Unit 2 Flashcards
(661 cards)
1
Q
What are the functions of the integumentary system?
A
Protection, Immunologic, Homeostasis, Sensory, Endocrine, Exocrine
2
Q
What are the main components of the integumentary system?
A
Skin, Epidermal Derivatives (hair follicles and hair, nails, sweat (sudoriferous) glands, sebaceous (oil) glands)
3
Q
How many layers is the skin and what are they?
A
2; epidermis and dermis
4
Q
What are the characteristics of the epidermis?
A
top layer, avascular, keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, derived from ectoderm
5
Q
What are the characteristics of the dermis?
A
Deep layer, vascularized, connective tissue, derived from mesoderm, 2 separate layers
6
Q
What lies deep to the skin?
A
Subcutaneous Layer
7
Q
What is the subcutaneous layer made of?
A
adipose tissue and vasculature
8
Q
Where is thick skin found?
A
Palms of the hands and soles of the feet
9
Q
What makes up thick skin/epidermis?
A
it is just a much thicker epidermal layer; it is also hairless
10
Q
Where do you find thin skin/epidermis?
A
everywhere except the palms of the hands and soles of the feet (has hair follicles)
11
Q
What area of the body is skin the thickest?
A
the upper back
12
Q
What are the layers of skin from superficial to deep?
A
Stratum corneum –>Stratum lucidum–>Stratum granulosum–>Stratum spinosum–>Stratum basale
(thin skin does not have a stratum lucidum)
13
Q
What is the mnemonic for the layers of the skin?
A
Bad Sprinters Get Leg Cramps
14
Q
What 4 cells are associated with the epidermis?
A
keratinocytes, melanocytes, Langerhan’s cells, Merkel’s cells
15
Q
What do keratinocytes do?
A
Produce keratins
Participate in formation of a water barrier
16
Q
What do melanocytes do?
A
Produce pigment
17
Q
What do Langerhan’s cells do?
A
antigen presenting cells of the immune system
18
Q
What do Merkel’s cells do and where are they found?
A
mechanoreceptor cells associated with sensory nerve endings; found in the stratum basale
19
Q
What cell is the most predominant in the epidermis?
A
keratinocyte
20
Q
What is formed from keratin proteins?
A
keratin filaments
21
Q
What type of filament are keratin filaments classified as?
A
intermediate filaments (tonofilaments)
22
Q
Keratinocytes within the stratum spinosum produce….?
A
lamellar bodies
23
Q
What is a lamellar body?
A
tubular, lipid containing organelle that aids in water barrier function of the epidermis
24
Q
Where are lamellar bodies secreted?
A
intracellular space between the stratum granulosum and the stratum corneum - this is where they participate in the formation of the epidermal water barrier
25
What are some characteristics of the stratum basale?
single layer of cells, sometimes cuboidal or columnar, mitotically active, has stem cells that give rise to keratinocytes, adjacent to the dermis, production of intermediate filaments (keratin) begins here
26
What are some characteristics of the stratum spinosum?
many layers, keratinocytes are larger and have cytoplasmic spine-like processes
27
How do the spine processes of the stratum spinosum attach to one another?
desmosomes (macula adherens)
28
What are tonofibrils?
intermediate filaments (tonofilaments)
29
Where do tonofibrils begin to form?
stratum spinosum
30
What initiates the bundling of tonifibrils?
keratohyalin granules
31
Where are keratohyalin granules synthesized?
upper layers of stratum spinosum
32
How many cell layers are in the stratum granulosum?
1 to 3, (very basophilic because of keratohyalin granules)
33
What layer of epidermis are lamellar bodies released?
stratum granulosum
34
Where are tonofilaments actually bundled into tonofibrils?
stratum granulosum or stratum spinosum
35
keratinization
conversion of granular cells into cornified cells
36
Describe the composition of stratum lucidum
thin, translucent layer of eosinophilic cells
37
In what layer of the epidermis do the nucleus, cytoplasm, and other organelles begin to disappear from a cell?
stratum lucidum
38
Describe the cells of the stratum corneum
no nucleus, no cytoplasmic organelles, filled with 85% keratin
39
What layer of the epidermis are the melanocytes found?
stratum basale and their dendritic projections reach to the stratum spinosum
40
What pigment do melanocytes produce and secrete?
melanin
41
Where is melanin specifically synthesized and stored?
an organelle called a melanosome within the melanocyte
42
When the melanosomes travel to the dendritic processes of the melanocyte, they are released between keratinocytes. This is where melanin is released. True or False?
True
43
What function does melanin have?
protect the nuclei/genetic information in the keratinocytes from UV radiation
44
Where are Langerhan's cells derived from?
bone marrow
45
What path does a Langerhan's cell take to relay information it has accumulated within the epidermis?
Gather antigen information in epidermis --> travel to near by lymph node-->presents processed antigen to a T-lymphocyte
46
What staining technique is used on Langerhan cells?
immunostaining
47
What are some characteristics of Merkel cells?
lobed nuclei, neurosecretory cells in their cytoplasm
48
What makes up Mekel's Corpuscle?
Merkel cell and afferent nerve fibers
49
3 types of skin cancer
basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant cell melanoma
50
Characteristics of basal cell carcinoma
most common type of skin cancer, usually does not metastasize, slow growing, resembles cells in the stratum basale
51
Characteristics of squamous cell carcinoma
second most common type of skin cancer, more prone to metastasize than basal cell, atypical cells all throughout the epidermis
52
Characteristics of malignant cell melanoma
most serious type of skin cancer, presents on surface of epidermis, asymmetrical, varies in color, originates from melanocytes
53
What are the two layers of the dermis?
papillary and reticular
54
What is the papillary dermis layer made of?
loose areolar connective tissue
55
What are dermal papillae?
finger like connective tissue projections
56
What is the reticular dermis layer made of?
dense irregular connective tissue
| thicker than papillary
57
What is the Pacinian Corpuscle?
encapsulated nerve (myelinated) ending detecting pressure changes and vibration in the skin
58
Where is the Pacinian corpuscle found?
dermis and hypodermis
59
What is the Meissner's Corpuscle?
encapsulated nerve (unmyelinated) endings that detect light touch in hairless skin areas (lips, palms of hands, soles of feet)
60
What are epidermal skin appendages?
down growths of epidermal epithelium during embryological development
61
Examples of epidermal skin appendages
hair, hair follicles, Eccrine sweat glands, Apocrine sweat glands, sebaceous glands
62
Arrector pili muscle
smooth muscle connected to the connected tissue around a hair follicle to the papillary dermis layer; makes hair stand on end when contracting (goosebumps)
63
What innervation is associated with the arrector pili muscles?
sympathetic nerve innervation
64
What are the different types of sweat glands?
eccrine and apocrine
65
Where are eccrine sweat glands found?
all over body except lips and external genetalia
66
Where are apocrine sweat glands found?
axillary and perineal areas
67
Functions for cartilage
model for developing bone
movement
cushion
68
Functions for bone
Support
Movement
Protection
Hematopoiesis
69
What two places do cells of bones and cartilage derive from?
Mesenchyme Derivative
| Hematopoietic Derivative
70
What cells build/lay down cartilage?
Chondroblasts
71
What cells make up "mature" cartilage?
Chondrocytes
72
What cells build/lay down bone?
Osteoblasts
73
What cells are described as 'osteoblasts surrounded by the matrix they secrete'?
Osteocytes
74
What cells break down bone?
