Urology- Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

What comprises the upper urinary tract?

A

Kidneys and ureters

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2
Q

What comprises the lower urinary tract?

A

Bladder and urethra

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3
Q

What is the purpose of the upper urinary tract?

A

Production and movement of urine

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the lower urinary tract?

A

Storage and elimination of urine

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5
Q

How much of the CO do the kidneys receive?

A

20-25%

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6
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

Nephron

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7
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys? (5)

A
  1. Excrete waste
  2. Retrieve filtered particles
  3. Maintain acid/base balance
  4. Regulate blood pressure
  5. Stimulate erythrocyte production
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8
Q

Where is most of the water reabsorbed in the nephron?

A

Proximal tubule and descending loop of henle

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9
Q

Where is angiotensin 1 converted to angiotensin 2?

A

Lungs

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10
Q

What gland produces aldosterone?

A

Adrenal

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11
Q

What cells produce renin?

A

Juxtaglomerular cells

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12
Q

What does renin stimulate the production of and where?

A

Angiotensin 1 in the liver

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13
Q

T/F: The kidney is the site of production of active vit D.

A

True

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14
Q

What is azotemia?

A

Abnormal increased in concentration of BUN and/or creatinine in the blood

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15
Q

What can pre-renal azotemia be due to?

A
  • Dehydration
  • Hypoadrenocorticism
  • Cardiac disease
  • Shock
  • Hypovolemia
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16
Q

What is pre-renal azotemia a result of?

A

Poor renal perfusion

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17
Q

What can renal azotemia be due to?

A
  • Parenchymal disease
  • Infections
  • Cysts
  • Inflammation
  • Neoplasia
  • Toxins
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18
Q

What can post-renal azotemia be due to?

A

Blockage of the ureters, bladder, or urethra

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19
Q

T/F: Azotemia is synonymous with uremia.

A

False!

Although an azotemic patient may ALSO be uremic

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20
Q

Renal failure is defined by failure to perform what three functions?

A

Regulatory, excretory, and endocrine

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21
Q

What will renal failure result in?

A

Retention of nitrogenous solutes and derangement of fluid, electrolytes, and acid-base balance

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22
Q

Loss of what percent of nephrons will result in renal failure?

A

75%

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23
Q

T/F: An animal cannot survive with only one kidney.

A

False

Although the animal is then at higher risk for renal failure since it only has 50% of it’s total nephrons.

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24
Q

What is the definition of renal disease?

A

Presence of morphological or functional lesions in one or both kidneys.

