unit 3 RED Flashcards

1
Q

only bone that does not articulate with other bones

A

hyoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adam’s apple

A

laryngeal prominence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tracheostomy entry point

A

below laryngeal prominence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

epiglottis cartilage type

A

elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

primary type of cartilage in the body

A

hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

triangle for palpating carotid pulse

A

carotid triangle (of anterior triangle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

danger space that leads directly into the mediastinum

A

retropharyngeal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

nerve that has motor + somatic/visceral sensory components (C3-C5)

A

phrenic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

C2 dorsal ramus

A

greater occipital nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1st branch off the subclavian artery

A

vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

first branch off of axillary artery

A

supreme thoracic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1st branch off of external carotid artery

A

superior thyroid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

nerve innervation of platysma

A

cervical branch of facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

nerve innervation or SCM

A

spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tightness of same side or weakness of contralateral side of SCM, unilateral impairment

A

torticollis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cranial nerve VII exits through which foramen

A

internal acoustic meatus and stylomastoid foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2 muscles innervated by C1 through hypoglossal nerve

A

geniohyoid and thyrohyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

compresses brachial plexus trunk and subclavian artery in thoracic outlet syndrome

A

anterior and middle scalene muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

compresses brachial plexus divisions/cords and subclavian/axillary arteries in thoracic outlet syndrome

A

clavicle and 1st rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2 structures spared in thoracic outlet syndrome

A

thyrocervical trunk and subclavian vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

carotid sheath components at superior neck

A

common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

bone degradation, decreased level of calcium in the body (conditions)

A

osteopenia and osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

increased level of calcium in the body (condition)

A

calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

occasional artery that supplies the thyroid and parathyroid glands 10% of the time

