Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Molecules to Medicine > Unit 4 > Flashcards

Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

_______ are cellular GTPases involved in mitochondrial fusion.

A

Mfn, OPA1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_______ are cellular GTPases involved in mitochondrial fission.

A

Fis1, Drp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_______ is a CFTR potentiator for G551D or gating mutation

A

Ivacaftor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_______ are cellular junctions that function in mechanical strength, resisting shearing forces, and promoting structural organization of epithelial sheet

A

Desomosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_______ are interlocking proteins with transmembrane domains in tight junctions

A

claudins and occludins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_______ are transmembrane proteins with extracellular domains that interact with each other and intracellular tails that bind adaptors and actin filaments in adherence junctions.

A

Cadherins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_______ are transmembrane proteins with extracellular domains that interact with each other and intracellular tails that bind adaptors and intermediate filaments in desmosomes.

A

Cadherins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_______ cells divide and their offspring fuse with myocytes to create cells that are even more nucleated

A

Satellite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_______ cilia: non-motile, variations of primary cilia to house sensory systems (taste, touch) that communicate with the CNS

A

Sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_______ cilia: organize and promote signal transduction systems that control epithelial cell division, fate, and function

A

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_______ cilia: wave to move mucous and molecules along passageways (tend to be found in respiratory tract and oviduct)

A

Motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_______ has a tyrosine kinase function that activates the Ras pathway

A

EGFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_______ in the t-tubule membrane induces _______ in the SR membranes to release Caclium ions into each myofibril

A

DHPR; RyR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

_______ muscle cells do not have gap junctions.

A

Skeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_______ promote bonw deposition; _______ promote bone resorption

A

osteoblasts; osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_______ promotes calcium uptake (bone formation)

A

calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_______ stimulates calcium liberation (bone resorption)

A

Parathyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ATP is transported out of the mitochondria via _______

A

ATP/ADP antiporters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dense CT: _______ collagen fibrils that are abundant compared to ground substance

A

thick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In _______ muscle, Ca2+ entry from the t-tubule system is required for activation of Ca2+ release channels in the SR.

A

cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In _______ muscle, the cells are small enough that the Calcium can diffuse from the plasma membrane relatively easy, such that the t-tubule system is not required.

A

smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In apoptosis, _______ are involved in permeabilization of the outer mitochondrial membrane to _______

A

Bak/Bax; cytochrome c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Integrins of _______ interact with actin filaments

A

focal adhesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Integrins of _______ interact with intermediate filaments

A

hemidesmosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Loose CT: _______ collagen fibrils that are relatively sparse, arranged in _______ lattices
thin; irregular
26
Skeletal muscle is graded by _______ and _______
Action Potential Frequency; Motor Unit Recruitment
27
What are appropriate monoclonal antibody treatments for Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR) mutations?
Cetuximab, Necitumumab
28
What are appropriate TKI treatments for Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR) mutations?
Erlotinib, Gefitinib, Afatinib
29
What are relatively unspecialized cells that can give rise to smooth muscle during vessel growth and wound healing?
Pericytes
30
What is a complex of proteins in the t-tubule membrane that undergoes a conformational change during depolarization?
dihydropurine receptor (DHPR)
31
What is a large protein that associates with actin thin filaments to organize them?
Nebulin
32
What is an enormous protein that links myosin thick filaments to the Z line?
Titin
33
What is secreted by muscles as negative feedback for muscle growth?
Myostatin
34
What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene Sodium
35
What middle vascular layer may be comprised of multiple layers of elastic laminae, smooth muscle cells or collagen?
Tunica Media
36
What pathology involvesc onstant contraction at a high rate that generates a lot of heat and metabolism very quickly?
Malignant Hyperthermia
37
What pathology is caused by BBS proteins involved in a protein complex required for vesicular transport within the cilium?
Bardet-Biedl Syndrome
38
What pathology is caused by environmental exposure to anesthesia (typically inhalation agents such as halothane or succinylcholine)?
Malignant Hyperthermia
39
What pathology is caused by fibrocystin mutations?
Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease
40
What pathology is caused by hypertrophy of cadiac monoctyes?
Familial Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
41
What pathology is caused by large deletion (frameshift) in dystrophin?
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
42
What pathology is caused by mutation in RyR1 (70% of cases)?
Malignant Hyperthermia
43
What pathology is caused by polycystin 1 and polycystin 2 mutations?
Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease
44
What pathology is caused by smaller in-frame deletions in dystrophin?
Becker Muscular Dystrophy
45
What pathology is characterized by abnormal gait with toe-walking, Gower’s sign, calf pseudoypertrophy, high creatinine kinase, mild intellectual disability, wheelchair bound in early teenage years, death in 20s, cardiomyopathy in 100% by age 18, minimal reproductive fitness?
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
46
What pathology is characterized by abnormal increase in uncalcified osteoid that interferes with mineralization?
Osteomalacia Rickets
47
What pathology is characterized by asymptomatic generally with sudden death in a small minority of patients?
Familial Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
48
What pathology is characterized by defect in resorption/formation coupling such that there is a net loss of bone?
osteoporosis
49
What pathology is characterized by hypermetabolism, skeletal muscle damage, hyperthermia?
Malignant Hyperthermia
50
What pathology is characterized by muscle rigidity (especially masseter spasm), increased carbon dioxide production, rhabdomyolysis (muscle cell breakdown), hyperthermia, and non-specific symptoms?
Malignant Hyperthermia
51
What pathology is characterized by photoreceptor degeneration, anosmia, mental retardation and developmental delays, neural tube defects, obesity, hypogonadism, kidney defects, polydactyly, diabetes, situs inversus?
Bardet-Biedl Syndrome
52
What pathology is characterized by renal cysts, liver and pancreatic cysts, intracranial aneurysms?
Polycystic Kidney Disease
53
What pathology is treated by supportive, leg braces, surgical tendon releases, pulmonary therapy, corticosteroids, ambulatory assist devices, multidisciplinary care?
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
54
What protein connects cortical actin beneath the plasma membrane and the plasma membrane surface?
Dystrophin
55
What releases Ca2+ ions into the myofibril?
Ryanodine Receptor (RyR)
56
What shunts blood from arterial circulation into venous circulation?
arteriovenous shunts
57
What tissue is described as containing vasa vasorum (blood vessels) that supply oxygen and nutrients to artery wall layers?
Tunic Adventitia
58
What tissue is described as the inner layer of the vessel and contains a layer of epithelial cells in intimate contact with blood?
Tunica Intima
59
What vascular structure begins in a capillary bed and ends in a capillary bed (hepatic portal vein)?
Portal system
60
What vascular structure connects arteries and veins and permits collateral circulation in tissues?
Anastomosis
61
What vascular structure is a countercurrent arrangement between an artery and venous network (spermatic cord heat exchange)
pampiniform plexus
62
What vascular structure supplies a section of tissue that cannot have alternate arterial supply?
End artery

Molecules to Medicine (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions