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uworld bio rev Flashcards

1
Q

what comprises the inner wall of all blood vessels

A

a single layer of endothelial cells

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2
Q

single layer of endothelial cells forms a

A

barrier that regulate entry/exist of materials into/out of bloodstream

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3
Q

what do endothelial cells secrete?

A

chemical signals that prevent clotting

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4
Q

injury to a blood vessels triggers

A

1) formation of platelet plug

2) clot is strengthened

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5
Q

formation of platelet plug means…

A

endothelial damage exposes connective tissue outside blood vessels

platelets bind connective tissue (i.e. collagen fibers) to form PLATELET PLUG out of vessel

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6
Q

where are platelets derived from

A

bone marrow

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7
Q

bound platelets and endothelial cells near site of damage continue…

A

to release signals that enhance platelet aggregation

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8
Q

where are clotting factors synthesized

A

mainly in the liver

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9
Q

clotting factors are specialized…

A

proteins that activate in response to platelet aggregation + signaling factors outside vessel

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10
Q

activated clotting factors induce processes that lead to…

A

formation of the enzyme thrombin

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11
Q

thrombin induces

A

protein strands (i.e. fibrin) to form an adhesive mesh-like structure over the platelet plug (reinforcing clot)

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12
Q

synapses are

A

gaps b/w presynaptic and postsynaptic neuron

can be electrical or chemical in nature

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13
Q

synapses are important in allowing

A

communication bw an axon terminal of a presynaptic neuron

AND dendrites of a postsynaptic neuron from an action potential

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14
Q

neurons communicate with

A

one another via action potentials

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15
Q

an action potential travels down the…

A

signaling cell (presynaptic neuron) until it reaches the axon terminals

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16
Q

axon terminals are responsible for

A

signal transmission across synapse to the postsynaptic neuron

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17
Q

synaptic transmission via ligand-gated ion channels

A

1) action potentials reach axon terminal

2) Ca2+ channels open

3) Ca2+ ions enter cell

4) Ca2+ triggers neurotransmitter release via exocytosis

5) neurotransmitter binds ligand-gated ion channels to allow ions thru

6) inhibitory or excitatory cell response

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18
Q

glutamate (glu)

A

primary excitatory neurotransmitter of CNS

involved in learning and memory

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19
Q

GABA

A

primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of brain

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20
Q

glycine (gly)

A

primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord

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21
Q

dopamine (DA)

A

can be excitatory or inhibitory

involved in cognition, attention, movement, reward

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22
Q

serotonin (5-HT)

A

mainly inhibitory

involved in sleep, appetite, mood

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23
Q

norepinephrine (NE)

A

can be excitatory or inhibitory

involved in sympathetic signaling in the ANS

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24
Q

acetylcholine (ACh)

A

involved in parasympathetic signaling in the ANS

released by motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions of the somatic NS –> excites skeletal muscle

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25
Q

synaptic transmission of excitatory neurotransmitters

A

1) AP reaches axon terminal

2) AP causes Ca2+ channels to open –> Ca2+ in presynaptic neuron’s axon terminal

3) Ca2+ triggers neurotransmitter release via exocytosis

4) excitatory NT binds ligand-gated ion channels to allow Na+ ions into postsynaptic neuron

5) Na+ ions depolarize membrane potential + promote AP initiation

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26
Q

synaptic transmission of inhibitory NTs

A

1) AP reaches axon terminal

2) AP causes Ca2+ channels to open

3) release Ca2+ into presynaptic neuron’s axon terminal

4) inhibitory NT binds ligand-gated ion channel to allow Cl- ions into post synaptic neuron

5) Cl- ions cause membrane potential to hyperpolarize + inhibit AP initiation

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27
Q

what happens to chemical synapses?

A

AP in presynaptic neuron releases NTs

NTs bind receptors on membrane of postsynaptic neuron

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28
Q

classification for NTs

A

excitatory - AP MORE likely to occur in the postsynaptic neuron

inhibitory - AP LESS likely to occur in postsynaptic neuron

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29
Q

APs are electrical signals that travel from

A

a neuron’s cell body down its axon and to its axon terminals

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30
Q

during APs, membrane potential of the neuron…

A

changes due to opening/closing of voltage-gated Na+ and K+ ion channels

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31
Q

at rest, a neuron maintins a potential difference known as…

A

resting membrane potential (RMP) of ~ -70 mV

meaning that intracellular space is 70 mV more neg than extracellular space

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32
Q

RMP is maintained by the

A

Na+/K+ pump and K+ leak channels

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33
Q

Na+/K+ pump and K+ leak channels are always..

A

open and allow passive diffusion of K+ across membrane

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34
Q

stimulus may cause voltage-gated Na+ channels to open and then….

A

Na+ rushes into cell –> depolarize membrane

membrane potential is (+)

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35
Q

if depolarization is enough to reach a certain…

A

threshold, an AP is initiated in the neuron

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36
Q

if the threshold is reached…

A

voltage-gated Na+ channels remain open

futher rapid depolarization of membrane occurs

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37
Q

Na+ entry causes AP to reach its

A

peak (overshoot) –> membrane potential is at most positive

voltage gated Na+ channels close and voltage gated K+ channels open to go back to RMP

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38
Q

K+ rushes out of neuron after K+ channels open and result in

A

REPOLARIZATION

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39
Q

voltage gated K+ channels close more slowly so…

A

membrane potential becomes more neg briefly than the RMP (i.e. HYPERPOLARIZATION)

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40
Q

when voltage gated K+ channels close…

A

RMP is restored

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41
Q

during an AP, the opening/closing of voltage gated channels determines

A

state of membrane polarization and propogation of AP

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42
Q

if voltage gated K+ channels are downregulated…

A

repolarization would occur more slowly

results in neuron hyperexcitability

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43
Q

neurons are responsible for

A

sending electrical signals to other cells

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44
Q

neuroglia provide support functions to

A

neurons and the nervous system

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45
Q

types of neuroglia in CNS

A

ependymal cells

oligendrocytes

microglia

astrocytes

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46
Q

what type of cell lines compartments and produced cerebrospinal fluid

A

ependymal cells

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47
Q

what do oligondendrocytes do

A

form myelin sheath around axons to reduce ion leakage

decrease capacitance

increase AP propagation speed along axon

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48
Q

microglia serve as

A

immune cells which phagocytize pathogens/damaged cells/waste materials

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49
Q

astrocytes

A

contact blood vessels

regulate blood flow to coordinate synaptic activity/chem changes

important in maintaining extracellular fluid/ion/pH/NT homeostasis

provide nutrient for neuron function

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50
Q

types of neuroglia in PNS

A

schwann cells

satellite cells

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51
Q

schwann cells form

A

myelin sheaths around axons to increase conduction speed

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52
Q

satellite cells provide

A

structural support and support nutrients to neurons

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53
Q

oligendrocytes myelinate

A

CNS axons

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54
Q

pathway of fluid/liquid transport in lympathic system

A

interstitial fluid

lymph capillaries

lymph vessels

lymph duct

vein

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55
Q

reflexes are involuntary responses to

A

stimuli

may or may not require input from brain

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56
Q

a reflex arc is the specific neuronal pathways that

A

helps the direct muscular or glandular effect associated w a specific reflex

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57
Q

reflex arcs begin with the

A

stimulation of a sensory neuron

electrical impulse then travels down spine/brain along sensory nerve

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58
Q

electric impulse from reflex arc can be transmitted either:

A

directly

indirectly

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59
Q

direct impulse transmission

A

directly transmitted to effector neuron (monosynaptic reflex arc)

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60
Q

indirect impulse transmission

A

indirect transmission through interneuron

interfaces w/ effector neuron (i.e. polysynpatic reflex arc)

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61
Q

electrical impulses initiated in effector neurons leave the CNS and…

A

travel along effector neuron to stimulate muscle fiber/gland/ganglionic neuron

this is done either directly or after synapsing w/ a postganglionic effector neuron

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62
Q

when the effector neuron synapses with a muscle fiber, it is referred to as

A

a motor neuron

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63
Q

autonomic reflex arcs are always

A

polysynaptic

e.g. gustatory-salivary reflex

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64
Q

reflexes can be modulated by…

A

input from the brain

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65
Q

in the case of polysynaptic reflexes, this modulation takes the form of…

A

descending signals from higher areas in the CNS that act on preganglionic neurons in the reflex arc

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66
Q

soma of both interneuron + preganglionic neuron within CNS could be….

A

acted upon by descending input from higher brain centers to alter gustatory-salivary reflex

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67
Q

what are reflexes mediated by?

A

reflex arcs

neuronal pathways (incl a sensory neuron)

an effector neuron

possibly an interneuron

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68
Q

membrane-bound receptors respond to ligands that are either:

A

endogenous (originating from organism)

exogenous (foreign to organism)

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69
Q

agonists are ligands that

A

activate the receptor and promote its downstream effects

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70
Q

antagonists are ligands that

A

deactivate or inhibit the receptor

prevent its downstream effects

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71
Q

cholinergic signaling involves

A

acetylcholine (ACh)

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72
Q

cholinergic neurons secrete

A

ACh which binds to cholinergic receptors

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73
Q

parasympathetic pathways utilize ACh for signaling between

A

pre and postganglionic neurons

as well signalling bw the postganglionic neuron and target tissue (e.g. salivary glands)

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74
Q

the gustatory-salivary reflex arc is mediated primarily by

A

parasympathetic pathways

exerts effects (i.e. stimulation of salivation) through cholinergic signaling

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75
Q

name what the parasympathetic division of the NS promotes

A

E conservation and storage

lower heart rate

decreased air flow

stimulating digestion (e.g. salivation, release of digestive enzymes, peristalsis)

inc glucose uptake

glycogenesis

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76
Q

name what the sympathetic division of the NS promotes

A

oxygen delivery to skeletal muscles is maxed

increased heart rate

dilated airways

constricted blood vessels

glycogen in liver –> glucose to provide energy for skeletal muscles

pupils dilate to max light intake

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77
Q

step 1 of neural process of receiving/acting on sensory info in a reflex arc

A

sensory receptors detects stimulus

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78
Q

sensory receptors are highly specialized nerve endings that

A

respond/recognize to highly specific types of stimuli (e.g. chemical, light, pressure, vibration)

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79
Q

2nd step of neural process

A

activated sensory neuron sends an afferent sensory signals (electrical impulse) –> CNS

elec impulse is transmitted to an interneuron or effector neuron

remember: Afferent Approaches CNS

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80
Q

3rd step in neural process

A

interneurons in cns in brain/spinal cord act as integration center

sensory/CNS input are processed and consolidated

interneurons can relay sensory info to brain + integrate signals from brain into reflex response

interneurons transmit signal directly to effector neuron

interneurons are not present in every reflex arc

input from brain is not always needed for reflex completion

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81
Q

4th step in neural process

A

effector neuron generates/sends an efferent signal that travels TOWARD the target organ (muscle or gland)

REMEMBER: Efferent info Exits CNS

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82
Q

5th step in neural process

A

effector (target) organ generates desired response to stimulus

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83
Q

within the gustatory-salivary reflex, the sensory neuron makes up the

A

afferent component of the reflex arc

sensory neuron transmits impulses toward the CNS

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84
Q

pre and postganglionic fibers make up the

A

efferent component of the reflex arc

fibers transmit impulses away from the spinal cord

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85
Q

preganglionic neuron corresponds to

A

the efferent component of the gustatory-salivary reflex

pregang neuron sends impulses AWAY from CNS

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86
Q

sensory neuron corresponds to the

A

afferent component of the gustatory salivary reflex

sensory neuron sends impulses TOWARD the CNS

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87
Q

interneuron propogates signals within the

A

CNS

impulses are not generated

impulses do not travel directly or away from the CNS

interneurons is neither afferent/efferent

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88
Q

input from higher areas in the CNS can modulate

A

activity of reflexes by either strengthening or weakening magnitude of the response

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89
Q

the nodes of Ranvier increase the rate of

A

depolarization toward the axon terminal

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90
Q

nodes of Ranvier are sites of

A

ion flux across myelinated axons

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91
Q

nodes of ranvier are sites of interrupted myelination that

A

contain voltage-gated channels

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92
Q

when and where are an AP generated?

