Unit 3 Review Flashcards
(111 cards)
1
Q
An isomer of glucose with the -OH group of the anomeric carbon C1 that is below the plane of the ring or on the right-hand side is:
A
Alpha-glucose
2
Q
Which of the following carbohydrates is a polysaccharide?
A
Starch
3
Q
Gluconeogenesis is:
A
The formation of the glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, for example, amino acids, glycerol, and lactate
4
Q
Glycolysis is:
A
The conversion of glucose into lactate or pyruvate and then CO2 and H2O
5
Q
Glycogen is stored in the:
A
Liver
6
Q
Which of the following is the primary hypoglycemic hormone?
A
Glucagon
7
Q
Which of the following hormones does NOT stimulate glycogenolysis?
A
Insulin
8
Q
A patients low glucose, increased insulin, and increased C-peptide is caused by:
A
Insulinoma
9
Q
The only hormone that causes a decrease in blood glucose levels is:
A
Insulin
10
Q
Which of the following is characteristic of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A
Obesity and physical inactivity
11
Q
Which form of diabetes usually manifests itself early in life, and is associated with ketosis, low insulin levels, and autoantibodies to islet cells?
A
Type 1
12
Q
All of the following are associated with gestational diabetes except:
A
Is diagnosed using the same glucose tolerance criteria as in nonpregnant women
13
Q
All of the following are confirmatory of diabetes mellitus except:
A
Urine-glucose greater than 300 mg/dL
14
Q
Complications of diabetes mellitus include all of the following except:
A
Hepatitis
15
Q
Instructions for patients preparing for a glucose tolerance tests include all of the following except:
A
Caffeine and smoking are permitted before and during the test
16
Q
A patient with an insulinoma may exhibit dizziness and fainting attributable to:
A
Hypoglycemia
17
Q
What type of hypoglycemia is exhibited 8 hours after a meal?
A
Fasting
18
Q
All of the following statements about clinical hypoglycemia are true except:
A
High fasting insulin levels must be present to make a diagnosis
19
Q
Select the enzyme that is most specific for Beta-Delta glucose:
A
Glucose oxidase
20
Q
The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction ATP + D-glucose —> ADP + D-glucose-6-phosphate is:
A
Hexokinase
21
Q
In the hexokinase method for glucose determinations, the actual end product measured is the:
A
NADPH + H + produced from the reduction of NADP
22
Q
Glucose concentration in serum is:
A
Higher than the concentration in whole blood
23
Q
In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium fluoride:
A
Inhibits glycolysis
24
Q
Which of the following 2-hour glucose results would be classified as impaired glucose tolerance?
A
160 mg/dL
25
The glucose concentration in normal cerebrospinal fluid is:
60-75% of the plasma glucose concentration
26
If a patients serum glucose is 100 mg/dL, what would you expect the cerebrospinal fluid glucose to read?
68 mg/dL
27
A sneaky diabetic tired to lower her glucose by working out and watching her diet 1 or 2 days before her appointment. The rest of the time she spent the day in front of the television and eating chocolates. What test could the doctor order to detect this type of behavior?
A glycosylated hemoglobin
28
Which statement regarding glycosylated hemoglobin is true?
* All of the Above
- It has a sugar attached to the N-terminal valine of the Beta-chain of the hemoglobin molecule
- it is dependent upon the time averaged blood glucose over the lifespan of the RBC
- levels below 7% indicate adequate regulation for 8-12 weeks prior to sampling
29
Of the following blood glucose levels, which would you expect to result in glucose in the urine?
200 mg/dL
30
The following glucose tolerance test values are indicative of what state?
Fasting: 85 mg/dL
1/2 hour: 135 mg/dL
1 hour: 139 mg/dL
2 hour: 130 mg/dL
Normal
31
Bile acids are synthesized in the liver from which lipid?
Cholesterol
32
Cholesterol is a:
Cuclopentanoperhydrophenthrene nucleus
33
What percentage of serum cholesterol in present in the form of esters?
60-75%
34
Which of the following lipid are derivatives of fatty acids comprised of 20C atoms including a 5 C cyclopentane ring?
Prostaglandins
35
Which of the following lipid fractions are very large molecules with a low density and give plasma a milky appearance when present in increased amounts?
