Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 systems that coordinate communication throughout the body?

A
  1. endocrine
  2. nervous
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2
Q

why do hormones that go through the bloodstream not affect every cell it passes

A

because only target cells have the receptors for the hormone

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3
Q

can multiple hormones act at the same target at the same time?

A

yes

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4
Q

what kind of signaling is described by target cells being close in proximity to the secreting cells?

A

paracrine signaling (in the same tissue)

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5
Q

what kind of signaling is described as the target cell is also the secreting cell?

A

autocrine

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6
Q

what kind of signaling releases a hormone into the bloodstream instead of into a synapse?

A

neuroendocrine signaling

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7
Q

what is the difference between synaptic and neuroendocrine signaling?

A

neuroendocrine: releases into bloodstream
synaptic: releases into synapse

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8
Q

which kind of gland lacks ducts and releases hormones into the blood
a. endocrine
b. exocrine

A

a. endocrine

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9
Q

which kind of gland has ducts to carry secretions to the membranes surface
a. endocrine
b. exocrine

A

b. exocrine

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10
Q

what kind of gland actually produces the hormones
a. endocrine
b. exocrine

A

a. endocrine

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11
Q

what is the hormonal stimuli of hormone release

A

hormone release is caused by another hromone

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12
Q

what is the neural stimuli of hormone release

A

hormone release caused by neural input

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13
Q

what is the humoral stimuli of hormone release

A

hormone release caused by altered levels if certain ions or nutrients (in the blood)

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14
Q

what are the 3 main classes of hormones

A
  1. amine
  2. peptide (protein)
  3. steroid
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15
Q

which class of hormones are synthesized from modified (smaller) amino acids

A

amine

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16
Q

which class of hormones are synthesized from amino acid chains

A

peptide (protein)
_ most hormones

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17
Q

which class of hormones are synthesized from cholesterol on demand

A

steroid

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18
Q

why do steroid hormones have to be synthesized on demand (when it is needed)

A

because they cannot be stored (not soluble in water)

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19
Q

which hormone classes can be stored

A

amine and peptide

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20
Q

what are some effects hormone action does on target cells

A
  1. alter plasma membrane permeability
  2. stimulate synthesis of other hormones/ proteins
  3. activate/ deactivate enzymes
  4. stimulate mitosis
  5. induce secretory activity
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21
Q

in which 2 ways do hormones act on receptors based on chemical nature/ receptor location

A
  1. water soluble hormones
  2. lipid-soluble hormones
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22
Q

which kinds of hormones are water soluble

A

all amine based hormones EXCEPT thyroid hormone

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23
Q

what does it mean to be a water-soluble hormone

A
  1. travel freely in the bloodstream
  2. cannot enter the cell
  3. binds to the OUTSIDE of cell (plasma membrane receptors)
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24
Q

what does it mean to be a lipid-soluble hormone

A
  1. travel through the bloodstream bound to a transport protein
  2. can enter the cell
  3. binds to intracellular receptors
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25
Q

why are protein based hormones not able to enter the cell

A

bc they are H2O soluble

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26
Q

which signaling mechanism is known for water soluble hormones to start when binds to the plasma membrane

A

cAMP signaling pathway

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27
Q

what are the 5 steps of the cAMP pathway

A
  1. hormone binds to the plasma membrane receptor
  2. receptor activates G protein (has a GTP)
  3. G protein activates adenylate cyclase
  4. adenylate cyclase converts ATP to cAMP
  5. cAMP activates protein kinases
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28
Q

what is the secondary messenger in the cAMP pathway

A

cAMP

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29
Q

where do lipid soluble hormones bind to their receptors

A

in the cytoplasm or nucleus

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30
Q

what kinds of hormones are lipid-soluble

A

steroid and thyroid

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31
Q

the response to a lipid soluble hormone is usually

A

a change in gene expression

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32
Q

what determines whether a particular cell is able to respond to a hormone?
a. the presence of a specific hormone receptor
b. the location of the cell
c. the structure of the hormone
d. the gland that releases the hormone

A

a. the presence of a specific hormone receptor

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33
Q

where is the pituitary gland attached to?
what is it composed of?

