Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

respiratory > UW 2 > Flashcards

UW 2 Flashcards

(55 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Invasive aspergiolsis - risk factors

A

immune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

invasive aspergillosis - findings

A
  1. triad of fever, chest pain, hemoptysis
  2. pulm nodules with halo
  3. positive cultures
  4. positive cell wall biomarkers (galactomannan, betal D glucam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

invasive aspergillosis -management

A

voriconazole +/- caspofungin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

chronic pulmonary aspergilosis - risk factors

A

lung disease/damage (cavitary TB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

chronic pulm aspergilosis - findings

A
  1. more than 3 months: weight loss, hemoptysis, fatique
  2. cavitary lesion +/- funfus ball
  3. positive aspergillus IgG seology)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chronic pulm aspergilosis - management

A

resect aspergilloma (if possible)

  1. azole (vorizonazole)
  2. embolization (if severe hemoptysis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tumors of the mediastinum - location

A

anterior: thymoma, thyroid, teratoma, lymphoma
middle: bronchogenic cysts
posterior: neurogenic, esoph leiomyomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hospitalized vs ventilator acquired pneumonia - definition

A

hosptial: 48 or more hours after admission
ventilator: 48 or more hours after intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Acute exacerbation of COPD - management

A
  1. O2 (target 88-92)
  2. inhaled bronchodilators
  3. systemic glucocrticoids (β2 or anticholinerg)
  4. antibiotics if at least 2 of dyspnea, more frequent cough, change in colore or volume of sputum)
  5. oselramivir if evidence of flu
  6. noninvasive (+) pressure ventilation
  7. intubation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pulm nodule sorrounded by ground glass

A

invasive aspergilosis (halo sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causes of obstructive pattern (and their DLCO)

A

asthma: normal/increaed
emphysema: decreasd
chronic bronchitis: normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

causes of increased DLCO

A
  1. asthma
  2. morbit obesity
  3. polycythemia
  4. pulm hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

increased PCWP is an indicator of

A

LA pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

lung problems - PCWP?

A

not affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

asbesotis exposure - when develop disease

A

after 20 years of initial exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

aspiration syndromes - types and mechansim

A

pneumonia: parenchyma infection, anaerobes microves
pnemonitis: parenchyma infl, aspiration of gastric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

aspiration syndrome - types and clinical features

A
  1. pnemonia: daus after aspiration, fever, cough, sputum. CXR infiltrates, can progress to abscess
  2. pneumonitis: hours after event, from asymptomatic to resp distress, CXR infiltrates (1 or both lower lobes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

aspiration syndrome - types and management

A

pneumonia: clindamycin or b lactam + lactamase inh
pneumonitis: supportive (no antibiotics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

negative pressure pulm edema

A

when a atient has upper airway obstruction that results in large negative intrathoracic pressure (due to inspiration against obstruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the 3 MCC of clubbing

A
  1. Lung ca
  2. Cystic fibrosis
  3. R –> L cardiac shunts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clubbing in COPD

A

copd does not cause

if there is, search for ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TB endemic areas

A

Mexico, philippnes, china, vietnam, india, Dominican Republic, Haiti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

management of PE if more than 4 wells

Study These Flashcards
A

first antigoagulant, and after diagnostic tests

24
Q

classic ECG in PE

Study These Flashcards
A

prominent S in lead I, Q in lead III, and inverted T in head III (S1Q3T3)

25
management after Wells criteria
1. PE likley --> CT pulm angiography --> if (-) is excluded, if (+) is confirmed 2. PE unlikely --> D dimers -->: if more more than 500 --> CT pulm angiography, if less excluded
26
Modified Wells criteria
- 3 points: Clinical signs of DVT, alternate diagnosis is less likley - 1.5 points: previous PE or DVT, herat rate more than 100, Recent surgery or immobilazation - 1 point: hemoptyisis, cancer MORE THAN 4 --> LIKELY 4 OR LESS --> UNLIKELY
27
fat embolism - time after event
12-78 h
28
pulm contusion - symptoms can be worsen by
fluid overvolume
29
COPD indications for O2 at home
1. resting PaO2 55 or lower 2. SaO2: 88 or less 3. Those with RHF or HCT higher than 55 should be started if Pao2 lower than 60 or Sao2 lower than 90
30
the 3 MCC of chronic cough are
1. upper airway cough syndrome (postnasal drip_ 2. asthma 3. GERD
31
POSTNASAL SYNDROME
caused by rhinosinus conditions including allergic, perennial nonallergic and vasomotor rhinitis --> mechanical stimulation of cough reflex treatment: chlorpheniramine
32
COPD exacerbation - when to give antibiotics
if 2/3 of: 1. increaed dyspnea 2. increased cough (more frequent o sever 3. sputum production (change in color or volume)
33
anaphylaxis - IV vs IM epinephrine?
IM --> if no response --> IV | NO IMMEDIATELY IV DUE TO SE (arrhythmia)
34
the most effective way to differentiate asthma from COPD
spirometry before and after administration of a bronchodilator (usually albuterol)
35
COPD - factors that decrease mortality
1. smoking cessation 2. Long term supplemental 02 decreases mortality if: - SpO2 under 88% - SpO2 under 89% + RHF or erythrocytosis (HCT more than 55)
36
solitary pulm nodule - definition
round opacity up to 2 cm in diameter within and surrounded by pulm parenchyma by convention: no pleural effusion, adenopathym atelectasis
37
solitary pulm nodule - DDX
1. 1ry lung Ca 2. Metastatic ca 3. Benigh infect granulomas (TB, histopl, other fungus) 4. Benign neolasm (lipomas, hamartomas, fibroma) 5. vascular (AV malformation)
38
Solitary pulm nodule on routine chest X-ray - management
previous chest x-ray: - stable over 2-3 years --> no further testing - No previous imaging or possible nodule growth --> CT: 1. Benign features --> serial CT scans 2. High suspicious for malignancy --> surgery 3. indeterminate or suspicious for malignancy --> biopsy or PET
39
high risk vs low risk for solitary pulm nodule
low: smaller than 0.8 cm, younger than 40, never skomed or smoking cessation more than 15 years, smooth margins high: larger than 2 cm, older than 60, current smoker or cessation less than 5 years before, corona radiata or spiculated margins
40
Causes of recurrent pneumonia
1. involving same region: local airway obstruction, aspiration --> CT 2. involving different regions of lung: immunoddef, sinopulm disease, noninfectious (Vasculitis, etc)
41
antitryps def - smoking
COPD 10 years earlier compare to nonsmoking
42
empiric treatment of CAP
1. outpatient:macrolide or doxycycline (healthy) resp quinolone or beta lactam + macrolide (comorbitities) 2. inpatients: quinolone (IV) or betal lactam + macrolide 3. ICU: beta lactam + macrolide or quinolne + beta lactam
43
resp quinolones
levo-, moxifloxacin
44
CURB-65
``` Confusion Urea more than 20 Respiration more than 30 Blood pressure lessthan 90/60 Age 65 or more ```
45
CURB-65 interpretation
0-1: low mortality --> outpatient 1-2 intermediate --> likley inpatient 3-4 urgent inpatient --> possibly ICU if socre more than 4
46
initial drug in stable PE in patient with RF
``` unfractionated heparin (if severe: GFR lower than 30) (the others are contraindicated) ```
47
SIADH - treatment
Fluid restrition (best initial) +/- salt tablets hypertonic (3%)saline for severe - DEMECLOCYCLINE ONLY IF THE OTHERS FAIL
48
PE - Aa gradient
increased
49
anemia - Aa gradient
low
50
dead space ventilation?
air in non-perfused areas
51
subacute vs chronic cough
subacute: 3-8 wks chronic: more than 8 wks
52
evaluation of subacute or chronic cough
evaluate and treat as indicated (stop ACEi, H1 for upper airway cough, OFT for asthma, PPI for GERD) --> if no improvement --> Cest X-ray - parenchymal disease, purulent sputum, immune, no specific etiology --> chest x-ray
53
atelectasi - PCO2
low
54
upper airway obstruction - graph
decrease the airflow rate during insipration and expiration --> flattening both the top and bottom of the flow - volume loop
55
FRC in ankylosing spond
normal or increased due to fixation of a rib in the inspiratory position

respiratory (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions