer

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14
Q

Estrogen Receptor (ER)

A

Breast Cancer

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15
Q

GGT

A

Hepatoma

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16
Q

HER-2/neu

A

Breast cancer (efficiency of trastuzumab or herceptin therapy

17
Q

Nuclear Matrix protein (NMP)

A

Urinary bladder cancer

18
Q

detection for gestational trophoblastic disease

19
Q
  1. Which of the following tumor markers is classified
    as a tumor suppressor gene?
    A. BRCA-1
    B. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
    C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
    D. Nuclear matrix protein
20
Q

. In general, in which of the following situations is
the analysis of a tumor marker most useful?
A. Testing for recurrence
B. Prognosis
C. Screening
D. Diagnosis

21
Q

Which of the following enzymes is increased in
persons with prostate and small-cell lung cancer?
A. Creatine kinase-1 (CK-1)
B. Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT)
C. Amylase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase

22
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best analyte to
    monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer?
    A. CA-15-3
    B. CA-19-9
    C. CA-125
    D. CEA
23
Q

. Which tumor marker is associated with cancer of
the urinary bladder?
A. CA-19-9
B. CA-72-4
C. Nuclear matrix protein
D. Cathepsin-D

24
Q

A person presents with a cushingoid appearance
and an elevated 24-hour urinary cortisol level. The
plasma adrenocotropic hormone (ACTH) is very
elevated, and the physician suspects the cause is
ectopic ACTH production. Which test would be
most useful in substantiating this diagnosis?
A. Plasma cortisol
B. CA-50
C. Alkaline phosphatase isoenzymes
D. AFP

25
Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease? A. Cathepsin-D B. CA-15-3 C. Retinoblastoma gene D. Estrogen receptor (ER)
B
26
Which of the following statements regarding the Philadelphia chromosome is true? A. It is seen exclusively in chronic myelogenous leukemia B. It results from a translocation C. It appears as a short-arm deletion of chromosome 21 D. It is associated with a poor prognosis
B
27
What is the primary clinical utility of measuring CEA? A. Diagnosis of liver cancer B. Diagnosis of colorectal cancer C. Screening for cancers of endodermal origin D. Monitoring for recurrence of cancer
D
28
Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of trastuzumab (Herceptin) therapy for breast cancer? A. PR B. CEA C. HER-2/neu D. Myc
C
29
1. A person is suspected of having testicular cancer. Which type of hCG test would be most useful? A. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG only B. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG and the β-hCG subunit C. Plasma immunoassay for the free alpha and β-hCG subunits D. Urine assay for hCG β core
B
30
. A patient treated for a germ cell tumor has a total and free β-hCG assay performed prior to surgery. The result is 40,000 mIU/mL. One week following surgery, the hCG is 5,000 mIU/mL. Chemotherapy is started, and the hCG is measured 1 week later and found to be 10,000 mIU/mL. What does this indicate? A. Recurrence of the tumor B. Falsely increased hCG owing to drug interference with the assay C. Analytical error with the test reported as 5,000 mIU/mL D. Transient hCG increase caused by chemotherapy
D
31
Which set of results for ER and PR is associated with the highest likelihood of a favorable response to treatment with estrogen-suppression therapy (tamoxifen)? A. ER positive, PR positive B. ER positive, PR negative C. ER negative, PR positive D. ER negative, PR negative
A
32
Which type of cancer is associated with the highest level of AFP? A. Hepatoma B. Ovarian cancer C. Testicular cancer D. Breast cancer
A
33
Which of the following assays is recommended as a screening test for colorectal cancer in persons over 50 years old? A. CEA B. AFP C. Occult blood D. Fecal trypsin
C
34
. Which of the following assays is used to determine the risk of developing cancer? A. Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGF-R) B. Squamous cell carcinoma antigen (SCC) C. c-erb B-2 gene expression D. p53 gene mutation
D
35
A person has an elevated 24-hour urinary homovanillic acid (HVA) and vanillymandelic acid (VMA). Urinary metanephrines, chromogranin A, and neuron-specific enolase are also elevated but 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid is within the reference range. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Carcinoid tumors of the intestine B. Pheochromocytoma C. Neuroblastoma D. Pancreatic cancer
C
36
In which of the following conditions is PSA least likely to be increased? A. Precancerous lesions of the prostate B. Postprostate biopsy C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy D. Post–digital rectal examination
D
37
Which of the following statements regarding PSA is true? A. Complexed PSA in plasma is normally less than free PSA B. Free PSA below 25% is associated with malignant disease C. A total PSA below 4 ng/mL rules out malignant disease D. A total PSA above 10 ng/mL is diagnostic of malignant disease
B
38
A 55-year-old male with early stage prostate cancer diagnosed by biopsy had his prostate gland removed (simple prostatectomy). His PSA prior to surgery was 10.0 ng/mL. If the surgery was successful in completely removing the tumor cells, what would the PSA result be 1 month after surgery? A. Undetectable B. 1–3 ng/mL C. Less than 4 ng/mL D. Less than 10 ng/mL
A