A
  • hypothalamus
  • anterior and posterior lobes
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34
Q

which lobe of the pituitary gland is made of neural tissue

A

posterior pituitary

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35
Q

which lobe of the pituitary gland is made of glandular tissue

A

anterior pituitary

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36
Q

the ____ pituitary lobe stores and releases hormones that are made in the hypothalamus

A

posterior

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37
Q

the ____ pituitary lobe makes and releases hormones under regulation of the hypothalamus

A

anterior

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38
Q

which pituitary lobe makes its own hormones

A

anterior

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39
Q

how are hormones stimulated and released from the anterior pituitary?

A

hypothalamus releases a hormone into the blood and reaches the anterior to release its hormones

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40
Q

how are hormones stimulated and released from the posterior pituitary?

A

since hypothalamus and posterior pit. are made of neural tissue, hypo, uses action potentials to send a signal down an axon to the posterior lobe to release its hormone (which ultimately releases into the blood)

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41
Q

which two hormones are stored and released from the posterior pituitary gland

A

oxytocin
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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42
Q

how does oxytocin work

A

mechanoreceptors sense and it is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions and milk ejection
- positive feedback

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43
Q

how does ADH work

A
  • osmoregulators in hypothalamus monitor solute concentration
  • kidney tubules reabsorb more water to increase blood volume
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44
Q

anterior pituitary gland has a _______ connection to the hypothalamus

A

vascular

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45
Q

all hormones released by the anterior pituitary gland are _____ class

A

peptide

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46
Q

all the hormones released by the anterior pituitary gland activate the cyclic AMP 2ndary messenger systems at their targets EXCEPT

A

GH (growth hormone)

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47
Q

what is the function ACTH released by the anterior pit. gland

A

goes to adrenal glands to stimulate release of hormones like cortisol

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48
Q

what does it mean for a hormone to have a tropic effect

A

causes the target to release another hormone

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49
Q

what are the stressors in the short term response to stress

A
  • injury
  • temp. extremes
  • extreme physical exertion
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50
Q

what occurs in the 1st phase of stress response (short term)

A
  1. fight or flight: adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to nerve signals
  2. glycogenolysis: triggers release of glucose and fatty acids into the blood (from liver)
  3. increase heart rate and respiratory rate
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51
Q

in the stress response, why is the release of glucose and fatty acids triggered (glycogenolysis)?

A

more glucose means more cell respiration=more ATP

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52
Q

what occurs in the 2nd phase of stress response

A
  1. hypothalamus–>CRH
  2. CRH goes to anterior pituitary
  3. anterior –> ACTH
  4. ACTH goes to adrenal cortex
  5. adrenal cortex releases cortisol
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53
Q

what is the effect of cortisol in the stress response

A

proteins and fats are broken down and converted to glucose–> leading to increased blood glucose
(gluconeogenesis)

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54
Q

what are chemicals that are released into the environment to attract mates or warn of danger

A

pheremones

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55
Q

which body system’s communication response is slower to take affect

A

endocrine

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56
Q

these kinds of hormones bind to membrane bound receptors

A

amine and peptide

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57
Q

what does the anterior pituitary gland hormone ‘TSH’ do

A

targets the thyroid gland

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58
Q

in sexual reproduction, what kind of sets of genetic material are combined

A

haploid (23 chromosomes)
- this makes a diploid organism (46 chromosomes)

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59
Q

specialized haploid cells are called ________, and they form a diploid ______

A

gametes
zygote

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60
Q

what is the form of asexual reproduction that involves an embryo growing without fertilization

A

parthenogeneis

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61
Q

what is the form of asexual reproduction that involves a female producing an embryo with ONLY her genes, but a male sperm activates it

A

gynogenesis

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62
Q

what are the pros of sexual reproduction

A

genetic diversity (recombination)

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63
Q

what are the pros of asexual reproduction

A

no mates needed and makes many cells

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64
Q

what is the con of sexual reproduction

A

egg must combine with sperm and that takes 2x as many cells

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65
Q

what are 3 ways mammals experience gestation

A
  1. marsupials : carry underdeveloped embryos in pouch
  2. monotremes: lay eggs
  3. placental: mothers carry fetus in uterus and its nourished by the placenta
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66
Q

what are the primary sex organs (gonads) of male and female

A

male: testes
female: ovaries

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67
Q

what are the function of gonads (2)

A
  1. produce sex cells (gametes) through meiosis
  2. secrete steroid sex hormones
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68
Q

what are the steroid sex hormones that gonads release in men and women

A

men: testosterone
women: estrogens and progesterone

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69
Q

why are the testis (which are enveloped in the scrotum) outside of the body

A

it is too hot in the body to sustain sperm alive

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70
Q

in males, what is the site of sperm production

A

testes

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71
Q

in males, what are the 2 functions of the testes

A
  1. produce sperm
  2. synthesize testosterone
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72
Q

in males, what is the function of the epididymis

A

sperm storage and maturation

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73
Q

in males, what is the function of the vas deferens

A

it transports sperm from the epididymis to the urethra

74
Q

in males, how does sperm exit the penis through

A

the urethra (same place as urine exit)

75
Q

where in the female reproductive system are:
- eggs produced
- the site of fertilization
- the site of embryonic development during gestation

A
  • ovaries produce eggs
  • fallopian tubes are site of fertilization
  • uterus develops embryo
76
Q

what are the two parts of the endometrial lining of the uterus

A
  1. stratum functionalis
  2. stratum basalis
77
Q

which part of the endometrial lining of the uterus is shed during menstruation

A

stratum functionalis

78
Q

which part of the endometrial lining of the uterus changes in response to ovarian hormone cycles

A

stratum functionalis

79
Q

which part of the female reproductive system:
- serves as a barrier during pregnancy
- birth canal

A
  • cervix
  • vagina
80
Q

what is it called:
- age at which reproductive organs become functional
- release of mature egg from the ovary
- egg and sperm unite

A
  • puberty
  • ovulation
  • fertilization
81
Q

what differs in how meiosis occurs in males vs females

A

timing and end product

82
Q

how do testes know when to make sperm

A

at puberty, the hypothalamus starts to release GnRH to anterior pituitary and that stimulates release of gonad targeting hormones (FSH and LH)

83
Q

what does FSH target in specific in males

A

Sertoli cells: releases ABP (androgen binding protein)

84
Q

what does LH target in specific in males

A

Leydig cells: stimulates these to release testosterone

85
Q

what does ABP released by Sertoli cells do
- androgen binding protein

A

makes spermatogenic cells receptive to testosterone

86
Q

what does the acrosome in the head of the sperm contain

A

enzymes that allow sperm to burrow in fertilization

87
Q

when do sperm acquire their fertilizing ability and forward motility properties

A

in epididymis (maturation)

88
Q
  1. when are eggs produced in females
  2. why are eggs not fully matured as a baby
A
  1. start being produced in the womb (same eggs you have now are same you had at birth)
  2. prophase 1 of meiosis is frozen and resumes during puberty
89
Q

what are the 3 phases of the ovarian cycle

A
  1. follicular phase
  2. ovulation
  3. luteal phase
90
Q

what days of the ovarian cycle does the follicular phase occur in

A

days 1-14
(right after end of last cycle that resulted in no pregnancy)

91
Q

events in the _______ influences the uterus

A

ovaries

92
Q
  1. how is the follicular phase in the ovarian cycle started?
  2. what does the GnRH do next
A
  1. hypothalamus is stimulated to secrete GnRH in response to low estrogen
  2. stimulates anterior pit. to release FSH and LH
93
Q

In ovarian cycle:
1. what does LH do after being stimulated by GnRH?