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25
What is uremia?
Collection of clinical signs and biochemical changes associated with the critical loss of functional nephrons. (Primarily due to accumulation of toxic substances)
26
T/F: Uremia includes extra-renal manifestations of renal failure.
True
27
What does the glomerular filtration rate directly related to?
Renal functional mass
28
What are some accurate techniques to measure GFR? (2)
- Clearance of radioisotopes with renal scintigraphy | - Iohexal/inulin/creatinine clearance tests
29
What are some indurect methods that indicate GFR?
- Serurm urea levels - Serum creatinine levels - Cystatin C - SDMA
30
What is the gold standard test for GFR?
Renal scintigraphy
31
Where is urea synthesized?
Liver
32
Where is urea excreted?
Kidneys
33
What does urea do in the kidney?
Helps maintain the concentration gradient in the medulla. (Essential for proper kidney function)
34
Are all animals going to have the same "normal" levels of urea?
No, normal levels are effected by all the things.
35
T/F: Urea is a reliable estimate of GFR
False
36
Why is urea an unreliable estimate of GFR?
Subject to passive re-absorption in the tubules which can be exacerbated by slow rates of flow or tubular damage
37
What can lead to a falsely high urea level? (3)
GIT bleeds, intravascular hemolysis, high protein diets
38
What is creatinine synthesized from?
From the breakdown of creatine in muscle
39
T/F: Creatinine is produced at varying rates depending on muscle activity.
False, produced at a constant rate
40
T/F: Creatinine levels are dependent on muscle mass.
True, heavier muscled animals will have higher levels or creatinine
41
Is creatinine influenced by the diet?
Not significantly
42
Where is creatinine excreted?
Kidneys, unchanged
43
What will increase serum creatinine levels?
Reduced renal clearance/GFR
44
What will decrease serum creatinine levels?
Reduced muscle mass (may be significant in old or cachexic patients)
45
At what percent reduction of GFR will azotemia develop?
75% reduction (aka 25% of normal)
46
Is the relationship between creatinine excretion and GFR linear?
No, but still better indication than urea
47
Does creatinine give you an exact reason for the decreased GFR?
No
48
Will creatinine levels differ dependent on the cause of the azotemia?
No
49
Will creatinine levels differ dependent on an acute versus a chronic process?
No
50
Will creatinine levels differ dependent on reversible or irreversible failure?
No
51
T/F: Severity of clinical signs of azotemia are directly proportional to the magnitude of the increase.
False, there is massive individual variation
52
Is the severity of the azotemia a good prognostic indicator?
No, just gives you an indication that there IS a problem
53
What is cystatin C?
Small polypeptide protease inhibitor produced by all nucleated cells
54
Why is cystatin C a good indicator for GFR?
Freely filtered by the glomeruli and does not undergo tubular secretion
55
T/F: Cystatin C is completely reabsorbed by the proximal tubular cells and catabolized into amino acids
True
56
What is SDMA?
Symmetic dimethlarginine- methlyated form of arginine which is produced by all cells and released into the blood during protein degradation
57
What is the advantage of SDMA over creatinine as an indication of GFR?
Increases earlier than creatinine and can be detected at 40% decline in GFR
58
Is SDMA impacted by extra-renal factors or lean body mass?
No, kidney function specific
59
What is an important test for determining kidney function?
Urinalysis
60
What is the best method for urine collection for analysis?
Cystocentesis
61
What is a disadvantage of cystocentesis?
May give a false positive for blood
62
What kind of animal is urinary catheterization most used it?
Male dogs
63
What are the only useful tests on dipsticks?
Protein, pH, blood, glucose, ketone | Dipsticks are designed for humans, not animals
64
What are the two ways in which we can measure urine concentration?
Gold standard: osmolality | Used in practice: specific gravity
65
How are refractometers calibrated?
Distilled water set to 1.000
66
What solute can result in a falsely increased specific gravity?
Glucose
67
What range of SG is hyposthenuria?
1.000 - 1.007 or
68
What range of SG is is isosthenuria?
1.008 - 1.012 or ~300mOm
69
What range of SG is hypersthenuria?
> 1.012 or >300mOm
70
What range of SG is minimally concentrated urine?
1.013 - 1.030
71
What range of SG is is inadequately concentrated urine?
72
What range of SG is adequately concentrated urine?
Dogs >1.030 | Cats >1.035
73
What do we look for in sediment exams?
Bacteria, cells, casts, crystals
74
What are some causes of hyposthenuria?
- Psychogenic polydipsia - Diabetes insipidus - Hyperadronocorticism
75
What does a partial water deprivation test differentiate between?
Psychogenic polydipisa and diabetes insipidus
76
What would a failure to concentrate durin a partial water deprivation test indicate?
Nephrogenic DI or medullary washout
77
What is the fractional excretion of electrolytes used to assess?
Renal tubular dysfunction
78
What is the most common fractional excretion used?
Na- fractional excretion
79
What are the electrolytes compared to in a fractional excretion value?
Creatinine
80
What percentage Na-fractional excretion would indicate prerenal disease?
81
What precentage Na-fractional excretion would indicate renal disease?
>1%
82
Which breed of dog is predisposed to calcium dihydrate crystals?
Bischons
83
Which breed of dog is predisposed to cystiene crystals?
Bulldogs
84