A

generated in a neuron when

the soma depolarizes enough that membrane potential reaches a threshold for voltage-gated channels opening

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93
Q

after AP is generated, voltage-gated channels open in a…

A

coordinated fashion, allowing a series of ionic movements across plasma membrane to occur

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94
Q

ionic movements across plasma membrane allow…

A

rapid maximal depolarization of a small area of the membrane due to Na+ transport into cell

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95
Q

after maximal depolarization of membrane occurs…

A

rapid repolarization as Na+ channels close and K+ channels open

allowing K+ to leave the cell

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96
Q

APs ‘move’ along an axon toward the

A

axon terminal as successive regions are depolarized

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97
Q

manner in which APs move is

A

influenced by myelin

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98
Q

what forms myelin

A

formed by plasma membrane from glial cells

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99
Q

portions of glial cell plasma membrane are wrapped….

A

many times around an axon

insulating axon and preventing ion flow across axon membrane

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100
Q

wave of ion transport is continuous along…

A

myelinated axons

but ‘jumps’ in a discontinuous fashion along myelinated axon bc of the insulation provided by myelin

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101
Q

what influences rate at which a neural impulse is conveyed?

A

axon size

myelination

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102
Q

larger diameter axon that are myelinated transmit

A

neural impulses FASTER than smaller/unmyelinated axons

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103
Q

myelination can prevent

A

the loss of current along an axon

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104
Q

by exposing a short segment of an unmyelinated axon, the node of Ranvier promote…

A

entry of extracellular Na+ into axons

while limiting number of open ion channels

GREATLY increases rate at which neural impulses conduct along myelinated axons

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105
Q

drug that blocks release of adrenocorticotropic hormone from anterior pituitary would

A

decrease secretion of cortisol from adrenal cortex

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106
Q

viroids are

A

subviral infectious particles that consist of short circular single strand of RNA

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107
Q

viriods have regions where

A

RNA binds with itself

creating some double-stranded areas of circular genome

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108
Q

RNA-composing viroids does not

A

generally code for protein unlike VIRUSES that have protein coats (capsids)

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109
Q

when infecting cells, viroids can bind….

A

host cellular RNA sequences

results in gene silencing preventing synthesis of necessary proteins

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110
Q

ribosomes are composed of

A

specific proteins and rRNA

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111
Q

ribosomes translate…

A

mRNA sequences into proteins in all cells

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112
Q

substituting first (5’) nucleotides often

A

alters the AA

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113
Q

substituting the second nucleotide always

A

alters the AA

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4
5
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114
Q

substituting the 3rd (3’) nucleotides doesn’t

A

often alter the AA

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115
Q

64 codons =

A

genetic code

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116
Q

64 codones code for how many AAs

A

20 AAs

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117
Q

what does it mean that the genetic code is degenerate?

A

multiple codons can code for the same AA

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118
Q

protein-coding genes consist of

A

multiple codons

sequences of three nucleotides that code for a specific AA

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119
Q

during translation, each mRNA codon base-pairs with…

A

a corresponding tRNA that is charged w/ a specific AA

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120
Q

DNA mutations in the protein-coding regions of a gene may alter…

A

the sequences of transcribed mRNAs

creating changes in AA structure of encoded proteins

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121
Q

what do silent mutations alter

A

DNA/RNA sequences

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122
Q

silent mutations DON’T alter

A

protein structure

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123
Q

mutations in the third position often

A

code for the same AA

making them silent mutations

124
Q

why do mutations in the third position often code for the same AA?