Osteoclasts
75
Which cells are derived from mesenchymal cells?
chondrocytes, chondroblasts, osteocytes, osteoblasts
76
Which cells are derived from hematopoietic cells?
osteoclasts
77
What are the three types of cartilage?
hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage
78
Where can you find hyaline cartilage?
epiphyseal plate, articular surface within synovial joints
79
What are the zones of the epiphyseal plate?
reserve, proliferation, hypertrophy, mineralization
80
Where is fibrocartilage found?
tendon (bone to muscle), ligaments (bone to bone), and some joints (sutures, pubic symphysis)
81
Fibrocartilage contains a perichondrium. True or False
False
82
What type of collagen makes up fibrocartilage?
Type I and II collagen
83
Freshly layed bone is termed...?
primary spongiosa
84
Matured bone is termed...?
secondary spongiosa
85
Two structure types of bone
compact bone (outer) and spongy bone (inner)
86
Lines the inner layer of bone structures
Endosteum
87
Lines the outer layer of bone structures
Periosteum
88
What makes up bone tissue?
Type I collagen (organic) and hydroxyapatite (inorganic)
89
What makes up the ground substance of bone?
proteoglycans and noncollagen molecules
90
What are some characteristics of an osteoblast?
mononucleated, cuboidal in shape (somewhat flat), mitotic
91
What function do osteoblasts have?
synthesize organic bone matrix
92
What is an osteocyte?
an osteoblast trapped in the matrix is releases
93
How do osteocytes communicate with each other?
through canuliculi
94
How do osteocytes connect to one another?
Haversian canals
95
How do osteocytes connect to the bone surface?
Volkmann's canals
96
What are of the epiphyseal plate are cells mitotic?
the zone of proliferation
97
What cartilage is responsible for interstitial growth?
Hyaline cartilage
98
What cartilage is responsible for appositional growth?
Elastic cartilage
99
Define appostional growth.
Growing in thickness by addition of extracellular matrix
100
Define interstitial growth.
Growth in length
101
What cells are found in fibrocartilage?
chondrocytes and fibroblasts
102
Do hyaline and elastic cartilages have a perichondrium?
yes
103
Why are molecules like glycose aminoglycans and proteoglycans present in cartilage?
To help stabilize the cartilage because without them cartilage is unstable
104
What are the osteoblasts in the craniofacial skeleton derived from?
ectomesenchymal cells (neural crest cells)
105
What type of cells secrete collagen type I?
fibroblasts, osteoblasts, odontoblasts
106
What is a bone lining cell?
a cell that lines the bone and has communication with the osteocytes through Volkmann's canals
107
Are there more osteocytes in woven bone or lamellar bone?
Woven bone
108
What is the mechanical role of an osteocyte?
Sensory - sense where more bone needs to be laid down or taken away
109
Can osteocytes degrade bone?
Yes, through a process known as osteocytic osteolysis
110
True or False - An osteoclast is mononuclear.
False they are multinucleated
111
What are osteoclasts derived from?
hematopoietic lineage
112
What are the hollowed out depressions created by osteoclasts?
Howship lacunae
113
When is an osteoclast active?
When it is attached to bone
114
How does an osteoclast degrade bone matrix?
through hydrogen ions, acid phosphatase, cathepsin k
115
What is an osteoid?
noncalcified bone matrix
116
What makes up the osteoid?
collagen I and ground substance
117
Where do you find woven bone?
in a fetus or an area of bone fracture
118
Term for primary immature bone
woven bone
119
Is woven bone organized?
no, it is haphazard. This makes it weak
120
What is the organizing unit of compact bone?
osteon (AKA Haversian system)
121
What is a lamella?
layers in compact bone
122
What are found within an osteon?
blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, nerves, osteocytes, calcified matrix
123
Where can you find compact bone?
shaft of all long bones and the external layer of all bones
124
What is cancellous bone?
spongy bone
125
Where do you find spongy bone?
irregular bones, epiphysis of long bones, short or flat bones
126
What type of bone remodels faster? spongy or compact
spongy
127
What is within the spaces of spongy bone
bone marrow
128
Where does hematopoiesis take place?
bone marrow
129
Where on the bone can you find osteoblasts?
area where there is more stress on the bone
130
Where can you find osteoclasts on the bone?
area where there is less stress
131
What supplies the periosteum with blood?
periosteal arteries
132
What supplies the diaphysis of a long bone and red bone marrow with blood?
nutrient arteries
133
What supplies the epiphysis and red bond marrow with blood?
metaphyseal and epiphyseal arteries
134
What does more pyrophosphate in the body do?
inhibits bone mineralization
135
What does more orthophosphate in the body do?
promotes bone mineralization
136
What is the primary mineral component of bone?
hydroxyapatite = calcium + phosphate
137
In what forms does phosphate exist in the body?
phosphate, monohydrogen phosphate, dihydrogen phosphate
138
At what pH does hydroxyapatite form?
pH must be above 7
139
What molecules can replace phosphate ion in hydroxyapatite to make it stronger since hydroxyapatite is so brittle?
carbonates (increases solubility), fluoride (decreases solubility), chlorides
140
What does TNAP (tissue nonspecific alkaline phosphatase) or ALP (alkaline phosphatase) do?
It is an enzyme that cleaves pyrophosphate to create orthophosphate.
141
How do osteoblasts build bone?
through matrix vessicles i.e. build up of hydroxyapatite in matrix vessicle until it erupts and precipitates onto a scaffold (collagen) so it can grow
142
What two processes build bone?
endochondral and intermembranous
143
What is endochondral bone?
bone build from a cartilaginous model
144
What is intermembranous bone?
bone developed from mesenchymal membrane
145
Is cartilage vascularized?
no
146
Is bone vascularized?
yes
147
Where does endochondral formation of bone take place?
long bones, vertebrae, ribs, and portions of the skull
148
What is the progression of endochondral bone?
1. condensation of mesenchyme
2. cartilage cells differentiate from mesenchymal cells
3. perichondrium forms giving rise to the cartilage model
4. rapid growth of cartilaginous tissue in the core of structure (interstitial growth)
5. Appositional growth occurs through cell proliferation and matrix formation
6. Continues to develop toward the metaphysis in long bones resulting in longitudinal columns of cells
149
How is the epiphyseal plate formed?
A secondary ossification center is formed in a bone, sandwiching the cartilaginous area between the two ossification centers
150
When to interstitial growth cease?
When cartilage cells stop proliferating and the growth plate becomes ossified
151
How is intermembranous bone formed?
Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts in areas that are concurrently being heavily vascularized.
laying down woven bone that will be replaced by lamellar bone which results in primary osteons.
152
Where does intermembranous bone formation occur?
cranial vault, maxilla, portions of the long bones, and portions of the mandible
153
Are collagen fibers in woven bone spread out or tightly compact?
spread out with a lot of space in between each collagen fiber
154
Are collagen fibers in lamellar bone spread out or tightly compact?
tightly compact
155
Within the sutures of the skull, what layer do the bone cells reside?
cambium layer - this is where bone formation occurs
156
Initial laying down of bone is...?
bone modeling
157
replacing old by with new bone is termed...?
bone remodeling
158
How is bone turnover controlled?
through homeostasis
159
What are the steps in bone turnover?
Activation, Resorption, Reversal, Formation, Resting
160
During formation in bone turnover, what are the osteoblasts producing to stop osteoclasts from continuing bone resorption?
osteoprotegrin
161
If osteoblasts needed to signal the osteoclasts to continue bone resporption, what would be produced?
RANKL
162
What occurs during osteoporosis?
bone resorption exceeds bone formation
163
How does a fracture effect bone healing?
It depends on the extent of the fracture. If the periosteum is effected, that makes bone healing more difficult because that is where bone is laid down. Also depends if the pt has disorders, vascularization, etc.
164
What factors affect bone healing?
vascularization, periosteum, soft tissue damage, movement of limb (some movement can help, excessive movement can hurt)
165
What is a non-union during bone healing?
Where fibrous tissues forms where you want bony tissue
166
What is direct fracture healing?
Not needing a cartilaginous precursor (similar to intermembranous bone formation)
167
When does direct fracture healing occur?
when the bone is in "absolute" stability
168
What is a cutting cone?
When osteoclasts are breaking down bone they form a cutting cone in the bone
169
What is a closing cone?
When osteoblasts follow the cutting cone, closing it by laying down new bone
170
What is being remodeled during direct healing?
the osteons
171
What is indirect fracture healing?
when you don't have direct osteonal contact so you need a cartilaginous precursor to lay new bone - likely the type of healing when you have movement
172
Motion drives callus (cartilage) formation - True or Falso?
True
173
What are the phases of indirect bone healing?
inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
174
What tools are used to restrict movement for bone healing
casts, splints, reductions, surgery, traction
175
When does inflammation occur after a fracture?
1-7 days
176
What cells are released during inflammation to "clean up" the fracture site?
M1 macrophages - they are pro inflammatory
177
What cells signal distant mesenchymal cells to come heal the bone after a fracture?
M2 macrophages -pro healing
178
What happens during inflammation?
a hematoma forms and coagulation begins
179
When does a soft callus form during indirect healing?
2-3 weeks post injury
180
What is the formation process of a soft callus?
blood vessels invade the hematoma, periosteal fibroblasts invade the hematoma and produce collagen (granular tissue), collagen fibers can propagate growth bone fragments (if still around), cells in granular tissue will give rise to fibrocartilage which will give rise to bone
181
When does a hard callus form?
3-12 weeks post injury
182
How does a hard callus form?
endochondral ossification converts the soft tissue to woven bone (starting at the periphery and moves toward center)
183
When is bone completely remodeled after a fracture?
months to years
184
Is woven bone present more in direct or indirect healing?
indirect
185
What is the special term for cytoplasm within a muscle cell?
sarcoplasm
186
What is the special term for smooth ER in a muscle cell?
sarcoplasmic reticulum
187
What is the special term for the plasma membrane is a muscle cell?
sarcolemma
188
What is another term for muscle cell?
muscle fiber or myofiber
189
What are the special characteristics of muscle tissue?
excitability - ability to respond to a stimuli producing electrical signals
-contractibility - ability to generate force when a stimulus occurs
extensibility - ability to extend/stretch
-elasticity - ability to return to original length after being stretched/contracted
190
What are some functions of muscle tissue?
```
producing movement
maintaining posture
stabilizing joints
generating heat (thermogenesis)
```
191
What does a skeletal muscle cell look like?
very large, long, multinucleated, striated, cylindrical
192
Why is skeletal muscle considered a structural syncytium?
because the cells were formed from a grouping/fusion of many mesenchymal cells called myoblasts
193
What are the 3 types of skeletal muscle fibers?
Type I - Slow, Red Oxidative fibers
Type IIa - Fast, Intermediate Oxidative Glycolytic Fibers
Type IIb - Fast, White Glycolytic Fibers
194
What are the characteristics of a Slow, Red Oxidative fiber?
smallest in diameter,
have many mitochondria and myoglobin
adapted for slow, continuous contractions
195
Where do type I skeletal fibers get their energy?
from aerobic oxidative phosphorylation of fatty acids
196
Where are type I skeletal fibers found in the body?
postural muscles of the back
197
What are some characteristics of Fast, Intermediate Oxidative Glycolytic Fibers?
intermediate in size
have many mitochondria, myoglobin, and glycogen
adapted for rapid contractions and short bursts of energy (walking and sprinting)
198
How do type IIa skeletal fibers get their energy?
oxidative metabolism and anaerobic glycolysis
199
What are the characteristics of Fast, White Glycolytic fibers?
largest fiber
fewer mitochondria and myoglobin
lots of glycogen (pale color)
adapted for rapid contraction, but fatigue easily (weight lifting)
200
How do type IIb skeletal fibers get their energy?
anaerobic glycolysis
201
What makes up a skeletal muscle organ?
skeletal muscle tissue
nerve tissue
connective tissue
vasculature
202
What connective tissue layer surrounds the entire muscle?
epimysium - dense connective tissue
203
What connective tissue layer surrounds a muscle fascicle?
perimysium
204
What connective tissue layer surrounds the individual muscle fiber/cell?
endomysium
205
What are two types of muscle contraction?
isotonic
| isometric
206
What are the two subtypes of isotonic muscle contraction?
concentric isotonic
| eccentric isotonic
207
Define concentric isotonic contraction.
when the tension generated by the contracting muscle is large enough to overcome the resistance of an object
208
Define eccentric isotonic contraction.
when the muscle generates tension while it is lengthened
209
Does a muscle shorten or lengthen with concentric isotonic contraction?
shorten
210
Define isometric contraction.
when the contracting muscle does not generate enough tension to overcome the resistance of an object.
211
Does a muscle shorten or lengthen during a isometric contraction?
neither - it does not change shape
212
What does a cardiac muscle cell/fiber look like?
uninucleated - centrally located
branched
striated
intercalated discs
213
How are cardiac muscle cells held together at the intercalated discs?
```
desmosomes (connects intermediate filaments)
gap junctions (connects cytoplasm)
fascia adherens (connects thin filaments)
```
214
What does a smooth muscle cell look like?
```
uninucleated - centrally located
fusiform shape (tapers at both ends)
```
215
What forms the striations in skeletal muscle cells?
lining up of sarcomeres from z-disc to z-disc
216
What is the functional unit of a myofibril?
sarcomere
217
What is a myofibril?
bundle of contractile regulatory proteins arranged in a regular manner within a skeletal muscle cell (many myofibrils make up a muscle cell)
218
What is the range of one sarcomere?
from Z-disc to Z-disc
219
What myofilaments make up a myofibril?
actin (thin) and myosin (thick)
220
What myofilament is only found within the I band?
actin
221
What myofilament is only found within the H zone?
myosin
222
Describe sliding filament hypothesis.
myosin filaments sliding past actin filaments (the myosin heads are grabbing the actin filaments and pulling them closer to the M-line)
223
True or False? The H-zone and I-band disappear during muscle contraction.
True - actin and myosin filaments are sliding past one another towards the M-line so the H-zone and I band disappears
224
How many actin filaments surround a myosin filament?
6
225
What makes up a myosin filament?
myosin proteins
226
What do myosin proteins look like?
they have 2 polypeptide chains interwoven and attached to two globular heads (which have actin and ATP binding sites)
227
What makes up actin filaments?
globular subunits called G-actin (which polymerizes into F-actin)
228
What regulatory proteins are associated with actin?
trypomyosin and tryoponin
229
What does trypomyosin do?
blocks the myosin binding sites on the actin
230
What is are the 3 subunits of tryponin
TnT- keeps tryponin bound to trypomyosin
TnC- binds CA+2 ions which are the final trigger for contraction
TnI- inhibits the actin myosin interaction (not discussing)
231
What is the role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
takes up, stores, and releases calcium ions
232
What is a t-tubule?
it is an extension of the plasma membrane that comes in at the A-band/I-band junction
233
What is the terminal cisterna?
Thickened sarcoplasmic reticulum adjacent to the t-tubule
234
What makes up a triad?
1 t-tubule and 2 terminal cisterna
235
What happens during an action potential when the t-tubule undergoes a conformational change (depolarization)?
It causes the adjacent terminal cisterna to release calcium ions (which is the final trigger for contraction)
236
What happens to the calcium ions released by the terminal cisterna if another action potential does not occur?
The terminal cisterna can uptake the calcium ions they just released
237
What is a neuromuscular junction?
a chemical synapse between a motor (efferent) neuron and a skeletal muscle cell
238
What is a motor unit?
a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
239
True or False. The larger the motor unit, the finer the motion of movement.
False - Smaller motor unit means less muscle cells being controlled from motor neuron. Thus, the movement will be a finer motion
240
What occurs from start to finish when an action potential comes down the motor neuron?
When the action potential reaches the axon terminal: Voltage gated Calcium terminals open
Calcium floods into axon terminal
Synaptic vesicles full of ACH (acetylcholine) release ACH via exocytosis
diffusion of ACH across synaptic cleft
ACH binds to acetylcholine receptors on the muscle cell
Na and K diffuse (Na in and K out)
more sodium comes in than potassium goes out - causing depolarization of muscle cell at motor end plate
voltage gated channels along side of motor end plate open due to increased sodium and that begins action potential in muscle cell
follows the sarcolemma and down the t-tubules
from the t-tubules the terminal cisterna are affected and release calcium ions
calcium binds to tryponin causing a conformational change
trypomyosin moves out of the way and myosin binding sites are now available
241
What is the working stroke?
the myosin head pivots and bends moving the actin towards the M-line
242
What allows for the myosin head to release from tryponin?
ATP
243
What is happening during rigor mortis?
myosin head is bound to the trypomyosin and cannont release because ATP is not available
244
How many t-tubules are within a sarcomere of a cardiac muscle cell?
one
245
Does cardiac muscle have triad?
no, it has a diad - one t-tubule and one terminal cisterna
246
Why is smooth muscle not striated?
actin and myosin cross the cell in an oblique manner
247
What do actin filaments connect (insert into) with in a smooth muscle cell?
dense body
248
Where is a dense body found within a smooth muscle cell?
at the surface or deep within the cell
249
What shape does the nucleus take as smooth muscle cell contracts?
corkscrew
250
What is the extracellular matrix of blood?
plasma
251
What is the total blood volume of a human?
5-6 L (8% of body weight)
252
What are the functions of blood?
-deliver O2 and nutrients
-transport waste and CO2
-transport hormones
-homeostasis maintenance buffer, coagulation, blood volume, thermoregulation
-protect via transportation of immune cells
(transport, distribution, regulatory, protection)
253
What makes up blood?
formed elements and plasma
254
What do formed elements arise from embryologically?
hematopoietic stem cells
255
What are formed elements?
cells (EXcept RBC), cell fragments,
256
Define hematocrit.
volume of packed RBC in a sample of blood
257
By volume, what makes up most of the blood?
plasma (55%)
258
By volume, what is the second most abundant composition of blood?
red blood cells (45%)
259
By volume, what is the least abundant composition of blood in blood?
buffy coat (1%) - buffy coat is WBC and platelets
260
What makes up plasma?
water, plasma proteins, other solutes (electrolytes and salts)
261
What is the function of plasma?
it is our solvent
important in maintaining blood volume
regulation of osmotic pressure
262
What plasma proteins are found within plasma?
albumin
globulins
fibrinogen
263
Where are plasma proteins made in the body?
liver
264
What is the function of albumin?
```
regulate osmotic pressure
carrier protein (hormones, metabolites, drugs)
```
265
What are 2 types of globulins?
immunoglobulins
| nonimmune globulin
266
What do immunoglobulins do?
They are antibodies (gamma globulins) secreted by plasma proteins
267
What do nonimmune globulins do?
help maintain osmotic pressure and serve as a carrier protein (alpha and beta globulins)
268
What is the purpose of fibrinogen?
aids in coagulation when it is transformed into fibrin
269
What is a plasma cell?
an activated B-lymphocyte
270
What percentage of plasma is water?
about 90%
271
What percentage of plasma is proteins?
about 7%
272
What is a blood smear?
a drop of blood on a slide spread thinly
273
What staining is used in a blood smear?
Wrights' stain
274
Do erythrocytes have a nucleus?
not at maturity
275
Describe the structure of an erythrocyte.
biconcaved disc
6-8 microns wide
histological ruler
276
Where are erythrocytes produced?
red bone marrow via erythropoiesis
277
What is the life span of an erythrocyte?
120 days
278
What is the rate of release for a red blood cell?
2 million/sec
279
What is hemoglobin?
a protein involved in binding, transporting, and releasing O2 and CO2
280
Describe the structure of hemoglobin.
4 polypeptide chain
| 4 Fe containing heme groups
281
How many O2 molecules can hemoglobin carry?
4
282
What is the most efficient structure of hemoglobin?
2 alpha and 2 beta chains
283
What are the two subunits of leukocytes?
polymorphonuclear granulocytes
| mononuclear agranulocytes
284
What are examples of polymorphonuclear granulocytes?
basophils
neutrophils
eosinophils
285
What are characteristics of polymorphonuclear granulocytes?
multilobed nucleus
special granules
azurophilic granules
286
What are examples of mononuclear agranulocytes?
lymphocytes
| monocytes
287
What are the different kinds of lymphocytes?
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Natural killer cells
288
What are some characteristics of mononuclear agranulocytes?
rounded nucleus
no specific granules
some azurophilic granules
289
What is the most numerous white blood cell in circulation?
neutrophil
290
What granules are found in neutrophils?
lysozymes (specific) and peroxidases
291
What is the function of a neutrophil?
- first responder to infection
- acute inflammation
- phagocytose bacteria within tissues/accumulate pus
292
What granules are found in eosinophils?
peroxidase, histaminase, arylsulfatase
293
Describe the nucleus of an eosinophil?
bilobed
294
What is the function of an eosinophil?
- defense to parasitic infections
- chronic inflammation
- associated with allergies
295
What granules are found in basophils?
histamine
serotonin
heparin sulfate
296
Describe the nucleus of a basophil.
bilobed
297
What is the function of a basophil?
regulate immunoresponse to parasites
| release histamine
298
Describe the nucleus of a lymphocyte.
takes up most of the cell
299
What is the function of T lymphocytes?
cell mediated immunity
| adaptive
300
What is the function of B lymphocytes?
humoral immunity
production of antibodies
(adaptive)
301
What is the function of the natural killer cells?
kill virally infected and malignant cells (innate)
302
What is the function of a monocyte?
differentiate into macrophages within the body tissues
as macrophages they serve as phagocytic cells involved in antigen presentation
precursor for other cell types
(osteoclasts, microglia)
303
What does the nucleus of a monocyte look like?
horseshoe/indented
304
What is the order from most to least abundant of leukocytes in the blood?
neurtophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
| "never let monkeys eat bananas"
305
What is another word for platelet?
thrombocyte
306
What cells do thrombocytes derive from?
megakaryocytes
307
What is the function of platelets?
blood clot formation
| & repair blood vessel walls
308
During early embryonic development, when does the yolk sac phase of hematopoiesis occur?
first trimester
309
When does the hepatic phase of hematopoiesis take place3?
second trimester
310
When does the bone marrow phase of hematopoiesis occur?
third trimester/after birth
311
What is a mast cell?
an activated basophil
312
What stem cell do all hematopoietic stem cells derive?
mesenchymal stem cell
313
Define monophyletic theory.
all blood cells derive from a common pluripotential stem cell (hematopoietic stem cell)
314
What is pluripotent?
can differentiate into anything except embryologic cells
315
In bone marrow, what two multipotent progenitor cells do hematopoietic stem cells differentiate into?
common myeloid progenitor and common lymphoid progenitor
316
What blood cells derive from the common lymphoid progenitor?
lymphocytes
317
What blood cells derive from the common myeloid progenitor?
erythrocytes, megakaryocytes, mast cells, myeloblasts, basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, macrophate
318
What do progenitor cells develop into?
precursor cells and blasts?
319
What phase of cells have the highest mitotic rate?
pluripotent or multipotent cells
320
What is erythropoiesis?
red blood cell formation
321
What cells produce an erythrocyte?
```
hematopoietic stem cell
common myeloid progenitor
megakaryocyte/erythrocyte progenitor
erythrocyte progenitor
proerythroblast
basophilic erythroblast
polychromatophilic erythroblast
orthochromatic erythroblast
polychromatophilic erythocyte
```
322
What is the sequence in forming a granulocyte/monocyte?
```
hematopoietic stem cell
common myeloid progenitor cell
granulocyte/monocyte progenitor
myeloblast
promyelocyte
myelocyte
metamyelocyte
(band cell only in neutrophils)
mature cell
```
323
What is the sequence of forming a thrombocyte?
```
hematopoietic stem cell
common myeloid progenitor
megakaryocyte/erythrocyte progenitor
megakaryocyte progenitor
megakaryoblast
megakaryocyte
platelet
```
324
Describe the nucleus in a megakaryoblast.
nonlobed
325
Describe what a megakaryocyte looks like.
multilobed
azurophilic granules
polyploidy
326
Where can you find a megakaryocygte?
Within the sinusoids of bone marrow
327
What part of the megakaryocyte becomes a platelet?
cytoplasmic extensions
328
What is the normal process of blood coagulation?
vessel injury
vessel spasm
platelets adhere to injury site and aggregate to form plug
formation of insoluble fibrin strands and coagulation
329
Where is bone marrow located?
medullary cavity/spaces in spongy bone
330
What does bone marrow consist of?
sinusoids (open capillaries) and hematopoietic cords
331
What is a hematopoietic cord?
clusters of developing blood cells, megakaryocytes, macrophages, mast cells, adipocytes near the sinusoids for easy access to systemic circulation
332
What is an adventitial cell?
a cell that forms a support structure for the hematopoietic cord
333
What is bone marrow cellularity?
ratio of hematopoietic cells to adipocytes
| 100 - age +- 10% (decreases with age)
334
Why are adipocytes around for the bone marrow cellularity?
to provide energy
335
What are the components of the urinary system?
kidneys
bladder
urethera
336
How many stages are there in embryologic kidney formation?
3
337
What is the first stage of embryologic kidney formation?
```
pronephros stage
(rudimentary/nonfunctional)
```
338
Where and when does the pronephros arise?
10 cell groups in the cervical region
| around 4 weeks development
339
What is the second stage of embryologic kidney formation?
mesonephros
340
Where is the mesonephros found?
upper thoracic to upper lumbar region of the embryo
341
What germ layer does the mesonephros form from?
intermediate mesoderm
342
What does the mesonephros consist of?
glomeruli
| mesenpheric tubules draining into the cloaca
343
What is the third stage of embryologic kidney development?
metanephros
344
What forms from the metanephros mesoderm?
excretory units and later, the kidney
345
What do collecting ducts of the primitive kidney system form from?
ureteric bud, a component of the mesonephric duct
346
What does the renal pelvis form from?
ureteric bud dilation
347
What is formed when the renal pelvis splits into cranial and caudal portions?
major calyces
348
How are minor calyces formed?
further division of the major calyces
349
What forms the renal pyramid?
collecting tubules converging on the minor calyces
350
How are renal vesicles of the excretory system formed?
cells in the metanephric cap form the vesicles
351
How are glomeruli formed?
capillaries grow into the small tubules the renal vesicles form
352
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
nephron
353
What is the structure at the proximal end of the nephron?
Bowman's capsule
354
What is at the distal end of the nephron?
collecting tubules
355
What are 3 parts of the collecting tubules?
proximal convoluted tubule
loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule
356
When do nephrons stop forming?
at birth
357
What causes the ascent of the kidneys from the pelvic region to the abdominal region?
reduction of body curvature and growth of the lumbar and saccral regions
358
How does blood supply change during the ascent of the kidneys?
blood supply moves from a branch off the common iliac arteries to a branch from the abdominal aorta
359
When does the kidney become functional?
12 weeks
360
What two structures form when the cloaca membrane divides?
urogenital sinus and anal canal
361
What structure keeps the urogenital sinus and anal canal separated?
urorectal septum
362
What are the three portions of the urogenital sinus?
urinary sinus
pelvic part
phallic part
363
What does the urachas do?
connects the apex of the bladder to the umbilicus
364
What does the pelvic part of the urogenital sinus become?
prostratic (male) and membranous (female) part of the urethra
365
What does the phallic part of the urogenital sinus become?
genital tubercle
366
What initial morphological changes occur to the mesonephric ducts?
The ducts are absorbed into the urinary bladder wall and ureters enter bladder separately
367
What divides the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity?
pelvic inlet
368
What are the 9 regions of the abdominal cavity?
```
right hypochondrium
right flank
right groin
epigastric
umbilical
pubic
left hypochondrium
left flank
left groin
```
369
What are the 4 quadrants of the abdominal cavity?
right upper
right lower
left lower
left upper
370
What are the layers of the anterolateral wall from exterior to interior?
```
skin
camper fascia
scarpa fascia
eternal abdominal oblique
internal abdominal oblique
transversus abdominis
transversalis fascia
extraperitoneal fat
parietal peritoneum
```
371
What spinal nerves innervates the umbilical dermatome?
T10
372
Between what layers do nerves innervate the anterior abdominal muscles?
between the interior abdominal oblique and the transversus abdominus
373
What is the rectus sheeth?
an aponeurotic tendinous sheath
374
Where can you find the arcuate line?
midway between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis
375
What vertebral level controls the ilioinguinal nerve?
L1
376
What are the abdominal wall layers when you are superior to the arcuate line beginning with most anterior layer?
```
external abdominal oblique
internal abdominal oblique
rectus abdominis
internal abdominal oblique
transversus abdominis
transversalis fascia
parietal peritoneum
```
377
What are the abdominal wall layers when you are inferior to the arcuate line beginning with the most anterior layer?
```
external abdominal oblique
internal abdominal oblique
transversus abdominis
rectus abdominis
transversalis fascia
parietal peritoneum
```
378
What embryological structure did the median umbilical fold derive from?
urachus
379
What embryological structures did the medial umbilical folds derive from?
umbilical arteries
380
What do the lateral umbilical folds cover?
inferior epigastric vessels
381
What areas does the superficial epigastric artery supply with blood?
anterior abdominal wall inferior to the umbilicus
382
What do the deep circumflex arteries supply with blood?
inferior lateral abdominal muscles
383
What does the inferior epigastric artery supply?
lower portion of the rectus abdominal muscle
384
What does the superior epigastric artery supply?
upper portion of the rectus abdominis muscle
385
What does the superior epigastric artery branch from?
internal thoracic artery
386
What does the inferior epigastric artery branch from?
external iliac artery
387
What does the musculophrenic artery supply?
upper abdomen and diaphragm
388
What does the musculophrenic artery branch from?
internal thoracic (runs down the costal cartilage)
389
What does the superficial epigastric artery branch from?
femoral artery
390
Where does the deep circumflex artery branch from?
external iliac artery
391
What does the superficial circumflex artery supply with blood?
the inguinal ligament and surrounding area
392
What does the superficial circumflex artery branch from?
femoral artery
393
What ventral rami of the spinal nerves supply innervation above the umbilical region?
T7, T8, T9
394
What ventral ramus of the spinal nerves innervate the umbilical region?
T10
395
What ventral rami of the spinal nerves innervates below the umbilical region?
T11, T12, L1
396
Damage done to what 3 nerves will weaken the inguinal region?
T11, T12, L1
397
What is a person predisposed to if the inguinal region of the body is weak?
direct inguinal hernias
398
Where can you find the inguinal region?
between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle
399
What structures can be found in the inguinal region?
superficial and deep inguinal rings, inguinal ligament, inguinal canal, walls of canal
400
What is contained within the male inguinal canal?
spermatic cord (vas deferens, testicular nerves and vessels, cremasteric muscle, fascia), ilioinguinal nerve,
401
What makes up the inguinal ligament?
The folded inferior boarder of the external abdominal oblique aponeurosis
402
Where does the inguinal ligament extend from and to?
extends from the anterior superior iliac spin and goes to the pubic tubercle (it is the floor of the inguinal canal)
403
What is contained within the female inguinal canal?
round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve
404
Embryologically, what was the round ligament of the uterus?
gubernaculum
405
What is the purpose of the round ligament of the uterus?
support the uterus and terminates in the labia majorum
406
If connective tissue is associated with an opening, what is the term used?
crura (medial, lateral crus)
407
What makes up the anterior wall of the inguinal canal?
external abdominal oblique aponeurosis
408
What makes up the posterior wall of the inguinal canal?
transversalis fascia and conjoint tendon
409
What is the conjoint tendon?
fusion of internal abdominal oblique and transversus abdominis aponeurosis
410
What makes up the roof of the inguinal canal?
internal abdominal oblique
| transversus abdominis
411
What makes up the floor of the inguinal canal?
inguinal ligament
412
What 3 layers makes up an abdominal hernia?
parietal peritoneum, extraperitoneal fat, tranversalis fascia
413
What region of the body do most abdominal hernias occur?
inguinal region
414
What is the most common type of hernia?
indirect inguinal hernia (more common in males than females)
415
Where can you find an indirect inguinal hernia?
lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels, running through the inguinal canal and terminating at the scrotum or labia majora
416
Where in the body do you find a direct inguinal hernia?
through the inguinal triangle
417
Where is the inguinal triangle?
medial to inferior epigastric artery, lateral to rectus abdominis m., superior to inguinal ligament
418
Which type of hernia is associated with a weakened abdominal wall?
direct inguinal hernia
419
Does a direct inguinal hernia enter the scrotum or labia majora?
not usually
420
What are other types of hernias?
femoral hernias, umbilical hernias, epigastric hernia
421
Where do you find epigastric hernias?
through the linea alba
422
What are the embryologic divisions of the GI tract?
foregut, midgut, hindgut
423
As a result of folding what two structures reside outside the embryo?
yolk sac and allantois
424
What branch of the aorta supplies the foregut?
celiac trunk
425
What branch of the aorta supplies the midgut?
superior mesenteric artery
426
What branch of the aorta supplies the hindgut?
inferior mesenteric artery
427
What makes up the foregut in an embryo?
oropharyngeal opening all the way to the liver bud
428
What makes up the midgut in an embryo?
caudal end of the liver to the right 2/3 of transverse colon
429
What makes up the hindgut in an embryo?
left 1/3 of transverse colon to the cloacal membrane
430
What germ layer gives rise to the endothelial lining of the GI tract and its accessory organs?
endoderm
431
What germ layer gives rise to the muscles, connective tissue, and peritoneum of the GI tract and its accessory organs?
mesoderm
432
What structures are retroperitoneal?
kidneys, duodenum, portions of the ascending and descending colon, tail of pancreas
433
Define a mesentery.
double layer of peritoneum that supplies vessels and nerves to and from organs within the abdomen
434
What are the three dorsal mesenteries within an embryo?
dorsal mesogastrium, dorsal mesoduodenum, dorsal mesocolon
435
Which embryologic dorsal mesentery goes on to form the greater omentum?
dorsal mesogastrium
436
What derives from the ventral mesenteries in the embryo due to liver growth?
lesser omentum
| falciform ligament
437
Where is the ventral mesentery derived from?
septum transversum
438
What are the components of the foregut?
esophagus, stomach, duodenum, liver, gallbladder, pancreas
439
When does the esophagus begin to develop and where?
4 weeks and from the separation of the respiratory diverticulum
440
What divides the respiratory diverticulum into ventral and dorsal structures?
transesophageal septum
441
What does the muscular coating of the esophagus derive from?
splanchnic mesenchyme
442
What nerve innervates the upper 2/3 of the striated muscule of the esophagus?
vagus nerve
443
What nerve innervates the lower 1/3 of the smooth muscle of the esophagus?
splanchnic plexus
444
What do you have a greater and lesser curvature of the stomach?
during embryologic development, the posterior portion develops at a greater rate than the lesser curvature
445
Why does the stomach look the way it does?
due to rotation during development
the left side will be more anterior
right side will be more posterior
446
Where do the cephalic and caudal ends of the stomach end up after development?
the caudal end is more to the right side of the body and upward
the cephalic end is more to the left side of the body and downward
all do to rotation during development
(they both originally start at midline)
447
In the embryo, what attaches the stomach to the posterior body wall?
dorsal mesogastrium
448
How does the spleen connect to the stomach?
gastrolineal ligament
449
How does the spleen connect to the left kidney?
lienorenal ligament
450
True or False? The tail region of the pancreas and the spleen are intraperitoneal.
False - the tail region of the pancreas is retroperitoneal
| all other portions of the pancreas are intraperitoneal
451
What posterior sac is formed due to rotation of the stomach?
lesser peritoneal sac
| aka - omental bursa
452
What attaches the stomach to the anterior body wall?
ventral mesogastrium
453
What structure does the liver divide as it grows?
ventral mesogastrium to form the peritoneam of the liver and the falciform ligament
454
What is the falciform ligament derived from embryologically?
ventral mesentery
455
What is the round ligament of the liver derived from embryologically?
umbilical veins
456
What structure connects the duodenum to the liver?
hepatoduodenal ligament
457
What connects the liver to the stomach?
hepatogastral ligament
458
What is found within the hepatoduodenal ligament?
portal triad
459
What 3 structures make up the portal triad?
common bile duct
portal vein
hepatic artery
460
Where does the bile duct run from and to?
runs from the liver/gallbladder to the duodenum
461
What percentage of blood does the liver get from the hepatic portal vein?
75%
462
What percentage of blood does the liver get from the hepatic artery?
25%
463
Where does the blood supply for the duodenum come from?
cephalic trunk and superior mesenteric artery because it is a transitional point from the foregut to the midgut
464
Why is the duodenum C-shaped?
stomach rotation and expansion of the pancreas
465
Is the duodenum retroperitoneal?
all of it except the pyloric region
466
What does the liver derive from and when?
endodermal epithelium, 3rd week
467
What forms the falciform ligament within the liver?
septum transversum
468
What forms the bile duct?
narrowing connection between the hepatic diverticulum and the foregut
469
What structures are formed from outgrowths of the bile duct?
gallbladder and cystic duct
470
Where does the early liver bud get its blood supply and how?
hepatic sinusoids
| epithelial liver cords intermingle with the umbilical veins and the vitelline
471
Note*
The liver bud proliferates rapidly
due to rapid growth the lesser omentum is formed
the falciform ligament is formed
472
How is the visceral peritoneum on the liver formed?
due to rapid growth of the liver, mesoderm on the surface of the liver becomes the visceral peritoneum except the bare area and the central tendon of the diaphragm
473
What makes up the common bile duct?
the hepatic duct and the cystic duct off the gallbladder
474
Where does the common bile duct go and what does it do?
it drains bile to the duodenum to aid in digestion
475
True or False. The pancreas develops from two buds.
True - dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds
476
Where does the ventral pancreatic bud end up due to rotation?
inferior and posterior to the dorsal bud
477
What structures does the ventral pancreatic bud contain?
uncinate process
| main pancreatic duct
478
What structures does the dorsal pancreatic bud contain?
uncinate process
main pancreatic duct
accessory pancreatic duct
479
What is the exocrine function of the pancreas?
Makes enzymes for digestion that are carried to the duodenum
480
What is the endocrine function of the pancreas?
Controls the secretion of insulin and glucose
481
Where do the main pancreatic duct and the bile duct enter the duodenum?
at the major papilla
482
Where does the accessory duct of the pancreas enter the duodenum?
at the minor papilla
483
What is the end point of the foregut?
major papilla of the duodenum
484
When does a fetus begin to make insulin?
month 5
485
Where in the pancreas to most of the endocrine functions take place?
the tail of the pancreas
486
Which portion of the stomach has connection with the yolk sac during development?
midgut
487
What suspends the midgut from the dorsal wall?
short mesentery
488
What forms from the cephalic portion of the midgut?
distal portion of the duodenum, jejunum, proximal part of the ileum
489
What forms from the caudal portion of the midgut?
distal part of the ileum, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon
490
What causes the midgut to herniate into the extraembryonic space?
growth and rotation (90 degrees)
491
How many times does the midgut rotate?
twice 90 and then 180 after it returns to the embryo
492
What is the total rotation in degrees of the midgut?
270 degrees
493
What is the final portion of the midgut to re-enter the embryo?
cecal bud
494
What buds off of the cecum during formation?
appendix
495
What portions of the midgut remain in mesentery after development?
appendix and cecum (parts of it)
496
What encloses the superior mesenteric artery?
dorsal mesentery
497
What makes up the hindgut?
distal 1/3 of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and upper anal canal
498
What gives rise to the bladder and urethra?
endoderm of the hindgut
499
What forms the urogenital sinus?
allantois entering the anterior portion of the cloaca and the rupture of the cloacal membrane
500
What does the urorectal septum separate?
the allantois from the hindgut
501
What lies between the anus and urogenital sinus?
perineum
502
What is the upper 2/3 of the rectum derived from?
endoderm
503
What is the lower 1/3 of the rectum derived from?
ectoderm
504
What supplies blood to the inferior portion of the rectum?
inferior rectal arteries and internal pudendal artery
505
What allows the upper and lower portion of the anal canal to communicate?
an invagination of the ectoderm that creates an anal pit and causes the cloacal membrane to rupture
506
What are the functions of the digestive tube?
ingestion, secretion, mixing and propulsion, digestion, absorption, defecation, barrier, immunologic
507
What is the vestibule within the oral cavity?
space between the teeth and lips and teeth and cheeks
508
What muscle makes up the musculocutaneous junction of the lips?
orbicularis oris muscle (skeletal muscle)
509
What nerve innervates the orbicularis oris muscle?
cranial nerve #7
510
What are the three surfaces of the lips?
cutaneous
vermilion boarder
oral mucosa
511
What is the structure of the cutaneous surface of the lips?
epidermis, dermis, hair follicles, glands
512
What type of epithelium makes up the lips?
stratified squamous epithelium
513
What type of epithelium makes up the cheek?
nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
514
What structures in the oral cavity are lightly keratinized?
palate and gingiva
515
Describe the lamina propria within the cheek and gingiva?
vascularized, short papilla, elastin fibers
| anchor periosteum to the gingiva
516
Describe the lamina propria within the lip?
vascularized, loose connective tissue
517
What separates the anterior portion of the tongue from the posterior portion?
sulcus terminalis
518
What is the anterior part of the tongue derived from?
ectoderm
519
What is the posterior part of the tongue derived from?
endoderm
520
What type of epithelium is found on the tongue?
nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
521
Where can you find the circumvillate papilla?
just anterior to the sulcus terminalis
522
What are the characteristics of the circumvillate papilla?
largest of the papilla
nonkeratinized
are taste buds
523
What are characteristics of the fungiform papilla?
```
mushroom shaped
poorly keratinized
scattered between the filiform
well vascularized
are taste buds
```
524
What are characteristics of the filiform papilla?
```
cone shaped
most numerous
manipulate food and increase friction
keratinized
not taste buds
```
525
What bones make up the hard palate?
premaxilla, maxilla, palatine process
526
What type of epithelium covers the hard palate?
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
527
Descripe the lamina propria of the hard palate.
blood supply and lymphocytes
528
What type of glands can be found in the hard palate?
mucus secreting glands
529
describe the soft palate.
highly vascularized
nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium (oral side)
ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium (nasopharyngeal side)
mucus and seromucous glands
skeletal muscle
530
What are the different types of salivary glands?
parotid
submandibular
sublingual
531
Where does the parotid salivary gland empty into the oral cavity?
maxillary second molar
532
What is the largest of the salivary glands?
parotid (30% of saliva)
533
What type of gland is the parotid?
serous gland
534
What type of gland is the submandibular?
serous and mucos
535
What duct does the parotid empty through?
Stenson's duct
536
What duct does the submandibular empty through and where?
Wharton's duct into floor of mouth (60% of saliva)
537
What is the smallest of the salivary glands?
sublingual (10% of saliva)
538
What type of gland is the sublingual?
mucous (multiple ducts)
539
What is the morphological structure of a parotid gland?
branched tubuloacinar
540
What type of cells make up a striated duct within the parotid gland?
columnar
541
Which salivary gland contains adipocytes?
sublingual
542
What is the function of a striated duct?
active transport for sodium and calcium ions
543
What is the structure of a striated duct?
round nuclei close to lamina propria
| many mitochondria
544
What is the muscular composition of the upper 1/3 of the esophagus?
skeletal muscle
545
What is the muscular composition of the middle 1/3 of the esophagus?
skeletal and smooth muscle
546
What is the muscular composition of the lower 1/3 of the esophagus?
smooth muscle
547
What type of epithelium makes up the esophagus?
nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
548
What are the characteristics of the basal layer of the esophagus epithelium?
cuboidal cells
melanocytes
merkel cells
549
What are the characteristics of the intermediate layer of the esophageal epithelium?
flatter cells accumulate glycogen
langerhan's cells
t-lymphocytes
550
Describe the superficial layer of the esophageal epithelium?
few keratohyalin granules
551
What separates the esophagus from the stomach and how do you distinguish this transition?
Z-line; nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus changes to simple columnar of the stomach
552
What is the unique nerve supply to the digestive system?
enteric nervous system
553
What makes up the enteric nervous system?
myenteric plexus
| and meissner plexus
554
What does the myenteric plexus do?
regulate peristalsis
555
what does the meissner plexus do?
regulate glandular secretion, blood flow, electrolyte and water transport
556
What type of gland structure is an eccrine gland?
simple coiled tubular gland
557
What type of secretion comes from eccrine and apocrine glands?
merocrine secretion
558
What type of gland structure is an apocrine gland?
coiled tubular glands (w/ wide lumens)
559
When does an apocrine sweat gland become functional?
during puberty
560
What type of gland structure is a sebaceous gland?
branched acinar
561
What type of secretion occurs with a sebaceous gland?
holocrine
562
What are the four layers of the alimentary canal/tube?
mucosa
submucosa
muscularis externa
adventia
563
Where do you find the two types of mucous glands in the esophagus?
superficial layer of the mucosa and the submucosa
564
What makes up the muscularis externa of the GI tract?
inner circular and outer longitudinal muscle
565
What is the function of the adventia in the esophagus?
loose conn. tissue to anchor it to the mediastinum
566
What vertebrae level does the esophagus pass through the diaphragm?