Which breed of dog is predisposed to ammonium biurate crystals?
Dalmatians
85
Which animal is predisposed to struvite crystals?
Cats
86
What toxin will result in calcium monohydrate crystals?
Ethylene glycol
87
What is the urine protein creatinine ratio used to correlate?
Protein excretion during a 24hr period
88
What are the urine protein creatinine ratio values for a cat?
> 0.4 = proteinuric | 0.2-0.4 = borderline, recheck in 2mo
89
What are the urine protein creatinine ratio values for a dog?
> 0.5 = proteinuric | 0.2-0.5 = borderline, recheck in 2mo
90
Should urine protein creatinine ratio be interpreted by itself?
No, only after sedimentation and culture
91
Are bladder tumor anitgen tests super useful?
No, very poor specificity/sensitivity which gets worse with concurrent urinary tract disease
92
What are the most common types of bacteria found in the urinary tract?
Gram negative aerobic bacteria E. coli most common
93
What is a common source of bacteria in urine?
Environmental contamination- false positive
94
T/F: Presence of bacteria in any quantity is enough to diagnose a UTI.
False- must be a certain number of CFU's per mL
95
What are the storage time limits for a urine sample to culture?
Fresh- within 30 min Refrigerated- up to 6 hours Chemical preservatives and regrigeration- up to 72 hours
96
What part of the kidney should be biopsied with ultrasound or endoscope?
Cortex Blind sampling of the medulla risks hitting a interlobar artery
97
Can full thickness/wedge biopsies be obtained from a kidney?
Yes, requires general anesthesia and abdominal surgery
98
What is hematuria?
Presence of blood or red blood cells in the urine
99
What is gross hematuria?
Sufficient blood present to be apparent to the naked eye
100
What is occult hematuria
Blood present in insufficient quantities to be visible to the naked eye
101
What is pseudohematuria?
Red to brownish urine without intact red blood cells
102
What can pseudohematuria be due to the presence of?
Hemoglobin, myoglobin, or chemicals
103
What is a systemic cause of hematuria?
Hemostatic disorders
104
What are renal causes of hematuria
Neoplasia, calculi, trauma, infarction, cysts, glomerulonephritis, infection
105
What are lower urinary tract causes of hematuria?
Bacterial infection, calculi, trauma, neoplasia, polyps, cyclophosphamide therapy, feline idiopathic cystitis
106
What are genital tract causes of hematuria?
Prostatic disease, oestrus, infection, neoplasia, trauma
107
Can hematuria lead to hemoglobinuria?
Yes, if the red cells lyse
108
Are animals with hematuria usually dysuric?
No, not unless there is concurrent lower urinary tract disease/obstrution
109
What are the clinical manifestations of kidney disease?
- PU/PD - Anorexia/GI issues/ wt. loss - Pale MM - Lethargy - Blindness - Distended abdomen
110
Why will renal disease/failure patients have pale MM?
Anemia due to decreased EPO production
111
Why will renal disease/failure patients be blind?
Hypertension due to increased angiotensin 2
112
What is pollakiuria?
Frequent, small volumes of urine
113
What is dysuria?
Trying to urinate with little no to production NOT straining
114
What is stranguria?
Straining to urinate May be painful
115
What are some clinical findings of an animal with LUTD?
- Dehydration - Enlarged bladder (may be profound) - Difficult/impossible urinary catheterization - Localized SQ fluid around perineum or ventral abdomen (post-renal) - Free peritoneal fluid - Urine retention/incontinence - Straining or abnormal posture
116
What is a normal urine output?
1-2 mL/kg/hr
117
Should specific gravity be measured prior to any fluid therapy?
Yes- fluid therapy can falsely decrease SG
118
What are some things that can be used to differentiate between acute and chronic renal failure?
- Weight loss - PU/PD history - PCV - USG - Size of parathyroid glands - Carbamylated Hb
119
Is renal neoplasia common in small animals?
No
120
What are the primary renal neoplasms?
Adenocarcinoma Lymphoma Sarcoma Nephroblastoma
121
Is the kidney a possible site of metastasis?
Yes
122
Are renal carcinomas more common in dogs or cats?
Dogs
123
Do renal carcinomas typically cause clinical signs in early stages?
No
124
What are some features of renal carcinomas?
- Hematuria and wt loss - Typically unilateral causing renomegaly - Rarely causes azotemia - Can cause polycythemia and hypertrophic osteopathy
125
What percentage of animals will have metastasis from renal carcinomas at time of diagnosis?
50%
126
How do you treat renal carcinomas?
Nephrectomy (make sure other kidney is okay first!)
127
What is the prognosis for renal carcinomas?
Most dogs survive about 16mo without treatment
128
Are renal lymphomas more common in dogs or cats?
Cats
129
What are some features of renal lymphomas?
- Usually bilateral and enlarging - Weight loss, inappetance - PU/PD - Commonly azotemic - Often systemic - Tendency to spread to CNS - Fair association with FeLV
130
How do you treat renal lymphomas
- Multi-agent chemotherapy
131
What is the prognosis for renal lymphoma?
About 60% go into remission | Most cats survive 91 days with treatment
132
What are some non-neoplastic causes of renomegaly?
- Renal inflammation - Amyloidosis - Hydronephrosis - PKD - PSS
133
Which breed is predisposed to PKD?
Persian cats- mutation in PKD-1 gene
134
Is PKD generally symptomatic?
Depends on severity of cyst infiltration
135
Why is renal pain difficult to assess?
Typically referred or interpreted as spinal pain
136
What are some causes of renal pain?
- Pyelonephritis - Renal Calculi - Acute nephrosis - Early hydronephrosis - Renal trauma - Abscess - Neoplasia (rare)