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Flashcards in Unit 3 Deck (59):
1

Which of the following is an example of a continuous schedule of reinforcement?

FR1

2

Which of the following best defines a ratio schedule of reinforcement?

Reinforcement is provided following a pre-specified number of responses

3

Which of the following best defines an interval schedule of reinforcement?

Reinforcement is provided for the first response that follows some amount of time

4

Which of the following best defines a response independent schedule of reinforcement?

Deliver stimuli known in other contexts to be reinforcers solely on the basis of time, independent of responding

5

Which of the following best defines differential reinforcement of low-rate behavior (DRL)?

t s without response, then 1 response

6

Which of the following best defines differential reinforcement of other behavior DRO?

T s without a response

7

Which of the following best defines a skill deficit?

Task materials and relevant instructions do not occasion predetermined level of performance in absence of prompts

8

Which of the following best defines a performance deficit?

The skill is intact, but the person is unmotivated to respond under appropriate stimulus conditions

9

Which of the following patterns of responding following supplemental reinforcement for correct responding suggest a performance deficit?

Responding very rapidly increases

10

Which of the following best defines a shaping?

Some property of responding is gradually changed by differentially reinforcing successive approximations to target behavior

11

In shaping, infrequent reinforcer delivery can result in which of the following?

Decrease or extinguish responding

12

In a lag 5 reinforcement schedule, the current response is reinforced if:

It differs from the last 5 preceding responses along the specified dimension responses along the specified dimension

13

In what order are prompts provided in least-to-most prompting?

Verbal, gestural, physical guidance

14

Reinforcing only unprompted correct responses may lead to which of the following?

Infrequent reinforcers

15

What is the ultimate goal of prompting?

Promote independent responding

16

Under what conditions is independent responding likely to be more rapidly acquired or increase more reliably?

Reinforce unprompted responses only

17

All of the following may account for what appears to be lessened intrinsic motivation,

Satiation, contrast effects, learned helplessness

18

Under what conditions do overjustification effects appear to be more pronounced

When behavior already occurs at a high level

19

Which of the following reinforcer assessments may mask differences in relative reinforcer efficacy?

single-operant arrangement

20

Which of the following is the dependent variable used for concurrent-schedule reinforcer assessments?

relative response allocation across available alternatives

21

Which of the following is the dependent variable used for progressive ratio reinforcer assessments?

Last completed schedule requirement

22

According to the Law of Demand, all else being equal... as unit price ___ demand (consumption) ____ and vice versa.

increases; decreases

23

Which of the following type of preference assessment is generally least effortful?

Indirect

24

Which of the following best descries how stimuli are presented in the multiple stimulus preference assessments?

Present all items in the array simulataneously

25

Selected items are not returned to the array in which type of preference assessment method?

Multiple stimulus without replacement

26

Which of the following preference assessment methods may be most prone to false positives?

single-item/ approach

27

Which of the following preference assessment methods may be more sensitive to relative preferences and allows one to include a large number of stimuli?

parid stimulus

28

Which of the following schedules pre-specifies a number of responses that need to occur for reinforcement to be provided?

Ratio

29

An interval schedule of reinforcement specifies an interval of time

That needs to elapse before the next target response is reinforced

30

Differential reinforcement in which a response is reinforced only if it occurs within a pre-specified period of time since a previous response.

DRH

31

When a reinforcer follows a response, its future effect relates to:

That target response, and possibly some other responses which precede the target response (typically in close temporal contiguity)

32

Jimi does not do well when asked to fold flyers and place them into envelopes at his workshop. He takes nearly 15 minutes to complete even one envelope. A token program is put in place at the workshop, and within two days, Jimi is completing dozens of envelopes by the end of every 2-hour work session. This sudden improvement in Jimi’s productivity indicates that Jimi’s prior low rate of production was most likely due to:

A performance deficit

33

Shaping consists of gradually changing a(n)___________ by differentially reinforcing successive approximations to a target behavior

Property of responding

34

The extinction component of shaping tends to X response Y .

X = Increase

Y = Variability

35

To increase response diversity, a lag-3 schedule of reinforcement is utilized. This means that the current response is reinforced only if it…

Is different from the last 3 preceding responses (along the specified dimension)

36

Which of the following techniques may be used to promote the rapid acquisition of independent responding? Prompted responses are…

Consistently provided with less reinforcement than unprompted, independent responses

37

What term is used to refer to the type of reward that is arbitrarily related to the responses that produce it?

Extrinsic reward

38

The idea that extrinsic rewards have a detrimental effect on intrinsic motivation, and lead to a decline in some aspect(s) of an individual’s performance is otherwise known as the _____ hypothesis.