A

wobble (less stringent base pairing) at third position of mRNA codone and tRNA anticodon

125
Q

resting state in sliding filament model fo muscle contraction

A

Ca2+ absence makes tropomyosin block myosin-binding sites of actin filament

126
Q

cross-bridge formation involves myosin heads binding to

A

myosin-binding site

127
Q

ATP hydrolysis is where

A

myosin head shifts back to high-energy position

128
Q

power stroke is where myosin head

A

pulls actin filament to center of sarcomere

129
Q

cross-bridge dissociation involves the myosin head…

A

being released into low-energy position

130
Q

what is muscle contraction dependent on?

A

interaction bw myosin (thick) and actin (thin) protein filaments in sarcomere

131
Q

sarcomere is the

A

basic contractile unit of muscle tissue

132
Q

immune system comprises both of what types of immunity

A

adaptive and innate

133
Q

cells of the innate immune system can

A

RAPIDLY and NONSPECIFICALLY recognize and destroy foreign antigens

134
Q

adaptive immune system is subdivided into

A

cell mediated immunity

humoral immunity

135
Q

adaptive immune system comprises of cell that can

A

recognize SPECIFIC antigens

mount more specialized immune responses against pathogens

136
Q

in cell mediated immunity, what do t-cells do

A

recognize + mount immune responses against foreign antigens displayed by MHC proteins

137
Q

MHC proteins on any given cell display…

A

fragments of any proteins present within that cell

138
Q

cells containing foreign pathogens will generally…

A

display protein fragments (antigens) on their MHC proteins

139
Q

helper t-cells are t-cells that

A

recognize foreign antigens displayed by MHC proteins of other immune cells

140
Q

B-lymphocytes are cells that

A

bind and engulf a foreign antigen

141
Q

the antigen engulfed by the B-lymphocyte is

A

broken down into fragments and transported to be displayed on MHC proteins on cell membrane

142
Q

helper T cell bind the foreign antigen presented by the

A

b-lymphocyte and releases cytokines

cytokines induce division of b-lymphocute into identical cells

143
Q

division of b-lymphocyte by cytokines leads to…

A

differentiation of identical cells to b-lymphocyte to secrete antibodies against invading pathogen

144
Q

macrophages and dendritic cells engulf

A

foreign antigens via phagocytosis

145
Q

macrophages and dendritic cells present antigen fragments on

A

MHC proteins found on cell membrane

146
Q

a low count of helper T cells would affect the

A

activation of cytotoxic t cells and b-lymphocytes (produce antibodies against bacterium)

147
Q

MHC protein’s expression is solely dependent on

A

transcriptional and translational machinery

148
Q

because of MHC”s dependence on a cell’s transcriptional/translational machinery…

A

cells would still be able to display bacterial antigens on their MHC proteins regardless of helper T cell count

149
Q

helper T cells bind

A

foreign antigens presented on other immune cells

150
Q

helper t cells release

A

signalling molecules that enhance immune responses

such as cytotoxic T cel activation and antibody production by B lymphocytes

151
Q

in the absence of external energy input, molecules in solution will

A

diffuse from areas of high to low concentration

this is THERMODYNAMICALLY FAVORABLE

152
Q

molecules that separated from an area of lower concentration by a membrane will…

A

STILL FLOW across a membrane down their concentration gradient

as long as the membrane is permeable to those molecules

153
Q

osmoregulation is the

A

homeostatic process by which organisms actively assess their environment + regulate internal concentration of fluid/electrolytes

154
Q

in the absence of osmoregulation, what happens

A

saltwater fish would tend to absorb salt and lose water

155
Q

because saltwater fish tend to absorb salt and lose water, their osmoregulatory systems do what

A

combat this process by using energy to excrete salt and absorb water

156
Q

freshwater teleosts live in an environment where water concentration is (x) and salt concentration is (y)

A

higher water concentration and lower salt concentration outside their bodies than inside

157
Q

in the absence of osmoregulation, salt ions will tend to move to

A

the lower concentration environment of the exterior freshwater

water molecules do the opposite

158
Q

what is involved in osmoregulation in marine teleosts?

A

1) seawater ingestion

2) retrieval (absorption) of salt and water from the intestine

3) excretion of DIVALENT ions through urine

4) excretion of MONOVALENT ions through urine

159
Q

examples of divalent ions

A

Mg2+ and SO4^2-

160
Q

monovalent ions examples

A

Na+ and Cl-

161
Q

start codon is

A

AUG

162
Q

stop codons

A

UAA

UAG

UGA

163
Q

STEP 1 OF TRANSLATION: nuclear genes are initially transcribed by

A

RNA polymerase to pre-mRNA

164
Q

STEP 2 OF TRANSLATION: pre-mRNA is then converted into

A

mature mRNA in a process including splicing to remove introns

165
Q

STEP 3 OF TRANSLATION: mature mRNA is then

A

transported out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm

mature mRNA –> protein by ribosomes

166
Q

each AA in a protein is encoded by

A

a corresponding mRNA codon that binds anticodon of tRNA that is charged with a specific AA

167
Q

direction of mRNA translation

A

5’ to 3’ direction

168
Q

mRNA translation starts at

A

start codon (AUG)

continues until stop codon (UAA, UAG, UGA) is reached

169
Q

stop codon does not code for an AA but instead

A

binds a release factor that promotes dissociation of the translation complex

170
Q

regions upstream of the start codon and downstream of the stop codon are referred to as

A

untranslated regions (UTRs)

171
Q

UTRs do not

A

code for AAs

172
Q

a mature mRNA consisting of 500 molecules was translated into a 110 AA protein, what is the number of nucleotides?

A

110 amino acids x 3 nucleotides per codon = 330 nucleotides

173
Q

the 330 nucleotides of this mRNA molecules are translated into

A

amino acids of the protein

174
Q

number of nucleotides that do not code for AAs can be calculated via

A

500 total nucleotides - 330 coding nucleotides = 170 noncoding nucleotides

175
Q

what acts like the framework in eukaryotic cells?

A

internal cytoskeleton

provides shape and internal structure to cells + organization

176
Q

cytoskeleton is made of a network of fibers…

A

interspersed throughout the cytoplasm and consists of three major components

177
Q

three major components of cytoskeleton

A

intermediate filaments

microfilaments

microtubules

178
Q

intermediate filaments are composed of

A

several protein types

e.g. keratin and lamin

179
Q

intermediate filaments perform the following functions:

A

1) work with microfilaments to determine shape

2) make up the nuclear lamina (inner lining of nuclear envelope)

3) assist in anchoring organelles to specific compartment within the cell

4) provide crucial support for cell to be able to withstand mechanical forces (e.g. compression)

180
Q

when model organisms are deficient in keratins, what would happen?

A

organisms’s hepatocytes more fragile and unable to withstand/resist mechanical forces

may display abnormal hepatocyte phenotypes

181
Q

microfilaments are made of

A

actin protein subunits organized into double-stranded rods

182
Q

what do microfilaments help determine?

A

overall shape of a cell and assist in some cellular locomotion

183
Q

microfilaments are responsible for

A

muscular contractions and forming the cleavage furrow during cytokinesis

184
Q

the reduced ability of a cell to undergo cytokinesis would be a result of

A

the cell’s being deficient in microfilaments

185
Q

microtubulues are made of

A

alternating alpha and beta tubulin subunits organized into hollow tubes

186
Q

microtubules force the

A

mitotic spindle during the cell division process

187
Q

microtubules are involved in

A

movement within the cell

facilitate vesicular transport

188
Q

reduced intracellular transport of substances would be a result of

A

a deficiency in microtubules

189
Q

what forms the cores of cilia and flagella?

A

microtubules

190
Q

a cell having a reduced number of cilia on its surface would be a result of

A

a microtubule deficiency

191
Q

where does fertilization occur

A

fallopian tube

192
Q

multipotent stemms can develop into

A

multiple specialized cell types

193
Q

what gene is responsible for the initiation of male sex determination and coding for testicles?

A

SRY gene

Sorry You’re A Male

194
Q

afferent neurons ascend the

A

spinal cord and carry info to the brain

afferent = approach CNS

195
Q

what hormone induces ovulation and testosterone production?

A

LH (luteinizing hormone)

196
Q

a blastula is a

A

hollow sphere of cells that implants in the endometrial lining

197
Q

once blastula implants itself in uterine wall, i.t. becomes…

A

a BLASTOCYST

198
Q

bile is an important part of the absorption of what?

A

fat-soluble substances (vitamins A, D, E, K)

199
Q

what neurons exit the spinal cord?

A

efferent neurons

they bring signals from the brain to the muscles/glands

200
Q

golgi apparatus does what?

A

modifies and distributes proteins

eukaryotes only

201
Q

mesoderm comprises of

A

muscoskeleton, circulatory system, gonads, adrenal cortex

MOVING THINGS

202
Q

interneurons are part of

A

a reflex arc

203
Q

centrioles contain

A

9 groups of microtubules

204
Q

centrioles do what?

A

pull chromosomes apart

205
Q

gram negative is

A

pink/red

has a thin wall

wall made of peptidoglycan

206
Q

temporal summation is when

A

one presynaptic neuron releases multiple neurotransmitters over a period of time

triggers an action potential

207
Q

gram positive is

A

purple

has a thick wall

wall is made of peptidoglycan/lipteichoic acid

208
Q

lysosomes are the

A

demolition and recycling center

made by golgi

209
Q

spatial summation si when

A

multiple presynaptic neurons releasing neurotransmitters at the same time

triggering an action potential

210
Q

what is released in response to stress and low blood glucose concentration?

A

CORTISOL

released by the adrenal cortex

211
Q

ectoderm develops into the

A

nervous system

skin, hair, mouth

212
Q

action potential is the mechanism by which

A

electrical signals travel through the nervous system

213
Q

CNS and PNS derive from

A

ectoderm

214
Q

amplitude of an AP is

A

independent of the amount of current that produced it

215
Q

what makes alkaline fluid to help sperm survive acidic environment of reproductive tract?

A

seminal vesicles and prostate glands

216
Q

Na+ concentration is higher or lower outside the cell

A

HIGHER

217
Q

microfilaments make up the cell’s

A

cytoskeleton

polymers of actin

218
Q

K+ concentration is higher or lower inside cell

A

HIGHER

219
Q

a polarized membrane has an electrical

A

potential difference across the cell membrane

220
Q

electrical potential difference =

A

voltage

221
Q

endoderm develops into

A

GI tract, respiratory tract, endocrine glands, bronchi, bladder, stomach

222
Q

morula results from

A

division of a fertilized ovum

solid ball of cells

223
Q

what does the hepatic portal system do

A

delivers deoxygenated blood to the liver to be detoxed further

before returning to the heart

224
Q

when membrane is depolarized, the membrane potential becomes

A

MORE POSITIVE compared to resting potential

225
Q

membrane potential is an

A

electrical potential difference b/w inside and outside of a cell

226
Q

lysozyme is an

A

antimicrobial enzyme forming part of the innate immune system

227
Q

where are lysozymes found

A

tears and saliva

228
Q

resting membrane potential (voltage) of a cell is

A

~70 mV

229
Q

when membrane potential is depolarized during an AP,

A

peak is around +40 mV

230
Q

memory B cells

A
  • formed following primary infection
  • generate more robust immune response in case of re-infection
231
Q

MHC-II displays

A

exogenous antigen to helper CD4+ T cells

232
Q

when membrane is depolarized, membrane potential becomes

A

more positive compared to resting potential

233
Q

rough ER makes proteins from

A

mRNA

234
Q

what flows in during depolarization

A

Na+

235
Q

what does Na+ ions flowing in do

A

increases charge inside cell

result in depolarization of cell membrane

236
Q

fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed through the

A

lacteals in villi

237
Q

where do Na+ ions enter cell thru

A

voltage-gated Na+ channels

238
Q

Na+ concentration gradient drives the

A

movement of Na+ ions

239
Q

during what phase are mRNA and proteins synthesized

A

G1

prepares for subsequent steps leading to mitosis

240
Q

interphase includes

A

G1, S, G2 phases

phase where cell spends most of its life

241
Q

what happens at the G2 checkpoint

A

cell will check that DNA has replicated correctly

242
Q

what phase do cells grow and make organelles

A

G2

243
Q

where does ETC take place in eukaryotes

A

inner mitochondrial matrix

244
Q

explain nondisjunction

A

when sister chromatids don’t separate properly during anaphase

results in ANEUPLOIDY

245
Q
A
246
Q

transposons are

A

DNA sequences that can change their position within a genome

creates/reverses mutations

247
Q

what generates antibodies to specific antigens?

