Unit 2 Flashcards

(300 cards)

1
Q

_______ pain is felt within 0.1 seconds after a stimulus is applied. Not felt in most deep tissues of the body such as the viscera.

A

Fast pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

______ pain is sharp, prickling, acute, electric

A

Fast pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_____ pain is felt more than 1 sec after the stimulus is applied

A

Slow pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ pain can arise in almost any tissue. Manifests as burning, aching, dull, throbbing, nauseous, chronic

A

Slow pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the sensory ending type of pain receptors?

A

Free nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The stimuli of pain receptors that makes it polymodal are ______, ______ and _____

A

Mechanical
Thermal
Chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

______ and ______ stimuli manifest as fast and slow pain

A

Mechanical and thermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

______ sitmuli stimulate slow pain only

A

Chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some examples of chemical stimuli that stimualte pain (8)

A
Bradykinin
Serotonin
Histamine
Poteolytic enzymes 
K+ 
Acids
Ach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are 2 examples of chemicals that lower pain threshold?

A

Prostaglandins and substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pain is ______. In the sense that the nociceptors will fire as long as the stimulus is present

A

Non-adapting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When pain intensity increases it is referred to as ______

A

Hyperalgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

________ ____ pain manifest from mechanical or thermal stimuli and are more likely to react immediately

A

Fast sharp pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fast sharp pain transmits from ______ fibers and involved in quick immediate reactions

A

Adelta fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_____ _____ pain is mostly by chemical stimuli but also by persistent thermal or mechanical stimuli

A

Slow dull pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Slow dull pain is transmitted through _______ fibers and is more likely to intensify over time

A

C type fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Slow dull pain is transmitted through _______ fibers and is more likely to intensify over time the neospinothalamic tract pain type and fiber

A

Fast pain

Adelta fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where does the first order neuron terminate in the neospinothalamic tract?

A

Lamina 1 of the dorsal horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the second order neuron of the neospinothalamic tract

A

Second order neuron decussates through the anterior commissure to ascend the anterolateral tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the neospinothalamic The second order neuron decussates through the _________ to ascend the _______tracts

A

Anterior commissure

Anterolateral tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In the neospinothalamic tract. The second order neuron terminations:
Some fibers end in the _______
Most fibers terminate in the _____

A

Some fibers end in the reticular area of the brain stem

Most terminate in the VPL ( or VPM for the head) of the thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In the neospinothalamic tract the third order neuron projects from the _______ to the _____

A

Thalamus to the somatosensory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In _________ tract. Fairly accurate localization with the help of simultaneous activation of neighboring tactile sensory activation

A

Neospinothalamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What NT is released in the neospinothalamic tract?

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
_______ tract is associated with slow chronic pain (C fibers)
Paleospinalthalamic tract
26
First order neurons of the paleospinothalmic tract terminate in lamina ______ and ______ (________ of the anatomical naming system.
II and III | Substantia gelatinosa
27
In the paleospinothalamic tract, several interneurons connect laminas _____ and ______ with lamina _____
II and III with lamina V
28
In the paleospinothalamic tract, second order neurons decussate to the opposite side through the ________ and ascend via the ______
Decussate through the anterior commissure | Ascend via the anterolateral pathway
29
In the paleospinothalamic tract, what is the NT released in the cord?
Substance P
30
In the paleospinothalamic tract , most second order neurons terminate in what 3 areas?
Reticular formation of the brain stem Tectal area of midbrain Periaqueductal gray region
31
A FEW 2nd order neurons pass all the way to the ______
Thalamus
32
The __________ tract has poor localization of the source of the stimulus
Paleospinothalamic tract
33
Pain not ONLY is perceived in the ______ gyrus, but also in primitive areas as well such as the _____ , ______ and ______
Post central gyrus | Cortex, Thalamus and brain stem
34
The cortex of the brain interprets what component of pain?
Pain quality
35
The thalamus and brain stem feels what aspect of pain?
The unpleasantness/ suffering aspects of pain
36
Pain participates in the _____ system of the brain
Arousal
37
What two levels can pain perception be modified?
At the level of the brain and at the level of the spinal cord
38
How is pain perception modified at the level of the brain?
Analgesia system involves endogenous opiates
39
How can pain perception be modified at the level of the spinal cord?
By the gate control theory
40
what are the 4 components of the central analgesia system?
Periventricular nulcei Peri-aqueductal gray Raphe magnus nulceus Pain inhibitory complex
41
Of the central analgesia parts, the perventricular nulcei in the __________ surrounds the _______
Hypothalamus | 3rd ventricle
42
Of the central analgesia parts, the peri-aqueductal gray surround aqueduct in the _______ and _______
Midbrain and upper pons
43
Of the central analgesia parts, the Raphe magnus nulceus is a thin midline nulceus in _________ and _______
Lower pons and upper medulla
44
Of the central analgesia parts, the pain inhibitory complex is in the _______
Dorsal horn of the spinal cord
45
______ and ______ secreting neurons are a key component in pain modulation in the central analgesia parts
Enkephalins - endogenous opiates | Serotonin
46
What activates the analgesia system?
Stress/limbic system
47
What can activate the analgesia system?
Both the stress of pain and the psychological.emotional state of the individual Stress also activates the sympathetic NS and ACTH/cortisol release
48
Pain pathways terminate in many of the same areas that are part of the __________. Therefore pain pathways may lead to their own _____
Analgesia system Inhibition
49
What are the 3 families of mediators of analgesia?
Enkephalins Endorphins Dynorphins
50
_______ is a precursor to endogenous opioid peptides called MSH and ACTH and beta-endorphin
POMC (pro-opiomelonocortin)
51
What occurs in gate control theory?
With gate control add in sensation from skin and mechanoreceptors. It has a side branch (lateral branch) that goes to the inhibitory neuron. So it excites an hibitory neuron which results in inhibition When the mechanoreceptor are stimulated it tend to weak the stimulus up to the thalamus.
52
When you feel pain from an injury and you shake the body part or rub the area instinctively is referred to as an example of ___________
Gate control theory
53
__________ is where pain from a visceral organ is referred to a body surface
Referred pain
54
What is the mechanism of referred pain?
Visceral pain fibers and skin nerve fibers converge on the same second order neuron where cross talk can occur effect the dermatomes of the same spinal level.
55
________ is where the pain refers to the dermis that shares the same embryonic spinal level as the visceral organ and is a big part of the mechanism of referred pain.
Dermatomal rule
56
_______ is pain orignating in a visceral structure perceived as being from an area of skin innervated but the same segmental level as the visceral afferent
Referred pain
57
What does referred pain result from?
Cross talk in the dorsal horn where the convergence of somatic and visceral afferents on the same segmental level of the SC
58
Some referred pain from viscera follows ________ innervated by the same spinal nerves
Dermatomes
59
What are 5 causes of visceral pain?
``` Ischemia Chemical damage Spasm of smooth muscle in a hollow organ Excessive distension of a hollow organ Stretch of visceral CT ```
60
_______ fibers are involved with visceral pain and transit ______ type of pain
C type fibers | Chronic-aching- suffering type of pain
61
______ is accumulation of acidic metabolic end products, bradykinin and proteolytic enzymes
Ischemia
62
What are the viscera that are insensitive to pain?