Overjustification

39

Which of the following should NOT be considered as a possible factor that could help account for apparent lessened “intrinsic” motivation after extrinsic rewards have been introduced into an environment?

Reductive effect of reinforcement (“punishment by reward”)

40

Which of the following statements is true regarding over-justification?

Over-justification is more pronounced for behavior which is already occurring at a high level (e.g., rate or fluency)

41

Which of the following statements is true regarding stimulus preference assessments (SPAs)?

SPAs are typically conducted under low effort requirements, and evoke simplistic responses

42

After conducting a stimulus preference assessment, one should still conduct a reinforcer assessment because

Stimulus preference assessments provide only a prediction of the efficacy of stimuli as reinforcers

43

Roscoe, Iwata, & Kahng (1999) compared rates of responding when consequated by high-preference and low-preference stimuli in concurrent schedules. They then assessed low-preference stimuli alone, in single-operant schedules. They found that…

The low-preference stimuli produced low rates under the concurrent schedule, but often produced high rates during the single-operant schedule

44

A progressive ratio schedule is a reinforcement schedule in which the ratio requirements increase following each X . Sessions continue until the participant ceases to respond for a(n) Y that meets a pre-determined criterion.


X = Reinforcer delivery

Y = amount of time

45

A “break point” refers to the _______ before responding ceases for a set amount of time (the session-termination criterion).

Highest schedule requirement (thinnest reinforcement schedule) completed

46

In the studies comparing differing methods of assessment, which of the following common methods used in stimulus preference assessments has been most reliable in predicting stimuli that actually function as reinforcers?

Single-stimulus or choice-based preference assessments

47

While this category of preference assessment is most accurate, it is also typically the most time-consuming method.

Direct assessment

48

In selection-based preference assessments, preference hierarchies are created based on percentages. Higher percentages indicate stronger preferences. For some forms of preference assessment, hierarchies are created by dividing:

The number of times an item was approached, by the number of times that item was available

49

During a selection-based preference assessment, Shelia presents Dylan with an array of 10 objects. When he chooses one, she allows him to manipulate it for a short time, and then removes it from the table. He now may choose from an array of 9 objects. This process continues until he makes a choice between the final two objects. Shelia keeps track of the order in which the objects are chosen. Which of the following statements is true?

As an MSWO, this will provide a reasonably sensitive preference hierarchy, with less effort for Shelia than a paired choice procedure

50

To determine how many trials you have to do, you use the following formula: The required number of trials = N (N-1)/2. This formula applies to which of the following selection-based preference assessment procedures?

Paired stimulus (aka, paired-choice) preference assessment (PS)

51

One advantage of the multiple-stimulus preference assessment is that it can:

Produce a preference hierarchy quickly, and thus may be used on a daily basis (to capture short term changes in preference hierarchies for that day)

52

In competing stimulus preference assessments, the following two measures are recorded:

The duration of stimulus engagement, and rate of problem behavior

53

When an individual has difficulty scanning an array, and often picks up whatever is put in front of them, a preference hierarchy can be still developed by using a _______ preference assessment.

Duration-based single-stimulus

54

When an individual persists in exhibiting position biases during a direct preference assessment, a behavior analyst might effectively complete a preference assessment by using ___________

Either single-stimulus approach-based procedures, or duration based procedures, but not a paired-choice procedures

55

Conyers et.al. (2002), arranged a study of the accuracy of various types of stimulus preference assessments (as measured by how often a food item, identified as preferred, was chosen in trials offering a choice of two items). They looked at learners who demonstrated discrimination and other skills at a variety of functional levels (as evaluated under the Assessment of Basic Learning Abilities (ABLA) tool). The found, as logic might also suggest, that the ______ stimulus preference assessment was the most accurate when measured across ALL learners (both low and high functioning).

Object

56

If problem behavior is maintained by access to tangible reinforcers, which SPA would be most appropriate and least likely to evoke problem behavior?

Free Operant

57

In a preference assessment study, Kuhn et.al (2006) compared (1) allowing an individual to indicate their preference between two verbally described items or activities without obtaining the item, versus (2) providing that individual with the actual tangible item or activity contingent upon that individual selecting that item. What differential effect does providing the actual item following its selection have on the resulting preference hierarchy as a predictor of how various items will function as reinforcers?

Contingent delivery of selected items leads to the identification of stimuli more likely to function as reinforcers

58

When we refer to the ecological fit of reinforcers, we are actually referring, in part, to…

The degree to which a reinforcer works as a natural component of a specific setting

59

In contingent pairing procedures, which are used to establish social reinforcers, _______.

Contingent on task completion, primary reinforcers and attention are simultaneously provided