Chylomicrons
36
The lipoprotein fraction that has the highest ratio of liquid to protein is:
Chylomicrons
37
Acyl-cholesterol acyltransferase:
Converts free cholesterol to esterified cholesterol for storage
38
Which of the following is FALSE concerning blood cholesterol concentrations?
Increased cholesterol is associated with hyperthyroidism
39
Which of the following tests would be included in a routine lipid profile?
Cholesterol, LDL-cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, triglycerides
40
This first step in the enzymatic cholesterol reaction, which results in free cholesterol esterase, is:
Hydrolysis of cholesterol esters
41
The enzymatic determination of glycerol in triglycerides analysis usually involve conversion of glycerol to:
Glycerol phosphate
42
The serum of a freshly drawn blood sample is slightly turbid. This is probably because:
Triglycerides only are increased
43
In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, cholesterol and triglycerides are:
Increased
44
The BORDERLINE range for cholesterol levels as determined by NCEP is:
200-240 mg/dL
45
Select the desirable cutoff for serum LDL cholesterol recommended by the National Cholesterol Education Porgram
200 mg/dL
46
Which of the following test combinations indicates the highest risk for coronary heart disease?
Increased total cholesterol, decreased HDL cholesterol
47
A 52-year old man went to his donor for a physical examination. The patient was overweight and had missed his last two appointments because of business dealings. His blood pressure was elevated, his cholesterol was 250 mg/dL, and his triglyceride was 170 mg/dL. A high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol test was performed and the result was 30 mg/dL (20-60 mg/dL). Which of the following would be this patients calculated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol value?
186 mg/dL
48
Which apolipoprotein has the ability to increase the risk of coronary heart disease?
Apo B100
49
The Friedwald formula for estimating LDL cholesterol should NOT be used when:
Triglycerides a greater than 400 mg/dL
50
HDL cholesterol + LDL cholesterol + Chylomicrons —> HDL. Which is NOT used as a precipitating reagent for determining cholesterol?
Sulfosalicylic acid
51
Which of the following is a group of interrelated metabolic risk factors that appear to directly promote the development of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease?
Metabolic syndrome
52
Risk factors for coronary heart disease include all of the following except:
High HDL cholesterol
53
The National Cholesterol Education Program ATP III goal for desirable HDL cholesterol is:
Greater than or equal to 60 mg/dL
54
The following are criteria for Clinical Diagnosis of Metabolic Syndrome except:
Low fasting glucose
55
Secondary causes of elevated LDL include all of the following except:
Hyperthyroidism
56
Zero order kinetics results:
When all of the available sites on the enzyme are saturated with substrate
57
The protein part of the enzyme molecule WITH the cofactor is called a(n):
Holoenzyme
58
Ligases are a class of enzymes that catalyze:
The coupling of two molecules with the use of ATP
59
Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of groups other than hydrogen between compounds are classified as belonging to which enzyme class?
Transferase
60
Many enzymes in the blood plasma show maximum activity in which of the following pH ranges?:
7 to 8
61
In competitive inhibition of an enzyme reaction:
The inhibitor binds to the enzyme at the same site as does the substrate
62
The indicator reaction (what is actually measured) in Oliver-Rosalki is:
The reduction of NADP+
63
Although a total lactate dehydrogenase (LD) determination performed alone yields little information as to the area of tissue destruction, an electrophoresis separation of LD isoenzyme may be useful. With what disorder is an increase in LD-5 and LD-4 associated?
Acute hepatic disease
64
Aspartame aminotransferase is elevated is diseases involving the:
Heart Muscle
65
Malate dehydrogenase (MD) is used in the aspartate transferase reaction mixture to convert:
Oxaloaccetate to L-malate
66
In which liver disease is the DeRitis ratio (AST:ALT) usually less than or equal to 1?
Acute viral hepatitis
67
The highest levels of alkaline phosphatase are seen in:
Obstructive liver disease q
68
Which of the following would NOT show an increase in alkaline phosphatase?
Osteoporosis
69
The most sensitive indicator of alcoholic liver disease is:
GammaGT
70
Which of the following are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis?
