Unit 4 Flashcards
1
Q
Aircraft
A
device that is used for flight in the air
2
Q
Airplane
A
engine-driven fixed-wing aircraft that is supported by wings
3
Q
Air traffic control (ATC)
A
service to promote safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic
4
Q
Category
A
broad classification of aircrafts (transport, utility, acrobatic…)
5
Q
Class
A
classification of aircraft within a category (single-engine, multi-engine, helicopter…)
6
Q
Ceiling
A
height of lowest layer of clouds above Earth’s surface
7
Q
Controlled airspace
A
airspace of defined dimension which ATC service is provided
8
Q
Decision height (DH)
A
height above ground level (AGL) where the decision to continue or abandon approach must be made (instrument)
9
Q
Flight plan
A
specified info relating to intended flight that is filed orally or in writing with ATC
10
Q
Flight time
A
time between aircraft moves under its own power → comes to rest after landing
11
Q
Large aircraft
A
max takeoff weight of +12,500 lb
12
Q
Maintenance
A
inspection, overhaul, repair, and preservation of the aircraft & replacement of parts
13
Q
Major alteration
A
alteration that might affect weight, balance, strength, performance, flight… of an aircraft
14
Q
Manifold pressure
A
absolute pressure as measured in the induction system (expressed inches of mercury)
15
Q
Minimum descent altitude (MDA)
A
lowest altitude where a descent is authorized on final approach (expressed in ft above mean sea level)
16
Q
Night
A
time between end of evening civil twilight → beginning of morning civil twilight
(1h after sunset to 1h before sunrise)
17
Q
Non Precision approach procedure
A
standard instrument approach with no electronic glide slope
18
Q
Pilotage
A
navigation by visual reference to landmarks
19
Q
Pilot in command (PIC)
A
person who has final authority, hold appropriate category/class/type rating, was designated PIC before flight
20
Q
Positive control
A
control of all air traffic, within designated airspace by ATC
21
Q
Precision approach procedure
A
standard instrument approach with an electronic glide slope
22
Q
Small aircraft
A
max takeoff weight less than 12,500 lb
23
Q
AFM
A
airplane flight manual
24
Q
AGL
A
above ground level
25
ATC
air traffic control
26
CAS
calibrated air speed
27
DME
distance-measuring equipment
(compatible with TACAN)
28
FAA
federal aviation administration
29
FSTD
flight simulation training devic
30
FTD
flight training device
31
HIRL
high-intensity runway light system
32
IAS
indicated airspeed
33
ICAO
international civil aviation organization
34
LSA
light sport aircraft
35
MEL
minimum equipment list
36
MSL
mean sea level
37
NM
nautical mile
38
RBN
radio beacon
39
REIL
runway end identification lights
40
RNAV
area navigation
41
TACAN
ultra-high-frequency tactical air navigational aid
42
TAS
true airspeed
43
TCAS
traffic alert and collision avoidance system
44
TDZL
touchdown zone
45
TSO
technical standard order
46
**VA**
design maneuvering speed
(max speed limit load imposed)
47
**VX**
best angle of climb speed
(clear obstacles)
48
**VY**
best rate of climb speed
(reach altitude quickly)
49
**VNE**
never-exceed speed
50
**VS**
stalling speed
51
**VS0**
stalling speed in landing configuration
52
**VS1**
stalling speed in specific configuration
53
**VR**
rotation speed
54
**VC**
design cruising speed
55
**VFE**
flap extended speed
56
**VLE**
max landing gear extended speed
57
**VLO**
max landing gear operating speed
58
**VLOF**
lift-off speed
59
**VMO**
max operating limit speed
60
**VNO**
max structural cruising speed
61
**VFR**
visual flight rules
62
**VHF**
very high frequency
63
**VOR**
very-high-frequency omnirange station
64
**VORTAC**
collated VOR and TACAN
65
**Standard airworthiness certificates**
issued for aircraft **type certificated** in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category
66
How long do airworthiness certificates last?
as long as maintenance & alterations are performed in accordance with FAA
67
**Special flight permits**
aircraft not currently able to meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is cable of safe flight for other purposes
68
**Airworthiness directives (ADS)**
legally enforceable rules that apply to aircraft, engines, propellers, and appliances
69
Who is authorised to perform maintenance?
Someone that holds a pilot certificate is authorized to perform maintenance on their own aircraft
*(14 CFR Part 43.3)*
70
**Preventative maintenance**:
simple preservation operations & replacement of small standard parts
(ie. replenishing hydraulic fluid & servicing landing gear wheel bearings)
71
What kind of paperwork is required to be filled after preventative maintenance?
**signature**, certificate **number**, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work, and a **description** of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
72
When is aircraft registration no longer valid?
* **30** days after death of certificate holder
* **F** foreign registration
* **T** transfer of ownership
* **D** destruction of aircraft
* **U** United States citizenship revoked
* **C** cancellation of registration
73
**Aeronautical experience**
pilot time obtained in an aircraft, flight simulator, flight training device
74
**Cross country time**
includes point of landing that is at least a straight-line distance of +50 NM from original point of departure
75
**Ground training**
training, other than flight, received from an authorized instructor
76
When must you report to FAA if you drove while intoxicated?
report to FAA (*Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office*) less than 60 days after conviction
77
What is the blood alcohol tolerance for a pilot?
