UWorld Flashcards
(114 cards)
1
Q
This infectious disease not only causes cardiomyopathy, but can result in apical aneurysm, mural thrombosis, conduction delays due to fibrosis ________
A
Chagas Disease (Borrelia parasite)
2
Q
T/F: Decompensated cardiac disease, PMH significant for LAD stent, does not require pre-surgical workup
A
T
3
Q
____ should be routinely tested for individuals with suspected restless leg syndrome
A
Ferritin/Iron Panel
4
Q
____ is used for bradycardia chemically
A
Atropine
5
Q
In _____, administration of adenosine during tachycardia event can worsen underlying tachyarythmia by force feeding conduction through accessory path
A
WPW
6
Q
____ are antibodies for Sjogrens
A
Anti Ro-La
7
Q
Low T3 and ___T4 is a common effect of amiodarone
A
High (Peripheral conversion deficiency)
8
Q
T/F: Fluconazole can be used to treat aspergillus
A
False, works for candida
9
Q
MALT lymphoma in Crohns typically found in the ______
A
Jujenum
10
Q
_____ aneurysm results in anisocoria, ptosis
A
PCA (Posterior communicating artery)
11
Q
Fatigue, pruititis, xanthalesma –> steatorrhea, jaundice; isolated ALP centric abnormalities ______
Tx_____
A
PBC
Urodeoxycholic acid
12
Q
_____ characterized by no pupillary reaction to light, vertical gaze palsy, nystagmus, ataxia
A
Perinaud syndrome, pineal gland tumor
13
Q
T/F: Always get new sensorineural hearing loss evaluated by ENT
A
True
14
Q
Brugada Syndrome EKG Findings:
A
Long QT>450ms, RBBB, ST Elevations Anterior (V1-V3)
Sodium channel defect SCN5a
15
Q
Guillan Barre treated with ___ and ____
A
IVIG, Plasma exchange
16
Q
ST Criteria for STEMI
1) >1mm contiguose leads , men
2 >___mm continuose leads, women
A
1.5
17
Q
Recurrent UTI like episodes in a male, with dysuria and pain on ejaculation_______
A
Chronic prostatitis
18
Q
Hypo____ is a risk factor for rhabdomyalosis, re-feeding syndrome can therefore precipitate rhabdo
A
Phosphatemia
19
Q
Treatment for chronic bacterial prostatitis _________
A
6 weeks of Cipro
20
Q
Gastroparesis typically diagnosed with _________
A
Nuclear gastric emptying study
21
Q
_____ immunosuppresive drug increases risk of gout
A
Cyclosporine (decreases excretion)
22
Q
Gout Flare Treatment
1) No renal disease: Colchicine
2) Renal Failure: _________
A
Intra-articular steroids
23
Q
high Osmotic gap stools associated with _____
A
Celiac, pancreatitis, lactose intolerance
24
Q
Numerical Predictor for bad prognosis in COPD______
A
FEV1<40
25
Treatment of alopecia areatta______
Topical vs intra-lesional corticosteroid
26
____ therapy for bells palsy is correlated with good outcomes, anti-virals have unclear data
Steroids
27
backbone therapy for Auto dominant polycystic kidneys _____. Screening is done with _____ rather than genetic testing
ACE/ARB
Renal Ultrasound
28
Actinic keratosis, pre-lesion to SCC, is treated with _________
topical 5FU, Cryotherapy
29
Screening colonoscopy for first degree relatives
1) 10 year before diagnosis of relative OR
2) Age _____
Whichever comes first
40
30
phentolamine is an alpha ____
Blocker
31
Neisseria Meninigitis Prophylaxis Regiments
1) Rifampin 600mg x2 days
2) _______
3) Ceftrioxone 250 x1
Ciprofloxacin 500mg x1
32
Pretibial Myxedema is a sign of ______
Hyperthyroidism
33
Plantar warts (HPV) treated with _____
Topical salicylic acid --> iquimod
| - You have to give the salicyclic acid few weeks to work
34
Indications for parathyroidectomy
1) Serum Ca>11
2) ______ OR Nephrolithiasis OR Kidney disease
3) Symptoms: polyuria, bone pain, neuropsych
Osteoporosis
35
When does osteopenia warrant bisphosphonate
| 1) FRAX overall>20%, FRAX Hip>____
3%
36
Most common non-surgical hospital adverse event ________
Drug adverse events
37