A

IMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
superior and middle thyroid veins drain into which vein?
internal jugular vein
26
somatic innervation of intrinsic laryngeal muscles
recurrent laryngeal nerve of vagus nerve
27
visceral motor innervation of the trachea muscles
vagus nerve (parasympathetic)
28
division line of somatic and visceral compartments
cricoid cartilage
29
larynx muscles are covered by what to create the vocal folds?
mucosa
30
location of laryngopharynx
below cricoid cartilage
31
distal attachments of extrinsic pharynx muscles
all merge together posteriorly
32
only skeletal muscle innervated by cranial nerve IX
stylopharyngeus muscle
33
afferent nerve of gag reflex
glossopharyngeal (cranial nerve IX)
34
efferent nerve of gag reflex
vagus nerve (cranial nerve X)
35
proximal attachment of the esophagus
inferior border of cricoid cartilage
36
right and left vertebral arteries cross the transverse foramen at what vertebral level?
C6
37
first branch off the internal carotid artery
ophthalmic artery
38
vertebral arteries are a branch off which artery?
subclavian artery
39
artery that supplies anterior medulla oblongata
anterior spinal artery
40
artery that supplies inferior part of posterior lobe of cerebellum
PICA (posterior inferior cerebellar artery)
41
arteries that supply the posterior medulla oblongata
posterior spinal arteries
42
artery that supplies the inferolateral posterior lobe of the cerebellum
AICA (anterior inferior cerebellar artery)
43
artery branches that supply the pons
pontine branches
44
artery that supplies the anterior lobe and superior posterior lobe of the cerebellum
SCA (superior cerebellar artery)
45
artery that supplies the posterior cerebrum
PCA (posterior cerebral artery)
46
SCA and PCA branches supply what part of the brain
midbrain
47
artery that supplies the frontal, parietal, and limbic lobes for contralateral lower limb somatic motor and sensation, as well as emotions
ACA (anterior cerebral artery)
48
artery that supplies the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes for contralateral trunk, upper limb, and face somatic motor and sensation, hearing, language if on the left side, and spatial cognition and emotion if on the right side
MCA (middle cerebral artery)
49
artery that supplies the temporal and occipital lobes for memory and contralateral visual field
PCA (posterior cerebral artery)
50
the posterior spinal artery is a branch from which artery?
PICA (posterior inferior cerebellar artery)
51
circle of willis arteries
anterior communicating artery 2 ACA 2 IC 2 posterior communicating arteries 2 PCA
52
which major artery is not a member of the circle of willis?
MCA (middle cerebral artery)
53
center of life and death
hypothalamus
54
type of stroke with intraparenchymal bleeding
hemorrhagic stroke
55
patients younger than 55 with a hemorrhagic stroke must be screened for what?
drug abuse
56
type of stroke that has blockage of blood supply and results in hypoxemic damage
ischemic stroke
57
brain sinus that is a part of the dangerous triangle because it can spread infection to the brain
cavernous sinus
58
connects lateral ventricles and the third ventricle
foramen of monro (interventricular foramen)
59
connects the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle
cerebral aqueduct
60
creates CSF
choroid plexus
61
suspend brain in the cerebral spinal fluid, holds 97% of weight (buoyance)
arachnoid trabeculae
62
large subarachnoid space is holding cerebrospinal fluid over the brain (outside of brain structures)
cisterns
63
reabsorbs cerebrospinal fluid into venous sinus blood
arachnoid granulations
64
blockage of cerebral spinal fluid which leads to increased intracranial pressure (buildup of SCSF on the brain)
hydrocephalus
65
vein that can spread infection from scalp to the meninges and brain
emissary vein
66
type of brain injury that occurs when blood accumulates between the skull and the dura mater, most likely due to an injury of the middle meningeal artery and pterion, medical emergency leads due to loss of consciousness and coma
epidural hematoma
67
type of brain injury due to disruption of bridging veins that occurs in the dural border cell layers
subdural hematoma 
68
type of brain injury due to disruption of blood vessels in the ventricles or cisterns, occurs in the cerebral spinal fluid, increases intracranial pressure while impairing the drainage of cerebral spinal fluid
subarachnoid hematoma
69
dura mater attachment in the neurocranium
calvaria
70
weakest point of the neurocranium
pterion
71
divides the brain into right and left hemispheres
longitudinal fissure
72
divides the brain into the cerebrum and cerebellum
transverse fissure
73
sulcus in between precentral and postcentral gyri 
central sulcus
74
primary somatic motor cortex (M1)
precentral gyrus
75
primary somatic sensory cortex (S1)
postcentral gyrus
76
sulcus that divides the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes
lateral sulcus
77
primary auditory cortex in the temporal lobe (A1)
superior temporal gyrus
78
marks the boundary between the parietal lobe and the occipital lobe
preoccipital notch
79
sulcus that divides the parietal lobe from the occipital lobe
pariteoccipital sulcus
80
sulcus in the occipital lobe that contains the primary visual cortex (V1)
calcarine sulcus
81
location of subthalamic nucleus
diencephalon
82
location of substantia nigra
midbrain
83
only cranial nerve originating from the posterior
trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV)
84
unique spinal nerve, ascending C1—C5 of cervical spinal nerve, somatic motor only
spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI)
85
sudden inability to coordinate muscle movement due to disease or injury to the cerebellum
ataxia
86
where does the middle cerebral peduncle locate?
pons
87
contents of the temporal fossa
upper portion of temporalis muscle superficial temporal artery and vein
88
ganglion in the infratemporal fossa
otic ganglion
89
ganglion in pterygopalatine fossa
pterygopalatine ganglion
90
facial expression branches
temporal zygomatic buccal mandibular cervical posterior auricular
91
cranial nerve V1 somatic/chemical sensation exits through superior orbital fissure chemical sensation: pungency of mustard terminal sensory branch: supraorbital nerve
ophthalmic nerve (branch of trigeminal nerve)
92
cranial nerve V2 somatic/chemical sensation exits through foramen rotundum chemical sensation: smell terminal sensory branch: infraorbital nerve
maxillary nerve (branch of trigeminal nerve)
93
cranial nerve V3 somatic motor and somatic sensory exits through the foramen ovale chemical sensation: taste terminal sensory branch: mental nerve motor: mastication muscles, hearing, swallowing
mandibular nerve (branch of trigeminal nerve)
94
part of the face that is not innervated by the trigeminal nerve
mandibular angle
95
artery that is very tortuous for facial expression
facial artery
96
middle meningeal artery is a branch off of what artery?
maxillary artery
97
artery that is wrapped by auriculotemporal nerve
middle meningeal artery
98
inflamed superficial temporal artery
temporal arteritis
99
veins that drain into the superior sagittal sinus directly
emissary veins (or diploic veins)
100
blink reflex part of the orbicularis oculi
palpebral part
101
dangerous zones that infection can spread into cranium from scalp and face
emissary veins and cavernous sinus
102
heads of what two muscles interdigital each other?
medial and lateral pterygoid muscles
103
only muscle that can retract the mandible
temporalis muscle
104
main innervation of the mastication muscles
trigeminal nerve
105
why are the scalp and face borders defined at the supraorbital margin?
innervations are different (cranial nerve VII) frontalis and occipitalis muscles can be regulated differently from other facial expression muscles
106
which facial muscle is different from all others and is deep in the face?
buccinator
107
damage above the lower motor nuclei in one hemisphere paralysis of contralateral face, scalp spared
upper motor neuron injury (UMN)
108
damage in or below the lower motor nuclei paralysis of both ipsilateral scalp and face
lower motor neuron injury (LMN)
109
signs after stroke (UMN)
can elevate eyebrows facial drop difficult to close eyes and mouth drooling and tearing on the affected side
110
signs after Bell’s palsy (UMN)
can elevate eyebrow facial drop difficult to close eyes and mouth drooling and tearing on the affected side dry mouth/dry eye
111
"crying" during eating in patients recovering from Bell’s palsy visceral motor spared
crocodile tears syndrome
112
can facial nerve LMN injury patients smile symmetrically?
no
113
can facial nerve LMN injury patients smile symmetrically?
IF patient’s limbic lobe is spared yes when they hear something funny no when asked to smile (voluntary)
114
medial wall faces which direction in the orbit?
forward
115
lateral wall faces which direction in the orbit?
laterally
116
2 nerves that pass lateral and over the cartilage of foramen lacerum
deep petrosal nerve greater petrosal nerve
117
postganglionic axons of sympathetic and preganglionic axons of parasympathetic in the pterygoid canal
nerve of pterygoid canal
118
constriction of the pupil in the iris in response to light OR iris adjustment for intensive light stimuli
pupillary light reflex
119
muscle that is only innervated by postganglionic fibers from ciliary ganglion (parasympathetic)
ciliary body
120
2 smooth muscle groups in the eye
ciliary body and sphincter pupillae
121
condition with constricted pupil, partial eyelid ptosis (drooping), and no sweating on the affected side disruption in the sympathetic nerve supply parasympathetic functions are not balanced
horner’s syndrome
122
facial expression functions of the eyelids
wink and blink reflex
123
(muscle) eyeball rolls down and outward innervated by the trochlear nerve (IV)
superior oblique
124
(muscle) eyeball rolls up and outward innervated by the oculomotor nerve (III)
inferior oblique
125
2 eyes not lined up properly to different directions condition of misalignment of the eyes
strabismus
126
adducted eyeballs (convergence) abducent (VI) palsy
esotropia
127
abducted eyeballs (divergence) medial rectus not working oculomotor (III) nerve palsy
exotropia
128
elevated eyeballs trochlear (IV) nerve palsy
hypertropia
129
depressed eyeballs inferior oblique muscle not working oculomotor (III) nerve palsy
hypotropia
130
wall of the nasal cavity that has the inferior nasal conchae
lateral wall
131
located in the septum of the nasal cavity
vomer
132
visceral motor parasympathetic innervation of the mucosal glands
facial nerve in the pterygopalatine ganglion
133
visceral motor innervation for the blood vessels in the nasal cavity
sympathetic can be inhibited (dilation)
134
part of the central nervous system can be affected during multiple sclerosis
olfactory bulb
135
bleeding nose
epistaxis
136
structure in external ear that is made up of elastic cartilage
auricle
137
first ossified and fully mature at birth
auditory ossicles
138
course around the handle interacting with the tympanic membrane posterior to anterior direction
chorda tympani
139
muscle that is coordinated with the mastication muscles innervated by cranial nerve V3
tensor tympani muscle
140
smallest skeletal muscle in the body
stapedius
141
a disorder in loudness perception
hyperacusis
142
cochlear component function of cranial nerve VIII
hearing
143
vestibular component function of cranial nerve VIII
propioception and balance
144
how many ears is functionally enough?
1
145
functions of the buccinator muscle
hold food in the oral cavity and speech
146
inferior alveolar nerve:mental nerve buccal nerve lingual nerve: gingiva
branches off the mandibular nerve (V3)
147
muscle palate that separates the oral cavity from the nasopharynx
soft palate
148
imbalance of bilateral intrinsic and extrinsic tongue muscles protrusion of the tongue will deviate to the weaker side (opposite to other muscular deficiency) difficult to eat, speak, and bite the tongue easily
hypoglossal nerve (XII) deficiency