Parenchyma of the liver (ex: hepatocytes) alveoli of the lungs Brain
63
What are examples of viscera that ARE sensitive to pain?
Peritoneum Bile ducts Bronchi Pleura
64
Are Blood vessels (dural sinuses and middle meningeal artery) and meninges sensitive to pain?
Yes
65
Visceral disease leads to _______ pain
Poorly localized dull pain
66
Visceral disease causes _____ pain when inflammation spreads to partietal serous membranes
Sharp more localized pain AKA parietal pain Visceral disease can cause parietal pain
67
An intracranial headache has a pain referral pattern. Above the tentorum, pain is referred to the ______ Below the tentorum, pain is referred to ______
Forehead | Occipital area
68
An extracranial headache is referred to the _______
Face behind the eyes
69
What are examples of causes of intracranial headaches?
``` Meningitis Low CSF pressure Migraines Cluster headaches Alcohol ```
70
What are the extracranial causes of head aches?
Tension head aches Nasal or sinus infection Eye disorders
71
What are 4 types of head aches?
Sinus Cluster Tension Migraine
72
______ head aches, pain is behind browbone and or cheeks
Sinus head ache
73
_______ headaches, pain is in and around one eye
Cluster head aches
74
______ headaches, pain is like a band squeezing the head
Tension
75
________ headaches, pain, nausea and visual changes are typical of classic form
Migraine
76
________ is the other part of the anterolateral system other than pain
Temperature/ thermal modalities
77
Thermoreceptors exhibit ______, feel abrupt change in temperature (especially cold) then subsides
Adaptation
78
Swings in temperature that occur due to _________ are usually not perceived. 31-36 degrees Celsius (88-97 degrees F)
Thermoregulation
79
_______ is body temperature regulation by vasomotoion of cutaneous blood vessels
Thermoregulation
80
________ has to do with the rate light is absorbed by atoms and re-emitted as light as it passes through a medium
Optical density
81
_______ is a common way to express the optical density of an object by comparing the density of medium in question with a vacuum
Refractive index | Velocity of light in vacuum/ velocity of light in medium
82
Describe refraction of light as it enters a medium perpendicularly
Light that enters a medium perpendicular to the surface of a medium slows but goes in a straight line
83
Describe refraction of light that enters a medium at an angle
Light that enters at an angle bends.
84
The degree of bending of light as it enters a medium at an angle depends on what 2 things?
The ratio of 2 refractive indices of the material involved The degree of angulation of the second medium
85
_______ lenses causes convergence of light (______)
Convex lenses; focuses
86
__________ is the point away from the lens that light converges into one spot
Focal point
87
_________ is the distance from the lens to the focal point
Focal length
88
If you change the curvature of the lens, you can change the _________
Focal length
89
_________ lenses cause divergence of light
Concave
90
Light rays from a close POINT source is ________ as it hits the lens Light rays from a DISTANT source are ________ as it hits the lens
Diverging | Parallel
91
Near point focal lengths is _______ (length)
Longer
92
To shorten a focal point for a near source a more ________ lens is needed
Convex
93
An _____ is a mosaic of many point sources
Image formation
94
As light from each point source is projected through a convex lens the image is _________
Inverted
95
Image detector (_______, ______) must be lined up at the __________ to create a sharp image
Film, retina | Focal points
96
The more a convex lens can be light, the ________ its refractive power
Greater
97
Refractive power is measured in _______. 1 meter focal length = ____ 1/2 meter focal length =_____ 1/4 meter focal length = ______
Diopters +1 diopter +2 diopters +4 diopters
98
For a concave lens, refractive power is measured to the ____________.
Rate light diverges
99
If a concave lens diverges light rays as much as a +10 diopter lens converges them, the refractive power is _______ diopters
-10 diopters
100
What is the pathway of light through the interfaces of the eye?
Air -> cornea -> aqueous humor -> lens -> vitreous humor
101
The greatest change in refractive power is the transition from ______ to _______
Air to the cornea
102
______ is the strongest lens of the eye
The cornea
103
the refractive power of the eye is ___ diopters in an unaccommodated and distant light source
+59
104
Describe accommodation of the eye
The lens changes its shape and therefore its refractive power to focus the image
105
For near vision, the circular muscle ______ or ________ to focus.
contracts or Accommodates
106
The circular muscle _______ for far vision
Relaxes
107
________ controls the circular muscle that is involved in accommodation of the eye
Oculomotor nerve - parasympathetic
108
______ functions to change the amount of light that enters the eye. Ranges from _____ to ______mm
Iris | 1.5 - 8mm
109
In regards to the Iris more light enters at ________ and less light enters during the _____. (Night or day)
Night | Day
110
Does a smaller or larger pupil give greater depth of focus?
Smaller pupil has greater depth of focus
111
The depth of focus is determined by what?
The size of the pupil | The smaller the pupil, the greater depth of focus
112
______ is a refractive disorder of the eye in which parallel light from a distant course is in focus and lens accommodation is normal. Normal vision.
Emmetropia
113
_________ is a refractive disorder of the eye in which lens becomes less elastic and won’t round up during ciliary muscle contraction
Presbyopia
114
_________ is AKA farsightedness
Hyperopia
115
In ________ the focal point is behind the retina so the lens is used to focus for FAR vision; not enough left to focus for near vision.
Hyperopia (farsightedness)
116
__________ is AKA nearsightedness
Myopia
117
In _______ the relaxed eye the focal point is ahead f the retina. Cannot focus distant objects
Myopia (nearsightedness)
118
_________ is irregular shape of the cornea
Astigmatism
119
________ are cloudy areas in the lens caused by denatured eye proteins
Cataracts
120
Describe the differences between near and far sightedness with normal vision.
Normal vision: occurs when light is directly focuses on the retina rather than infront or behind it Near sightedness: visual image is focused infront of the retina Farsightedness: visual image is focused behind the retina
121
_______ is normal vision | _________ is myopia
20/20 | 20/100
122
What doe 20/100 visual acuity mean?
What a normal person can see at 100 feet, the nearsighted person can see at 20 feet The bigger the bottom number the worse the vision
123
_______ is the ability to perceive relative distance of objects in the visual field
Depth perception
124
What are the 4 mechanisms of depth perception?
Sizes of images of known objects Moving parallax Stereopsis Occlusion
125
How can size of known objects effect depth perception?
This wold get can be used to judge the distance away a person is relative to the size the image appears on the retina
126
When a person is moving foreground objects appear to be passing by faster than distant objects is the ____________ mechanism of depth perception
Moving parallax
127
_______ is AKA binocular vision. Light from distant objects project to more central points in the retina. Light from near courses project more laterally
Stereopsis of depth perception
128
When is binocular vision most useful?
In closer ranges
129
______ is the points in space whose images fall on corresponding points on the two retinas so that it appears as a single object
Horopter
130
Binocular disparity appears as ______
Double vision
131
Points neared than the Horopter have _______ disparity
Crossed
132
Points father than horopter have _______ disparity
Uncrossed
133
Binocular disparity can be ______ or _______
Crossed or uncrossed
134
In depth perception, _______ is used as a cue to depth to where if something is infront of another you obscure the vision to the object that is behind to focus on the thing infront.
Occlusion
135
________ is liquid formed by the ciliary processes of the eye
Aqueous humor
136
_________ circulates between the cornea and lens and is removed through the Canal of Schlemm
Aqueous humor
137
Aqueous humor circulates between the ______ and the _______ and is removed through the _________.
Circulates- between cornea and lens | Removed- canal of schlemm (scleral venous sinus)
138
The aqueous humor is removed through the canal of schlemm which empties into the _______ veins
Extraocular veins
139
______ exerts a pressure inside the eye to keep it distended (about 15mmHg)
Aqueous humor
140
________ occurs due to increased intraocular pressure due to aqueous humor outflow problems such as debris clogging canal of schlemm
Glaucoma
141
In glaucoma, pressure can be measured by ______. The pressure can compress _______ leading to permanent ______
Tonometry Retina Blindness
142
The main symptom of glaucoma is _________
Gradual loss of vision
143
What is chronic open angle glaucoma?
Loss of peripheral field vision happens first
144
What are some indications of acute angle glaucoma?
``` Sudden ocular pain and decreased vision Seeing halos around light Red eye Very high intraocular pressure Nausea and vomiting Fixed , mid-dilated pupil (oval pupil in some cases) ```
145
The light must pass through _______ to be detected by photoreceptors in the retina
Most of the retinal layers
146
The retinal layer arrangement causes _________ of visual acuity (loss or gain)
Some loss of visual acuity
147
_______ is where the ganglion cells converge to form the optic nerve
Blind spot
148
______ is the area of sharpest vision
Central fovea
149
What makes up the photoreceptor layers of the central fovea?
Almost all cones
150
In the central fovea, the Superficial layers of the retina are _______ to improve visual acuity of that area
Pushed aside The retinal layers function to cause some loss of visual acuity which is why in the area of greatest visual acuity the retinal layers would be pushed aside
151
The ______ layer of the retina contains melanin and stores vitamin A
Pigment layer
152
What is the function of the melanin in the epithelium in the pigment layer?