*both A and C above
- galstones or obstructing tumor
- acute alcohol ingestion or drug use
71
Serum lipase catalyzes:
Hydrolysis of triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol
72
A substrate used in lipase reaction is:
Olive oil emulsion
73
The best test for pancreatitis in the presence of mumps is:
A serum lipase test
74
Serum chemistry results on a 53-year-old female are:
AST: 120 U/L (4-34 U/L)
ALT: 185 U/L (5-40 U/L)
ALP: 785 U/L (<165 U/L)
GammaGT: 225 U/L (5-24 U/L)
Total bilirubin: 10.8 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin: 8.6 mg/dL
Urine bilirubin: positive
Urine urobilinogen: Normal
Fecal urobilinogen: decreased
These results are consistent with a diagnosis of:
Biliary obstruction
75
Mrs. Smith has the following chemistry results:
CK: moderately increased
LD: moderately increased
LD-1: increased
The probable diagnosis is:
Myocardial infarction
76
A patients CK-MB is reported as 18 ug/L and the total CK is 560 IU/L. What is the CK relative index (CKI)?
3.2%
77
The prostatic fraction of acid phosphatase is inhibited by:
Tartrate
78
Which of the following sets of results would be consistent with macroamylosemia?
Increased serum amylase and normal urine amylase values
79
Cholinesterase catalyzes the conversion of:
Acetylcholine to choline and acetic acid
80
Levels of this enzyme are useful in the diagnosis of a genetic defect, which leads to increased apnea (difficulty breathing) after surgery using succinylcholine choline
Cholinesterase
81
THC (9-tetrahydrocannabinol) is the principal active metabolite of which of the following?
Marijuana
82
Urine adulteration test strips are designed to detect which of the following?
*All of the above
- bleach
- Nitrites
- Creatinine
83
which of the following cytochromes plays a major role in the metabolism of drugs in the liver?
Cytochrome P450
84
Levels of 89% carboxyhemoglobin saturation of whole blood are commonly found in which of the following?
Fatal Carbon monoxide poisoning
85
Imipramine is classified as:
Tricyclic antidepressant
86
Which of the following classes of compounds has a sedative effect and is used to treat anxiety?
Benzodiazepines
87
ID of the urinary metabolite benzolecgonine would be useful in determine the presence of which of the following compounds?
Cocaine
88
The toxic effect of acetaminophen overdose is:
Hepatocystic necrosis
89
The reason that carbon monoxide is so toxic is because it:
Has 200-250 times the affinity of oxygen for hemoglobin binding sites
90
Which of the following biological fluids is the specimen of choice for screening and/or analyzing drugs of abuse?
Urine
91
Possible risks of hepatocellular damage due to toxic blood levels of acetaminophen are evaluated based on blood levels and which of the following?
Time (hours) post ingestion
92
Overexposure to compounds such as Marathon, Parathion, Diazinon, Sevin, and Fuadan insecticides may prompt a physician to order which of the following tests?
Pseudocholinesterase
93
Ethanol metabolizes to which of the following acids?
Acetic
94
Screening methods for drug abuse testing requires which of the following assay characteristics?
They must be analytically sensitive
95
Valium and Librium are examples of which of the following classes of drugs?
Benzodiazepines
96
Which of the following proteins is a cooper transport protein that migrates in the alpha2-globulin region?
Ceruloplasmin
97
Chromium in blood binds to which of the following proteins?
Chromodulin
98
A person with Menke’s syndrome will have which of the following laboratory results?
Decreased blood copper
99
Travel metals in biological fluids can be measured using which of the following instrumentation techniques?
Atomic absorption spectrometry
100
Aceruplaminemia is associated with which of the following?
Descreased blood ceruloplasmin, increased copper deposition in the liver, and increased iron deposition in tissues
101
Which of the following sets of laboratory results is associated with Wilsons disease?
Decreased plasma copper and plasma ceruloplasmin
102
Antimony is used to treat patients with which disorder?
Schistosomiasis
103
Which of the following substances when ingested can lead to an excessive amount of aluminum in blood and tissue?
Antacids and astringents
104
Which of the following statements best defines a metalloenzyme?
A trace metal that is associated with an enzyme to serve as an essential component or cofactor
105
Which of the following metals is an example of a trace metal?
Cobalt
106
Berylliosis in humans affects which of the following organs?
Lungs
107
Which of the following has a large amount of aluminum present?
Antacids
108
What is the primary route of exposure in humans to mercury?
Inhalation of vapors
109
What is the primary route of exposure in humans to mercury?
Inhalation of vapors
110
Which of the following trace metals is classified as essential?
Chromium
111
What is the best test to assess a patient who has been exposed to beryllium?
Beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test (BeLPT)