  1. what does FSH do after being stimulated by GnRH?
A
  1. LH: stimulates thecal cells to make estrogen precursor
  2. FSH: stimulates granulose cells to proliferate and make estrogen precursor from thecal cells into estrogen (active)
94
Q

in follicular phase, what specific cell does LH stimulate?
FSH?

A

LH: thecal
FSH: granulosa

95
Q

what is the ultimate result of the follicular phase (3)

A

granulosa and thecal cells multiply around developing oocyte
- and production of estrogen
- zona pellucida develops

96
Q

when does ovulation occur in ovarian cycle

A

~day 14

97
Q

the levels of estrogen produced in the follicular phase cause __________ of the hypothalamus from releasing from GnRH

A

inhibition

98
Q

as granulosa cells activated and making active estrogen, eventually the levels cross the threshold and do what

A

positively feedback to hypothalamus and that results in SURGE of LH

99
Q

the surge of LH during ovulation causes what

A

enzymes are released that cut the oocyte and close surrounding granulosa cells (corona radiata) out and its released

100
Q

what happens to the leftover granulosa cells after oocyte and corona radiata are cut out during ovulation

A

develop into corpus luteum bc of LH

101
Q

during follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, where estrogen is being produced, what happens meanwhile in the uterus

A

estrogen stimulates the regeneration of the stratum functionalis of the uterine lining

102
Q

what days does the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle occur

A

~days 14-28

103
Q
  1. what happens in the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
  2. what happens in the uterus during this
A
  1. surge of LH from ovulation causes production of corpus luteum
    - corpus luteum then produces progesterone
  2. production of progesterone by corpus luteum promotes vessel production and maintain it too
104
Q

if fertilization does not occur, what happens

A

corpus luteum degenerates into corpus albicans and decreased levels of estrogen and progesterone causes uterus lining to shed –>menstruation

105
Q

if fertilization does occur, what happens

A

hCG is produced and keeps corpus luteum alive until placenta is formed

106
Q

which of the following factors contributes to the occurrence of menstruation
1. high levels of hCG
2. low levels of hCG
3. decreased levels of estrogen and progesterone
4. low levels of FSH and LH

a. 1,3,4
b, 2,3,4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3

A

d. 2 and 3

107
Q

what is the correct steps of the LONG term stress response
a. CRH goes to hypothalamus
b. Adrenal cortex releases cortisol
c. ACTH goes to the kidney
d. Anterior pituitary releases ACTH
e. Cortisol suppresses immune and reproductive system

A

a, d, c, b, e

108
Q

larger animals have longer or shorter gestation periods

A

longer

109
Q

what is the term fecundity
- when are humans most fecund?

A

the natural ability to produce offspring
- in their 20’s

110
Q

which form of fertilization is mostly aquatic

A

external fertilization

111
Q

what are the 4 factors that influence sperm movement in the uterus to fallopian tubes

A
  1. uterine contractions
  2. fallopian tube regulation
  3. capacitation
  4. chemical cues
112
Q

what occurs during fallopian tube regulation that influences sperm movement

A

help propel sperm with uterine muscle contractions and ciliary activity

113
Q

how does the time that fertilization can occur get prolonged

A

sperm releases rounds to not send all sperm at once

114
Q

what is the process of capacitation in sperm
- why does it do it

A

“gunk” coat is removed prior to fertilization
- to increase sperm motility and hyperactivity and to expose receptor sites to the zona pellucida

115
Q

when the sperm finally meets the egg, what are the stream of events that occur (6)

A
  1. sperm makes contact with the egg
  2. acrosome on the sperm reacts with the zona pellucida (releases enzymes to burrow)
  3. acrosome makes way into pervitelline space (reacts with enzymes )
  4. sperm enzymes activate protein receptors on egg that release enzymes to harden the membrane to prevent polyspermy
  5. plasma membranes of egg and sperm fuse
  6. sperm nucleus enters egg
116
Q

what is the acrosomal reaction during fertilization

A

enzymes in the acrosome react with the zona pellucida to digest the coat to burrow into the egg

117
Q

how is polyspermy prevented during fertilization

A

cortical reactions cause the cortical granules to release enzymes that harden the membrane to remove the sperm receptors

118
Q

how is exactly is the cortical reaction caused by

A

smooth ER in the oocyte releases Ca2+ which then stimulates exocytosis of enzymes from cortical granules

119
Q

after fertilization, what happens to the outer granulosa cells (corona radiata)?