Absorbs light so that it wont scatter within the eyeball
153
Albinos lack the _______ part of the pigment layer and therefore have _______ (better or poorer) visual acuity
Pigment (melanin) | Poorer visual acuity
154
What are the layers of the retina? External to internal
``` External limiting membrane Pigment epithelium Photoreceptor layer Outernuclear layer Outerplexiform nucleus Inner nuclear layer Inner plexiform layer Ganglion cell layer Nerve fiber layer Inner limiting membrane ```
155
What are the upper and lower borders of the retinal layers?
Upper- external limiting membrane | Lower - internal limiting membrane
156
What are the 3 layers of the photoreceptive cells (rods and cones)?
Outer segment Inner segment Synaptic endings
157
The _____ segment is light sensitive The ______ segment is composed of the cytoplasm and nucleus The synaptic endings synapse with _____ and _____ All are components of the photoreceptive cells
Outer segment- light sensitive Inner segment - cytoplasm and nucleus Synaptic endings - synapse with bipolar and horizontal cells
158
Outer segments of photoreceptors contain membrane shelves that contain either ______ and ______
``` Rhodopsin (rods) Color pigments (cones) ```
159
Rhodopsin is inactive, what is the active form of rhodopsin?
Metarhodopsin II
160
______ and ______ can be recycled to form rhodopsin
Scotopsin and 11-cis retinal
161
Metarhodopsin II ( active rhodopsin) breaks into ______ and _______
Scotopsin and all trans-retinal
162
All trans retinal can be converted into ________ which is AKA vitamin A
All-trans retinol
163
________ is activated rhodopsin
Metarhodopsin II
164
What is the function of metarhodopsin II?
Excites the rods
165
What is the role of vitamin A in rhodopsin activation?
Needed to supply eye with retinal as needed; | Excess is stored in the pigment epithelium
166
In reconstituting rhodopsin, all trans retinal is converted to _______ and recombined with _____
11-cis retinal ; scotopsin
167
What is the result of vitamin A deficiency
Night blindness | Main cause of blindness world wide
168
Rods use ______, cones use _____
Rods - scotopsin | Cones- photopsins ( color opsins)
169
What are the 3 types of color opsins (photopsins)?
Blue-sensitive Green-sensitive Red sensitive
170
T/F: rod receptor potential is hyperpolarizing, not depolarizing
True
171
In the excitation of rods: In the DARK state, _____ cGMP levels keep Na+ channels _______ making a RMP of -40mV In the LIGHT state, _______ leads to hydrolysis of cGMP making Na+ channels ______
Dark state: high cGMP, Na channels open Light state: activated rhodopsin leads to hydrolysis of cGMP; Na channels close
172
Mechanism of excitation of rods (5 steps):
``` Light activates rhodopsin Rhodopsin activates transducin Transducin activates phosphodiesterase Phosphodiesterase converts cGMP into GMP Therefore less cGMP is available to keep cGMP gated Na channels open ```
173
What type of channels are important in rhodopsin excitation?
cGMP-gated Na+ channels
174
The cascade from rhodopsin activation by photons to the activation of phosphodiesterase is ______. Such that a single photon can lead to _______ in Na+ conductance
Amplify | Significant drop in Na+ conductance
175
________ is the enzyme that inactivates the activated rhodopsin (metarhodopsin II) and the rest resets.
Rhodopsin kinase
176
What are the peaks of wavelengths the 3 photopsins are sensitive to?
Blue - 445 nm Green - 535 nm Red - 570 nm
177
The ______ portion of all visual pigments is the same
Retinal
178
Is the mechanism for excitation of cones the same as rods?
Yes
179
Are cones more or less sensitive to light than rods?
Less sensitive about 30-300 times
180
How does the brain interpret colors?
Based on the degree to which cone or cones respond to a particular wavelength of light. The proportion to which each is stimulated determines color perception
181
What makes someone red-green color blind?
Absence of either green (deuteranope) or red cones (protanope)
182
______ is a type of color blindness inherited as an X-linked trait.
Red-green colorblind
183
_______ (______) is due to underrepresented blue cones it is rare and NOT X-linked
Blue weakness (tritanope)
184
_______ is total color blindness
Monochromacy
185
In rod monochromacy the retina has no _______ | In cone monochromacy there is only ________ of the cones
Rod- retina has no cones Cone- only has one of the 3 cones
186
What is used to test for color blindness?
Ishihara test plates
187
________ can see all colors _________ reduced ability to see red ________ reduced ability to see green
Trichromacy Protanopia Deuteranopia
188
What is the mechanism of light adaptation?
When in bright light for a while, muscle of the photopigments in the rods and cones would be reduced to retinal and opsins. Some retinal will be converted to vitamin A. Therefore sensitivity will be reduced.
189
What is the mechanism of dark adaptation?
Retinal and opsin are re-converted to photopigments to increase sensitivity
190
Compare rods vs cones in adaptation
Cones adapt faster | Rods have a broader range of sensitivities
191
_________ synapse wiht bipolar cells and horizontal cells
Photoreceptors (rods and cones)
192
_________ transmit horizontal signals from photoreceptors to bipolar cells
Horizontal cells
193
_______ transmit signals vertically from photoreceptors and horizontal cells to the inner plexiform layer
Bipolar cells
194
_______ cells transmit either directly from bipolar cells to ganglion cells or horizontally within the inner plexiform layer or to other _____ cells
Amacrine | Amacrine
195
What three places do amacrine cells transmit their signals from?
1) directly from bipolar cells to ganglion cells 2) horizontally within the inner plexiform layer 3) to other amacrine cells
196
______ transmit output signals from the retina to the optic nerve
Ganglion cells
197
_________ cells are involved in retrograde signals that help control degree of contrast in the visual image
Interplexiform cells
198
What is the order of neural circuitry of the retina in the fovea?
Cones -> bipolar cells -> ganglion cells
199
In the fovea there is ______ convergence, ______ system for sharp color and _______ and ____ cells cause lateral inhibition
Little convergence Fast system for sharp color Also horizontal and amacrine cells cause lateral inhibition
200
What is the neural circuitry in the peripheral retina?
Both rods and cones -> bipolar cells -> amacrine cells -> ganglion cells (some bypass amacrine)
201
In the fovea and the peripheral retina ______ and ______ cells have lateral inhibition roles
Horizontal | Amacrine
202
Retinal cells except _______ cells do not form action potentials
Ganglion cells
203
What is the only cell in the retina that actually forms an AP?
Ganglion cell
204
How do the retinal cells conduct signals to the deeper layers of the retina?
direct Electrical current
205
Direct electrical current in the retina allows for ________ conduction instead of _________
Graded conduction instead of all or none conduction
206
Photoreceptors have a _____ membrane potential | Bipolar cells have a _______ membrane potential
Hyperpolarizing Depolarizing
207
_______ cells connect laterally between rods, cones and bipolar cells
Horizontal cells
208
Is the output of horizontal cells inhibitory or excitatory
Always inhibitory
209
________ prevents lateral spread of light excitation on the retina visual field
Lateral inhibition through the horizontal cells
210
What is essential for transmitting contrast borders in the visual image?
Lateral inhibition
211
What are examples of amacrine cell functions of different types of amacrine cells
1) direct pathway for rod vision 2) responds rapidly to stimulus onset 3) responds rapidly to stimulus off set 4) responds to both onset and offset 5) group is directionally sensitive
212
T/F: visual information is processed before the signals leave the eye
True
213
There are many more rods and cones than ganglion cells, therefore there are a lot of __________ circuits within the retina
Convergence
214
In the fovea there is _____ (more or less?) convergence than in the periphery
Less
215
What features of the fovea improve acuity?
Much less convergence than in the periphery | Cones are slender to pack in more photoreceptors
216
In the peripheral retina, the rods are ________ light sensitive and there is ______ convergence
Much more sensitive to light | More convergence
217
What features of the peripheral retina improve dim light perception?
Rods are much more light sensitive | There is more convergence in rods
218
Ganglion cell axons converge to form the ______ that leaves the eye at the ______
Optic nerve | Blind spot
219
Ganglion cells produce _______ potentials while rods, cones and other retinal cells produce _________ types of potentials.
Ganglion cells - action potentials (AP) | Rods cones and other cells- electrotonic conduction
220
What are the two ganglion cell populations?
``` P cells (parvocellular) M cells (magnocellular) ```
221
``` P cells have _______ receptive fields ______ impulse conduction ________ responses to stimuli ________ to color stimulus ```
Smaller receptive fields Slower impulse conduction More sustained responses to stimuli Sensitive to color stimulus
222
M cells are more sensitive to contrast _______ and ______ stimuli
Contrast black and white stimuli
223
The opthalmic artery gives rise to what 2 artery’s that supply the eye?
Central retinal artery | Posterior ciliary arteries
224
What is the blood supply to the retina itself?
Central retinal artery
225
the central retinal artery enters the _________ to enter the _______ of the eye then branches throughout the retina
Optic nerve | Blind spot
226
What is the blood supply to the choroid coat and outer segments of the rods and cones?
Posterior ciliary arteries
227
retinal detachment is when the neural retina occasionally detaches from the _______
Pigment epithelium
228
What are 2 examples of causes of retinal detachment?
Injury | Pulling effect by defective vitreous humor fibers
229
The direct visual pathway from the ganglion cells to the visual cortex is: Ganglion cells form the _______ Optic nerves from both eyes converge on the _________. The fibers emerge from chiasm as the ________ which terminates in the _________
Optic nerve Optic chiasm Optic tract -> lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
230
In the visual pathway once the optic tract terminates in the lateral geniculate nucleus, second order fibers project ot the ________ via the ______
Occipital cortex via the geniculocalcarine tract (aka optic radiations)
231
The primary visual cortex is in brodmanns area _____ in the gyri next to the _______ fissure
17 | Calcarine fissure
232
Optic nerves converge at the optic chiasm. There is a ______ retina that decussates and a _____ retina that does not
Nasal retina decussates | Temporal retina does not
233
Lateral visual field projects to the ______ retina | Medial visual field projects to the _____ retina
``` Medial retina (nasal retina) Lateral retina (temporal retina) ```
234
Nasal retina of ______ eye (R or L?) and the temporal retina of the _____ eye(R or L?) projects to the right visual cortex
Nasal retina of left eye Temporal retina of the right eye Project to the right visual cortex
235
What are 3 older areas of the brain that the visual pathways also connect?
``` Suprachiasmatic nucleus (hypothalamus) Prerectal area (midbrain) Superior colliculus ```
236
_________ has visual fibers involved and functions to control circadian rhythms
Suprachiasmatic nucleus (hypothalamus)
237
________ is a older area of the brain associated wiht the visual pathways in which reflex movements of the eyes and activating pupillary light reflex
Prerectal area (midbrain)
238
_______ is an older area of the brain also associated with the visual pathway; it functions in controlling rapid directional movements of the two eyes
Superior colliculus
239
the lateral geniculate nucleus has 2 layers of cells. Magnocellular and pravocellular. Layers 1 and 2 receive information from ________ cells. Layers 3-6 receive information from _______cells
Layers 1 and 2: M cells (magnocellular) | Layers 3-6: P cells (parvocellular)
240
Layers 1 and 2 of the lateral geniculate nucleus are magnocellular layers which have _______ vision and poor ________
Black and white vision | Poor point -point discrimination
241
Layers 3-6 of the lateral geniculate nucleus are parvocellular layers which have _____ vision, good ________ and ______velocity
Color vision Point-point discrimination is good Slower velocity
242
What are other names for the visual cortex?
V1 and striate cortex
243
Where does the visual cortex lie?
Along the calcarine fissure of the medial occipital lobe | Brodmanns area 17
244
In the primary visual cortex, signals from the ______ are most posterior and _______ is more anterior
Macula most posterior | Peripheral vision most anterior
245
Where in the primary visual cortex does the upper retina project to? Lower retina?
Upper retina- gyrus superior to the calcarine fissure | Lower retina - goes lower to the lower gyrus
246
What is another name for secondary visual cortex?
V2, visual association area
247
Secondary visual cortex surrounds the ________. Brodmanns area _____
Primary area | 18
248
V1 (primary visual cortex has _________ layers
6
249
________ fibers of the primary visual cortex mainly terminate in layer IV
Geniculocalcarine
250
The M cells and P cells terminate in different subsections of layer ______ then signals are passed vertically to more superficial and deep layers. layers I-III transmit ______ distances Layers V-VI transmit ______ distances
IV Short Further
251
________ columns processes a bit of visual information. Some columns form _________ which are primary areas for deciphering color
Vertical neuronal columns; color blobs
252
T/F: signals from the two eyes remain separate until they reach the cortex for comparison
True
253
Lateral retina of the left eye P ganglion cell -> _______ layer layers 3-5-> a particular visual column in the ______ visual cortex
Ipsilateral LGN | Left visual cortex
254
Columns from the left and right eye in the cortex are ______ to each other and are compared there to check if the images are ________
Adjacent ; “in register”
255
What is the basis of stereopsis and important to adjust the directional gaze so the eyes are focused not he object of interest?
Columns for the left and right in the cortex are adjacent to each other like stripes and are compared there to check if the images are in register
256
Cortical visual analysis has a ______ and ______ pathway
Fast and slow
257
The fast pathway for cortical visual analysis is for _______ and _______
Position and motion
258
slower pathway of cortical visual analysis are for ______ and _____
Accuracy and color
259
_______ pathway of ______ analyzes gross physical form of the scene and detects motion
Fast pathway of cortical visual analysis
260
Fast pathway of cortical visuala nalysis mainly uses information from _______ ganglion cells (______, _____)
M ganglion cells (rapid signals, no color)
261
After the fast pathway leaves V1 it goes to ________ cortex where it merges with signals from the somatic association area
V2 occipitoparietal cortex (secondary visual cortex)
262
The slower pathway of cortical analysis is for ______ and _______
Accuracy and color
263
________ analyses visual detail and color. Uses information from P ganglion cells as well as M
Slower pathway of visual cortical analysis