T10
567
What layers of the alimentary canal are you more likely to fine portions of the enteric nervous system?
submucosa and muscularis externa
568
Where do you fine myenteric plexus?
between the muscle layers of the muscularis externa
569
Where are you likely to find the Meissner plexus of the enteric nervous system?
submucosa
570
What nervous system regulates the enteric nervous system?
autonomic nervous system
571
What is found within the mucosa layer of the stomach?
rugae, simple columnar epithelium (not nonkeratinized stratified squamous), gastric pits and glands
572
What are the 3 glands of the stomach?
cardiac (10%), gastric(75%), pyloric(15%)
573
What is the function of mucous cells in the stomach?
forms a viscous layer alkaline mucus that protects the stomach
574
What is the function of mucous neck cells in the stomach?
forms a viscous acidic/neutral layer of mucus
575
What is the function of the parietal cells?
secrete HCL
576
What is the serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity?
peritoneum
577
What are the two layers of the peritoneum?
visceral and parietal
578
What type of cells line the peritoneum that face the cavity?
mesothelial cells
579
What is so special about the mesothelial cells in the peritoneum?
they have microvili that secrete serous fluid
580
What are the characteristics of the layers of the muscularis externa of the stomach?
the outer layer = longitudinal
the middle layer = circular
the inner layer = oblique
581
At the gastroduodenal junction, describe the pyloric sphincter.
the muscularis externa thickens and the mucosa and submucosa form the gastric wall because they also thicken
582
What structures can you find on the duodenal side of the gastroduodenal junction?
goblet cells, enterocytes, mucus secreting submucosal glands
583
What structures can you find on the gastric side of the gastroduodenal junction?
surface mucous cells, branched tubuloaveolar mucus secreting gastric glands
584
How do you know you have reached the gastroduodenal junction?
the duodenal side will have vili
585
What are the layers of the alimentary canal once you reach the small intestine?
mucosa
submucosa
muscularis externa
serosa
586
What are the special folds called in the mucosa of the small intestine?
plicae - have villi and microvili
587
What structures can be found on the mucosa of the small intestine?
villi and intestinal crypts
588
Where are Paneth cells found?
ileum
589
Which part of the small intestine has larger plicae, larger vili, and more vasculature?
jejunum
590
How do the vili in the ileum look?
Stubby and club shaped
591
What part of the intestinal tract has Peyer's patches?
Ileum... They play a role in immune response and production of plasma cells
592
Where can you find the most Paneth cells?
Ileum, at the base of the crypts
593
True or False. As you go diatally into the small intestine, goblet cell numbers increase and enterocyte numbers decrease.
True
594
What is an enterocyte?
A cell in the small intestine that breaks down amd transports nutrients to the capillaries. It also synthesizes enzymes.
595
What is the function of the large intestine?
Absorb water, electrolytes, bile acids, and vitamins
596
What creates haustra?
Partial contraction of the large intestine
597
Term for longitudinal muscle layer in large intestine.
Taenia coli
598
Does the colon have microvilli?
No
599
Where can you find Paneth cells in the colon?
Cecum and appendix
600
What mesentery covers the appendix?
Mesoappendix
601
What type of cells do you find at the anorectal junction?
Goblet cells
602
What type of folds are found in the anorectal junction?
transverse semilunar mucosal folds
603
Define peritoneal cavity.
potential space within a sac
604
What do you find within the peritoneal cavity?
serous fluid
605
How many layers of peritoneum is the greater omentum?
4
606
What is the function of the greater omentum?
It connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon and can wall off infection and inflammation
607
What could inhibit the mobility of the greater omentum?
adhesions
608
What connects the liver to the stomach?
hepatogastric ligament
609
What connects the liver to the duodenum and also contains the hepatic triad?
hepatoduodenal ligament
610
What is found deep to the lesser omentum?
omental bursa
611
What structure anchors the small intestines to the posterior abdominal wall?
mesentery proper
612
What structure anchors the duodenum to the posterior wall of the abdomen?
suspensory ligament of Treitz
613
Where can you find the suspensory ligament of Treitz and what is its purpose?
descending from the right crus of the diaphragm to the distal portion of the duodenum. It keeps the duodenojejunal junction from sagging
614
What attaches the transverse colon to the posterior abdominal wall?
transverse mesocolon
615
Do the ascending and descending portions of the colon have mesocolon?
no, they attach directly to the posterior abdominal wall
616
The transverse mesocolon divides the abdomen into two compartments. What are they and what do they contain?
supracolic compartment - liver, spleen, stomach
| infracolic compartment - small intestine, ascending and descending colon
617
What attaches the liver to the inferior surface of the diaphragm?
coronary ligament of the liver
618
Where can you find indirect inguinal hernias?
medial inguinal fossae - area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds
619
Where can you find direct inguinal hernias?
lateral inguinal fossae - lateral to the lateral umbilical folds
620
What is the most inferior pocket in the male when vertical?
rectovesicle pouch
621
What is the most inferior pocket in the female when vertical?
rectouterine pouch
622
What is the pouch between the bladder and the uterus?
vesicouterine pouch
623
What is the lowest part of the peritoneal cavity when recumbent?
hepatorenal pouch
624
Where does the portal triad enter the liver?
porta hepatis
625
What is the function of the gallbladder?
store and release bile to emulsify fats during digestion
626
How does the gallbladder receive bile from the liver?
right and left hepatic ducts which form the common hepatic duct (different from the common bile duct)
627
What duct does bile travel through when it leaves the gallbladder?
cystic duct
628
What forms the common bile duct?
cystic duct and common hepatic duct
629
Where does the common bile duct drain into the GI tract?
major papilla of the duodenum (after it joins with main pancreatic duct)
630
What are the parts of the gallbladder?
fundus, body, neck
631
What are the parts of the pancreas?
uncinate process, head, neck, body, tail
632
Where does the accessory duct of the pancreas drain?
minor papilla of the duodenum
633
What is the function of the pancreas?
create digestive enzymes
634
What is the function of the spleen?
store red blood cells and monocytes
| filter and remove old RBC
635
What connects the spleen to the stomach?
gastrosplenic ligament
636
What structures are found within the gastrosplenic ligament?
short gastric and gastro-omental vessels
637
What connects the spleen to the left kidney?
splenorenal ligament, which contains splenic vessels
638
What is the first major branch off the aorta?
celiac trunk
639
What branches from the celiac trunk?
common hepatic, left gastric, splenic a.
640
What are acini cells in the pancreas?
cells that store and secrete enzymes in the pancreas
641
Note*
islet cells stain lighter than acini cells in the pancreas
642
What type of cells line the main duct of the pancreas?
pseudostratified and stratified columnar
643
What is the course of enzymes through the ducts of the pancreas?
intercalated, intralobular, interlobular, main pancreatic duct
644
What enzyme converts trypsinogen to trypsin in the duodenum?
entereokinase
645
What controls the secretions from acini cells in the pancreas
?
hormones secreted from the enterendocrine cells
646
What innervation controls the secretion from acinar cells?
vagus nerve
647
What is the term for the serous covering of the liver?
glisson's capsule
648
Describe the functional unit of the liver.
each lobe of the liver has lobules, which have branches from the portal triad
649
What cells make up the liver?
hepatocytes
650
What is the flow of blood through the liver?
Portal vein to sinusoids to central vein to sublobular vein to two hepatic veins to IVC
651
How many portal spaces per lobule?
3-6
652
What is within a portal space?
Portal venule, hepatic arteriole, bile duct, lymphatic vessel
653
What cells produce bile?
Hepatocytes
654
Describe the structure of hepatocytes.
Arranged in cords, interconnected, have sinusoids where portal blood flows
655
Where does a plasma cell filter in the liver?
Through the sinusoid wall into the space of Disse
656
What allows communication between the space of disse and bile canaliculi and the hepatocytes
Microvilli
657
What is the role of rough ER in the hepatocytes?
Plasma protein synthesis
658
What is the role of SER in hepatocytes?
Detoxification and forms conjugated bilirubin
659
What macromolecules are stored in hepatocytes?
Carbs and lipids
660
Do hepatocytes need secretary granules?
No, they are associated with sinusoids
661
Where is vitamin A stored?
Ito's cells within the liver