A

are removed so the egg can fit through the fallopian tube into the uterus

120
Q

Sperm have the best chances of getting to the secondary oocyte if:
1. they are the fastest sperm in the lot
2. they undergo capacitation
3. they pick up and respond properly to chemical cues secreted by the ovulated oocyte
4. uterine/vaginal contractions are induced within the female
a. 1, 2 ,3 and 4
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. only 4

A

b. 2, 3, and 4

121
Q

Which of the following is NOT a result of fertilization
a. intracellular Ca2+ concentration declines
b. the sperm and egg nuclei unite
c. the zygote becomes impermeable o more sperm as a result of cortical reaction
d. the corona radiata is removed to make the zygote small enough to fit through the fallopian tube

A

a. intracellular Ca2+ concentration declines

122
Q

is cell proliferation brought on by mitosis or meiosis

A

mitosis

123
Q

during embryogenesis, what happens to the zygote after fertilization first

A

undergoes cell proliferation (rapid mitosis and growth) into a blastocyst

124
Q

what is the process when cells determine what kind of cell it will be

A

differentiation

125
Q

what are the 3 germline cells

A

endoderm
mesoderm
ectoderm

126
Q

all cells have the same genes, so what differs is not their genetic makeup , but _____________

A

their gene expression (on or off)

127
Q

what is the process that causes an organism to develop its shape

A

morphogenesis

128
Q

while the zygote is proliferating through mitosis, this forms a ______, which is hollowed out, and then inward growth (invagination) is the process of _____________

A

blastula
gastrulation

129
Q

during __________, the three germ layers are formed

A

gastrulation

130
Q

what is embryonic diapause

A

developmental arrest of the embryo by arrest of blastocyst growth and metabolic activity

131
Q

which germ layer does the nervous system come from

A

ectoderm

132
Q

what comes after gastrulation

A

neuralation

133
Q

what happens during neuraltion

A

formation of the neural tube by folding of the ectoderm of neural plate

134
Q

what are somites

A

blocks of mesoderm on the sides of the neural tube that give rise to segmental structures

135
Q

what are the roles of the placenta (4)

A
  1. provides nutrition
  2. waste removal
  3. exchange of materials between mother and baby
  4. secretes estrogen and progesterone to support pregnancy
136
Q

do the mother and baby’s blood mix in the placenta

A

no- things exchanged through diffusion and active transport

137
Q

A sheep oocyte in a dish is injected with calcium. What will happen as a direct result of this?
a. the oocyte will becomes more permeable to sperm
b. the cell would undergo rounds of mitosis
c. the cell would undergo rounds of meiosis
d. sperm would no longer be able to fertilize the oocyte

A

d. sperm would no longer be able to fertilize the oocyte

138
Q

when is the only time hCG is high in a pregnant female

A

1st trimester

139
Q

why are gap junctions made in the muscle layer of the uterus ?

A

so the muscle cells can contract at once, to make birth easier

140
Q

what role does melatonin play in birth

A

makes uterus more receptive to oxytocin and helps expression of gap junctions

141
Q

________ is a lack of resistance to a disease

A

susceptibility

142
Q

________ is the ability to ward off a disease

A

immunity

143
Q

what are the immune system’s 2 categories

A

innate and adaptive

144
Q

which category of immune defense is the first line of defense?

does this line of defense have a memory

A

-Innate

  • does NOT have a memory (skin doesnt have memory)
145
Q

what are the 3 big first line of defense mechanisms

A
  1. skin
  2. mucous membranes
  3. secretions of the skin
146
Q

why is the skin a first line of defense against pathogens (3)