264
After the slower pathway leaves the primary cortex it goes tot eh secondary visual cortex in the _______ and ______ areas of the ______ and _____ cortex
Inferior ventral and medial | Occipital and temporal
265
Which pathway In cortical visual analysis is necessary for reading, seeing texture and detailed color?
Slower pathway of cortical visual analysis
266
A blind spot is found ab out ______ degrees _______ to the central point of vision
15 degrees lateral
267
What occurs when there is a lesion of the right optic nerve?
Total blindness of the right eye
268
What occurs due to a lesion involving the right perichiasmal area?
Right nasal hemianopia
269
What occurs due to a midline chiasm always lesion?
Bipolar (Bitemporal) hemianopia
270
What occurs due to a lesion o pressure on the right optic tract?
Left homonymous hemianopia
271
What occurs due to a lesion of the right occipital
Left homonymous hemianopia
272
What eye muscles moves eyes sideways
Medial and lateral recti
273
What muscles moves eyes up and down?
Superior and inferior recti
274
What muscles rotate eyeballs to keep visual fields upright?
Superior and inferior oblique
275
CN III innervates what eye muscles? CN IV? CN VI?
III - all other extraocular muscles IV- superior oblique VI- lateral rectus
276
Medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) receives information from what 4 areas?
``` Vestibular nuclei (equillibrium) Lateral lemniscus (hearing) Superior colliculus (visual) Frontotectal tract (voluntary movements) ```
277
What are the efferents of the medial longitudinal fasciculus?
CN III, IV, VI to control extraocular muscles
278
_______ functions to coordinate head and eye movements in response to visual, auditory, balance and voluntary signals
Medial longitudinal fasciculus
279
_______ is within the brain stem and links the vestibular nuclei with the nuclei supplying the extraocular muscles and coordination of the head and eye movements
MLF
280
How is voluntary fixation controlled?
The premotor area in the frontal lobe
281
How is involuntary fixation controlled?
Controlled by area in secondary visual cortex
282
What si the difference between voluntary and involuntary fixation?
Voluntary - voluntarily setting your gaze Involuntary- locks the gaze on the object. Can only be unlocked by voluntary override or by closing eyes
283
The eyes have a continuous tremor, to _______ and may drift its gaze.
To keep the visual stimulus fresh
284
When an object drifts for the fovea as a result of these continuous tremors, the eyes reflexively move the object back (______)
Saccades
285
The mechanism of involuntary fixation’s effect is mediated by the _________
Superior colliculus Superior colliculus also causes you to turn your head toward a visual disturbance involuntary
286
What are 2 examples of saccadic movement?
Optokinetic movements (when riding in a car, the eyes fix on successive objects then jump to the next) Reading (eyes do not smoothly can from left to right when reading. Does a series fo saccades from one group of words to the next)
287
________ is fixation on a moving object
Pursuit movement
288
Fixation on a moving object is ______ (smooth or choppy)? The eyes get fixed on amoving object, then move with the object wot keep it in the _______
Smooth ; fovea
289
In ________ of visual images, the two eyes must be aimed the correct direction in order for the points of the same image to land on both fovea. If not the image will not be ________
Fusion of visual images | Fused
290
In ________ because the eyes are about 2 inches apart, images can never be completely fused. The closer an object is to the face the more interference there will be
Stereopsis
291
What is the basis of binocular depth perception?
Stereopsis
292
_________ is due to lack of fusion between the 2 eyes?
Strabismus
293
_______ is Often due to some damage to one of the ocular CN‘s
Strabismus (lack of fusion between 2 eyes
294
Strabismus may be due to cortical reasons as well when the brain ignores one eye due to _______
Prolonged issuers wiht poor fusion or focus (amblyopia or lazy eye)
295
Explain the pupillary light reflex. And what are the 2 types?
Shining a light into one eye causes bilateral pupil constriction (sphincter of the iris) Direct (same eye) consensual (opposite eye)
296
The pupillary light reflex’s motor pathway is similar to cause _________
Lens focus (ciliary muscle)
297
Interruption in Sympathetic innervation to iris is called _______
Horner’s syndrome
298
Interruption of the sympathetic pathway to the head leads to ______, _______ and ______
Mitosis (pupil constriction) Anhydrosis (lack of sweating on affected side) Ptosis (droopy eyelid)
299
What are 3 effects of accommodation (focusing for near objects)?
Constriction of the pupils Increased lens thickness (ciliary muscle contraction) Medial convergence of eyes
300
What is the pathway of accommodation reflex?
Blurred retinal image-> retinal nervous elements -> optic nerve -> optic chiasma -> optic tract -> LGB (thalamus) -> optic radiation -> primary visual area (17); occipital lobe and association visual area (18 and 19)