0.04% blood
must wait +8h after consumption
78
When does a First-class medical expire?
12 months after examination (less than 40 years)
6 months (+40)
79
When does a Second-class medical expire?
12 months after examination for operations requiring commercial pilot certificate
80
When does a Third-class medical expire?
60 months after examination (less than 40)
24 months (+40)
81
How long does a **flight review** last for?
valid for 2 years
82
Requirements to be a PIC
must have made at least 3 takeoffs & landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type in the last **90 days**
83
What documents must be onboard plane at all times?
valid Airworthiness Certificate
Operating limitations & Registration Certificate
84
**Aviation Safety Reporting Program** (ASRP)
information concerning deficiencies in the aviation system
85
What happens if you deviate from a regulation during an emergency?
must send written report to FAA **upon request**
86
_Right of Way Rules_
2 aircrafts are approaching head on
* both should alter course to the right
87
_Right of Way Rules_
2 aircrafts converging
aircraft to the RIGHT has the right of way
88
_Right of Way Rules_
landing
Aircraft on final approach has right of way (lower altitude)
89
_Right of Way Rules_
Category of aircraft
Balloon, glider, airship, powered parachute, weight-shift control aircraft, airplane, helicopter
(sorter based on maneuverability)
90
Does any aircraft in distress have the ultimate right of way?
yes
91
_Speed Limit_
Below 10,000ft MSL
250 kt
92
_Speed Limit_
Within class B airspace
200 kt
93
_Speed Limit_
Below 2,500ft AGL & within 4 NM of airport
200 kt
94
NOTAM
Temporary flight restrictions
*(president, aerial demonstration, sporting event, abnormally high barometric pressure +31 in mercury…)*
95
Basic VFR fuel requirements day & night?
fly to 1st point landing + additional 30 min
(+45min at night)
96
When must an ELT must be inspected?
every 12 months
97
When must an ELT battery be replaced?
after 50% of their useful life has expired or when in use for more than 1 cumulative hour
98
When must an ELT be tested?
during the first 5 minutes after the hour
99
When should you use strobe lights (anti-collsion)?
at all times
100
When is oxygen mandatory?
If cabin pressure above 15,000 ft MSL
101
In what airspaces are Mode C transponders required?
Class A, B, C airspace
102
When are ADS-B Out required?
Class A, B, C airspace or below 18,000ft MSL
103
**ADS-B Out**
function of an aircraft’s onboard avionics that periodically broadcasts the aircraft’s state vector
(3D position & velocity)
104
When is aerobatic flight prohibited?
* visibility less than 3 SM
* altitude less 1,500ft above ground
* over congested area
105
When are parachutes required?
intentional maneuver exceeds a bank of 60º nose-up or down
(attitude of 30º relative to horizon)
106
When do annual inspections expire?
* on last day of the 12 month
107
How should inspections be kept track of?
documented in airplane’s **maintenance records**
108
Passanger briefing
* Smoking
* Safety belts & shoulder harnesses
* Emergency exit
* Location of survival equipment
* Floating equipment
* Emergency oxygen
109
_VFR above 3,000ft AGL_
magnetic course 0º - 179º
fly any **odd** thousand-foot MSL altitude + 500ft
110
_VFR above 3,000ft AGL_
magnetic course 180º - 359º
fly any **even** thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500ft
111
**Aircraft accident**
injury/death or aircraft receives substantial damage
112
**Fatal injury**
injury resulting in death within 30 days of accident
113
**Serious injury**
injury that requires hospitalization
114
**Substantial damage**
damage that affects structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics & require major repair
115
**Unmanned aircraft accident**
operation of any public/civil unmanned aircraft system in which aircraft has max takeoff weight of 300 lb and sustains substantial damage, person suffers injury or death
116
Who should be notified when aircraft involved in an accident?
Nearest NTSB office must be notified **immediately**
(Flight control system malfunction, fire, collision, damage, injury… )
117
Who is responsible for preserving any wreckage, cargo, records until NTSB takes custody?
aircraft operator
118
When is Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment required?
In Class E airspace above 10,000 ft. MSL, except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL.
119
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
120
Under what condition could an aircraft’s engine logbook show no previous operating history?
When the aircraft’s engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer.
121
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
122
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?
18,000 feet MSL.
123
On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you
must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.
124
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
125
Can this be done without ADS-B out equip?
*A VFR flight that departs a Class D airport, cruises in Class E airspace at 7,500 ft. MSL, and arrives at another Class D airport.*
Yes
126
In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
127
If you are operating under BasicMed, what is the maximum speed at which you may fly?
250 kt
128
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
129
If you are operating under BasicMed, you may only fly aircraft that are certificated to carry no more than ____ occupants.
6
130
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?
10
131
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA’s Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office?
No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
132
VS0 is defined as the
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
133
In order to qualify for BasicMed, you must have received a comprehensive examination from:
A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months.
134
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
Aircraft maintenance records.
135
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
136
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
The aircraft on the left shall give way.
137
Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
138
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
139
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
Both pilots should give way to the right.
140
VNO is defined as the
maximum structural cruising speed.
141
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
142
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