A
  1. epidermis (outermost layer) is very dry, not hospitable
  2. keratin in dead skin cells make the skin mechanically tough and resistant to bacteria
  3. fatty acids on skins surface create a dry, salty, and acidic environment
147
Q

what is the role of lysozymes in sweat, tears, and saliva

A

destroys bacterial cell walls

148
Q
  • which category of immunity is the 2nd line of defense
    (innate or adaptive)
  • does the second line of defense have memory?
A
  • innate
  • no
149
Q

the 2nd line of innate defense includes _____ derived defenses

A

cell

150
Q

what are the internal processes of the 2nd line of immune defense

A

inflammation, fever, phagocytosis

151
Q

what is the process of diapedesis in the immune defense

A

cells squeezing through the capillary wall out of the blood into the targeted tissue

152
Q

what is ameboid movement in the immune defense

A

motion of cells in the immune defense

153
Q

what are chemotaxis in the immune defense

A

detect the direction and intensity of an extracellular chemical gradient, and migrate toward the source of stimulus

154
Q

where do the cells in the innate immune system come from

A

red bone marrow

155
Q

In inflammation response, how are phagocytes introduced into an area with tissue damage/ bacteria

A

histamine is released which causes vasodilation
- veins become leaky so phagocytes can squeeze through (diapedesis)

156
Q

in the inflammatory response, how can phagocytes detect bacteria

A

via chemotaxis and move towards it thru ameboid movement

157
Q

what happens once phagocytes are adhered to target bacteria in inflammatory response

A

phagocytes consume bacteria and tissue heals

158
Q

why does body temperature increases when there are bacteria/ pathogens in the body and the immune response is triggered?

A

heat increases metabolic rate of enzymes and degrades the pathogen’s enzymes

159
Q

what are ways the body induces a fever

A

vasoconstriction, deactivation of sweat glands, shivering

160
Q

what is specific is introduced for the body to trigger a fever

A

pyrogens trigger prostaglandin synthesis, which increases body temperature

161
Q

what are the 2 kinds of adaptive immune defenses

A
  1. cell-mediated
  2. humoral mediated
162
Q

what kind of cells in the adaptive immune response are involved in the cell-mediated response

A

T cells

163
Q

what kind of cells in the adaptive immune response are involved in the humoral-mediated response

A

B cells

164
Q

what are lymphocytes

A

type of WBC

165
Q

where do T and B cells develop

A

red bone marrow

166
Q

where do T cells develop immunocompetence

A

in the thymus (transported there from the bone marrow)

167
Q

where do B cells develop immunocompetence

A

stays in the bone marrow

168
Q

when are T and B cells immunocompetent

A

activated with antigens and then circulate through the bloodstream

169
Q

how can a B cell make antibodies for a pathogen

A

it engulfs the antigen and uses as a template to make antibodies

170
Q

what kind of B cells make the antibodies

A

plasma cells

171
Q

what do the antibodies released by B cells do

A

act as a “tag” for phagocytes to kill them

172
Q

what are the 3 different antigen presenting cells (APC)

A
  1. dendritic cells
  2. macrophages
  3. B cells
173
Q

what are APCs function

A

A type of immune cell that boosts immune responses by showing antigens on its surface to other cells of the immune system.

174
Q

do T cells make antibodies

A

no

175
Q

when an APC attached to a helper T cell, what is triggered

A

cytokines are released from the helper T cell, and those cytokines bind to another T cell to make cytotoxic T cells which kill the cell

176
Q

what do cytotoxic T cells do

A

stimulated by cytokines released by Helper T cells that release proteins that destroy infected cell

177
Q

what are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation

A
  1. redness
  2. heat
  3. swelling
  4. pain
178
Q

what are redness and heat caused by in the inflammatory response

A

vasodilation

179
Q

what is swelling caused by in the inflammatory response

A

leaky capillaries

180
Q

what is the difference between spermiogenesis and spermatogenesis

A

spermiogenesis: maturation of sperm in epididymis

spermatogenesis: make sperm gametes in testes