Type ___ error is when you conclude no difference in therapy when there is a difference
2
38
Dupytren contracture commonly associated with _____
DM2
39
Older patient, generalized AM pain to large muscle group (back, torso, thigh) with mildly elevated ESR_______, treated with _____, associated with _________
Polymyalgia rheumatica, low dose steroid, giant cell arteritis
40
____ drug can be used for preclampsia prevention
Aspirin
41
In children, constipation can lead to ______ infection
Pyelonephritis
42
Pregnant patients with syphillis require penicillin desensitization due to pregnancy drug risk, otherwise alternatives
1) ______
2) Ceftrioxone
Doxycycline
43
Steps for PAD Management
1) BP control, smoking cessation, aspirin/statin
2) ______
3) Cilastozol
4) Revascularization Surgery
Supervised exercise program
44
T/F: Patients with positive EKG stress test will eventually require PCI
True
45
TTP is a MAHA syndrome, therefore one would see _____ on the peripheral smear
schistocytes
46
First line treatment for ITP______
Steroids , versus in TTP the treatment is plasma exchange
47
Normal serum osm _____. Normal urine Osm____
275, 100
48
Cocaine HTN treatment
1) Ativan/Benzo
2) _______
Phentolamine , cocaine users are high risk of aortic segment dissection, new neurological signs = get CT scan
49
Diabetic retinopathy screening begins in type 1 diabetics ___ years after diagnosis
5
50
Medical treatment for hyper-prolactinoma _____
Cabergoline/Bromocriptine
51
It usually takes ___ hours for an Ixodes tick to actually transfer lyme parasite to a recipient
36hrs of attachment
52
Typically add Spironolactone when EF
35%
53
____ diabetic drug can lead to worsened heart failure, fluid retention
pioglitazone, -glitazones
54
_____ diabetic drug can help in weight loss, but also associated with pancreatitis risk
Exatenide
55
Fronto-temporal dementia, motor neuron disease is possible?: True/False
True: Fasciculations, hyper-reflexia
56
Atopic Dermatitis Treatment
1) Moisturize
2) _______
3) Tacrolimus ointment
Steroid cream
57
Atopic Dermatitis Treatment
1) Moisturize
2) _______
3) Tacrolimus ointment
4) Phototherapy
Steroid cream
58
Priapism treatment
1) Corpus Cavernosum drainage
2) ______ injection
Phenylephrine
59
Atrributable Risk Formula
[Rexposed - Runexposed]/Risk Exposed
60
Population Attributable Risk Percent Formula
(Prevalence)*(RR-1) / [Prevalence *(RR-1) + 1]
61
best assay for esophageal perforation______
Oral contrast esophogram
62
Lithium can cause ___thyroidism
Hypo
63
Causes of high output heart failure
1) Severe anemia
2) _______
3) AV Fistula
4) Pagets disease/ thiamine deficiency (wet beri beri)
Hyperthyroidism
64
Causes of high output heart failure
1) Severe anemia
2) _______
3) AV Fistula
4) Pagets disease/ thiamine deficiency (wet beri beri)
Hyperthyroidism
65
An endoscopic feature of pernicious anemia ______
absent gastric rugae
66
_____ cancer can be associated with sjogrens
Non-hodgkins B cell lymphoma
67
Treatment of chronic urticaria _______
Oral antihistamine , usually resolved in 2-5 years
68
Treatment of Severe C.diff with hemodynamic instability _______
IV Metronidazole, Oral Vancomycin
69
Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia is autosomal ____
Dominant
70
Confirmation of h.pylori eradication can only happen ____ weeks after therapy
4
71
More potent version of folic acid_____
Folinic acid
72
______ treatment among RA treatments is particularly good for anemia of chronic disease
Infliximab (TNF-a)
73
Most common cause of proteinuria in adolescents ______
Orthostatic proteinuria
74
____ cancer associated with urinalysis/renal findings, secondary polycythemia vera
Renal cell carcinoma
75
Deficiency in ____, causes dementia, diarrhea, dermatitis (3D's), stomatitis, cheliosis
Niacin (Vitamin B3)
76
Deficiency in ____, causes dementia, diarrhea, dermatitis (3D's), stomatitis, cheliosis
Niacin (Vitamin B3)
77
Early ______ may have a meningitis like picture, with posterior column centric degeneration
Neurosyphillis
78
Early ______ may have a meningitis like picture, with posterior column centric degeneration
Neurosyphillis
79
___ is a good preventative agent for cluster headaches
Verapmil
80
___ is a good preventative agent for cluster headaches. Best abortive for cluster headache____
Verapmil
100% oxygen
81
___ is a good preventative agent for cluster headaches. Best abortive for cluster headache____
Verapmil
100% oxygen
82
Post exposure prophylaxis for HIIV is usually ____ days
28
83
Symptomatic diabetes does not require 2 confirmatory tests for diagnosis : T/F
True
84
For _____ condition, it is possible to have a hypertensive/renal crisis
Scleraderma
Tx: Nitroprusside + Captopril (short acting ACE)
85
____ cancer associated with lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, lymphcytosis (smudge cells)
CLL
86
Both_____ and ____ results in high SAAG ascites
CHF, Cirrhosis ; protein>2.5 is suggestive of heart failure
87
Worsened symptoms following TB/HIV medication start may be a sign of _____
Immune reconstitution syndrome
88
If a renal stone is ____ dimension, automatic urology consult
10mm+ (1cm)
89
T/F: Anyone with bicuspid aortic valve should be screened for aortic aneurysm
True
90
_____ syndromes associated with bicuspid aortic valve
1) ______, 30% of patients
2) Marfan
Turners
91
CNS crypto treated with :
1) Amphotercin + Fluctocytosine : 2 week IV
2) _____ high dose fluconazole as consolidation
8 weeks
92
CNS crypto treated with :
1) Amphotercin + Fluctocytosine : 2 week IV
2) _____ high dose fluconazole as consolidation
8 weeks
93
Screening colonoscopy intervals for patients with FAP/Gardners : every ____ years, starting at age ____
5 years, 40 or 10 years before diagnosis
If diagnosed after age 60, then every 10 years
94
____ can lead to a subclavian flow murmur
Aortic co-arctation
95
Triad of Wernickes Encephalopathy
1) Ataxia
2) _____
3) Encephalopathy
Oculomotor dysfunction
96
Triad of Wernickes Encephalopathy
1) Ataxia
2) _____
3) Encephalopathy
Oculomotor dysfunction
97
Mamillary body atrophy is an imaging finding for _____
Korakhoff Syndrome
98
Secondary syphillis involves palmes and soles (T/F)
True
99
Dermatomyositis antibodies to test for :
Jo-1, Mi-2
100
If any COPD patient walks in with increase sputum production, hemoptysis, wheezing, you would trial Abx especially Azithromycin (T/F)
True
101
Treatment for ABPA steroids + _______
Azole (Intraconazole/Voriconazole), but not fluconazole
102
Treatment of Pagets disease______
Bisphosphonates
103
treatment of actinic keratosis ______
5-FU
104
Most common organism for erysipelas ______
Group A Strep (GAS)
105
Indication for spironolactone in heart failure :
| 1) EF
35%, 40%
106
treatment of seborrheic dermatitis
1)
2)
1) Selenium shampoo
| 2) Topical antifungal
107
Treatment of post-herpetic neuralgia
1) TCA
2) ______
Gabapentin
108
First line therapy for gout_______
Indomethacin
109
Hypothyroidism is associated with ____ cancer
Lymphoma
110
Mild Ottitis externa can be treated with topical drops, but more severe (pseudomonas) requires____
Oral antibiotics (Augmentin)
111
Cardiac drugs that can increase digoxin concentrations
1) _____
2) Quinidine
3) Amiodarone
Verapmil
112
You can have seronegative RA (T/F)
True
113
Glitzones are associated with _______ as a side effect
volume overload, heart failure
114
treatment for PCP spazzz episode____
Lorazepam
