Unit 2 Review Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

Electromagnetic radiation exists both as Maxwell’s wave and as streams of particles called:

A

Photons

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2
Q

Amplitude of the electro magnetic sine wave is defined as:

A
  • the length of the electronic vector at maximum peak height
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3
Q

A nano-meter is equivalent to:

A

10-9 meters

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4
Q

What is the concentration of serum uric acid in a solution whose absorbance is 0.098, cuvette path length, 1.0 cm, absorptivity is 0.102 L g-1cm-1?

A

0.96 mg/L

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5
Q

What is the concentration of creatinine in a serum sample if given the following?

A test = 0.150
A standard = 0.90
C standard = 1.0 mg/dL

A

0.167 mg/dL

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6
Q

Which of the following type of light sources emits radiation that changes in intensity very slowly as a function of wavelength?

A
  • continuum source
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7
Q

Filters and diffraction gratings are examples of which of the following?

A

Monochromators

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8
Q

The wavelength in nanometers at peak transmittance is termed:

A

Nominal wavelength

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9
Q

Bandpass is defined as:

A

The total range of wavelengths transmitted

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10
Q

A photomultiplier tube functions to:

A

Increase the electronic signal produced as photons cascade from dynode to dynode

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11
Q

Didymium and holmium oxide filters are used to assess:

A

Wavelength

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12
Q

Which of the following is a cause of stray light failure in a spectrophotmeter?

A

Room light entering the spectrophotometer and impinging upon the detector

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13
Q

Light reflecting off a urine dipstick absorbent surface is an example of which the following?

A
  • diffuse reflectance
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14
Q

What of the following describe atoms absorption spectroscopy?

A

The absorption of monochromatic electromagnetic radiation by an element in its ground state with a net zero charge

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15
Q

Which of the following statements best illustrates the difference between photons from fluorescent emission and the excitation photons?

A

Emission photons are lower energy and longer wavelengths

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16
Q

The polarization of light in fluorescent polarization immunoassay allows the measurement of which of the following?

A

Bound fraction in the presence of the free fraction

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17
Q

A chelate of europium (Eu3+) is used in which of the following assays?

A

Time-resolved fluorescent immunoassays

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18
Q

Oxidation of acridinium esters by hydrogen peroxide in the presence of peroxidase produces which of the following?

A

Chemiluminescence

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19
Q

Turbidimetry is the measurement of the reduction in light transmission caused by:

A

Particle formation

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20
Q

The presence of particulates in a urine same measured by a refractometry will result in which of the following?

A

A change in the critical angle of the light as it passes through the solution

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21
Q

Which of the following accounts for the temperature rise in freezing point osmometry?

A

Heat of fusion

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22
Q

Which of the following electrical devices senses the freezing point of a solution in an osmometer?

A

A thermistor

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23
Q

Through is defined as:

A

Number of tests performed per hour

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24
Q

Which of the following statements best describes discrete testing?

A

Measure only the test requested on a sample

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25
Any specimen, by a command to the processing systems, can be analyzed by an available process, in or out of sequence with other specimens, and without regard to their initial order describes which type of sample processing principle?
Random access analysis
26
A designated area where a limited number of specific tasks are completed described which of the following terms ?
Work station
27
Which of the following devices is suitable to detect clots in serum specimens?
Pressure transducer
28
A glucose result is falsely elevated and it was discovered that the previous sample on the sample carousel has abnormally high serum glucose. Which of the following can cause this error?
Carryover
29
Which of the following statements best describes unit test reagents?
There is sufficient reagent present for the performance of a single test
30
Which of the following represents a disadvantage to acquiring and implementing total laboratory automation?
The initial costs are very high
31
Increase test throughput, reduce turnaround time, and compensate for staff shortages are all examples of which of the following?
Factors that drive automation
32
Automating laboratory testing has resulting which of the following?
A reduction in the number of laboratory errors
33
Which of the following is an example of software that allows a laboratory to connect their existing LIS and instrumentation to facilitate sharing information and performs tasks not currently done with laboratories existing hardware and software?
Middleware
34
Direct tube sampling by automated analyzer eliminated the need to perform which of the following tasks?
Pour off specimens into another container
35
A test menu is:
A listing of all of the tests or analytes that the instrument is capable of measuring
36
The chemical bonds between amino acids in the primary structure of proteins are:
Peptide bonds
37
Protein is approximately _________ nitrogen
16%
38
The structure of a protein that is determined by the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain is the:
Primary structure
39
The common ingredients of all biuret reagents are:
Sodium potassium tartrate copper sulfate, and sodium hydroxide
40
Hyperalbuminemia is caused by:
Dehyration syndromes
41
Bromcresol Green (BCG) may be used in the dye binding assay of:
Albumin
42
In agarose gel electrophoresis of human serum at pH 8.6, the slowest moving fraction is:
Y-globulin
43
High serum total protein but low albumin is usually seen in:
Multiple myeloma
44
Which of the following serum proteins migrates with the beta globulins on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6?
Hemopexin
45
Absence of a large decrease in the alpha-1 globulin peak in a serum electrophoresis pattern suggests:
Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
46
A protein that is increased or normal in nephrotic syndrome is:
A2-macroglobulin
47
The principal protein for transport of iron from the intestine to the liver, bone marrow, or spleen for storage is:
Transferrin
48
Ceruloplasmin is an a2-globulin that contains:
Copper
49
Myeloma (Bence Jones) protein is MOST often found electrophoretically in the area of:
Y-globulin
50
A decrease in this protein will result in an emphysema-like condition
A1-antitrypsin
51
In an acute phase reaction, there is an:
Decrease in albumin, increase in a1-globulin, a2-globulin, and a3-globulin
52
Which of the following conditions is usually associated with an acute inflammatory pattern?
Myocardial infarction
53
Marys total protein is 7.5 g/dL and her albumin is 4.2 g/dL. What is her A/G ratio?
1.3
54
Which protein band comprises 2-4% of the relative protein?
A1-globulin
55
What is the clinical significance of testing for tranthyretin?
Low levels indicate compromised nutritional status
56
Which is the most abundant y-globulins?
IgG
57
Bill has a total protein of 7.5 g/dL and his protein electrophoresis reports a 12% B-globulin. What is his B-globulin level in g/dL?
0.9 g/L
58
Which condition is associated with fusion of the B-y bridging?
Cirrhosis
59
Which of the following conditions is associated with an elevated total protein?
Malignancy
60
Which of the following proteins is part of the coagulation cascade?
Fibrinogen
61
Which of the following is NOT an NPN substance?
Troponin T
62
Urea/BUN is produced from:
The catabolism of proteins and amino acids
63
An elevated BUN usually indicates:
Kidney disease
64
Bun is increased with:
A high protein diet
65
In the Berthelot method, BUN is measured by reaction with:
Phenol and sodium hydrochloride
66
Urea can be measured by incubation with urease followed by all of the following except:
Formation of a colored product by reaction with diacetyl
67
Normal values for urea are generally expressed as urea nitrogen. If it is necessary to convert urea nitrogen values to urea, the concentration may be calculated easily by multiplying the urea nitrogen value by:
2.14
68
A BUN of 10 mg/dL is obtained by a technologist. What is the urea concentration?
21.4 mg/dL
69
A Renal azotemia is found in:
Nephrotic syndrome
70
Prerenal hyperuricemia is caused by:
Dehydration
71
Creatinine is formed from the:
Oxidation of creatine
72
Creatinine reacts with strong alkaline picrate to form a yellow-red compound. This reaction is:
Jaffe reaction
73
Creatinine levels are usually:
0.8-1.2 mg/dL
74
A creatinine would be increased in which of the following?
Muscular dystrophy
75
Serum urea nitrogen and serum creatinine determination are frequently requested together so that their ratio may be evaluated. What is the range of the normal ratio of urea nitrogen to creatinine?
12/1 and 20/1
76
A high BUN/creatinine ratio with an elevated creatinine is usually seen in:
Postrenal azotemia
77
A technologist obtains a BUN value of 61 mg/dL and serum creatinine value of 3.5mg/dL on a patient. The BUN/creatinine ratio indicates:
Renal failure
78
Increased uric acid is found in each of the following conditions except:
Hypothyroidism
79
All of the following conditions are associated with hyperuricemia except:
Liver failure
80
Uric acid values are usually elevated in patients with leukemia because of the breakdown of:
Nucleic acid (adenine and guanine)
81
Uric acid may be determined with:
Both B and C B. The enzyme uricase C. Formation of a blue color phosphotungastic acid
82
The creatinine clearance test is routinely used to assess the glomerular filtration rate. Given the following information for an average size adult, calculate a creatinine clearance Urine creatinine: 120 mg/dL Plasma creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL 24hr urine volume: 1520 mL
105.6 mL/min
83
The chief source of error in kidney evaluation using the excretion rate of substance is:
The timing and completeness of collection
84
An exogenous substance used to assess the glomerular filtration rate that afford the most accurate measure of renal clearance
Insulin
85
Which condition is associated with massive proteinuria?
Nephrotic syndrome
86
The protein section of the reagent strip is MOST sensitive to:
Albumin
87
Dipstick reaction for blood are based on:
The peroxidase activity of hemoglobin
88
Leukocyte reagent strips are used to detect leukocyte:
Esterases