A

B cells

require stimulation from helper T cells

part of adaptive immune system

248
Q

repolarization occurs when

A

K+ ions EXIT the neuron

249
Q

what occurs during prophase

A

DNA condenses

centrioles migrate to opp poles

microtubules form

250
Q

hyperpolarization is when

A

membrane potential dips below the resting potential

251
Q

when hyperpolarized, the neuron is in a

A

refractory period during which another stimulus is given to the neuron

2nd AP will not occur

252
Q

why does hyperpolarization occur

A

K+ channels are slow to close

253
Q

large intestine absorbs

A

water and salts

forms feces

254
Q

t-cells are a type of

A

white blood cell that circulates around our bodies

scans for cellular abnormalities/infection

255
Q

examples of t-cells

A

helper t cells

cytotoxic t-cells

suppressor t-cells

memory t-cells

256
Q

hormone released by thyroid gland and builds bone

A

calcitonin

257
Q

calcitonin increases/decreases

A

increase in bone/kidneys

decreases in blood/gut absorption

258
Q

virions are

A

extracellular individual virus particles

259
Q

virion contains

A

DNA or RNA
SS or double stranded
protein coat (capsid)

260
Q

function of G0 phase

A

cell enters G0 phase if division isn’t necessary

261
Q

what enzymes breaks AAs apart

A

aminopeptidase

262
Q

what catalyzes the hydrolysis of peptide bonds?

A

trypsin

breaks proteins into smaller peptides

263
Q

what happens during telophase

A

chromosomes decondense

nuclear membrane

cytokinesis occurs

264
Q

secretin does what

A

release of pancreatic juices

slows motility

265
Q

transduction is the

A

transfer of genetic material using a bacteriophage

266
Q

what enzymes start the chemical digestion

A

amylase

lipase

267
Q

helper t-cells

A

activate cytotoxic t-cells and macrophages to attack infected cells

or stimulate b-cells to secrete antibodies

268
Q

what connects the mouth to the esophagus

A

pharynx

269
Q

epiglottis function

A

prevents food from entering larynx

270
Q

functional unit of exocrine pancrease

A

pancreatic acinar cell

271
Q

acinar cell does what

A

synthesizes, stores, secretes digestive enzymes

272
Q

pancreatic juices contain

A

bicarbonate

pancreatic amylase

peptidase

lipase

juices flow into the duodenum

273
Q

what makes trypsin

A

enteropeptidase

274
Q

main inhibitory neurotransmitter in spinal cord

A

glycine

275
Q

principal site of conversion of tyrosine into catecholamines

A

adrenal medulla

276
Q

where is the adrenal medulla located

A

center of adrenal gland

surrounded by the adrenal cortex which sits on top of the kidneys

277
Q

CCK stimulates

A

bile release from gallbladder

release of pancreatic juices

promotes satiety

278
Q

what responds to antigen on MCH-I and kill virally infected cells

A

killer cells / cytotoxic t-cells

279
Q

mastication does what

A

breaks food down into small pieces

forms a bolus and is swallowed

280
Q

what causes agglutination?

A

opsonizing pathogens

281
Q

hormones in the duodenum that stimulate release of pancreatic juices + bile

A

secretin and CCK

282
Q

systole

A

some chambers of heart muscle contract after refilling w/ blood

AV valves close
semilunar valves open

283
Q

natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte that can

A

recognize and kill cancer cells or cells that have been infected

284
Q

natural killer cells do not

A

attack invading organisms directly

285
Q

natural killer cells destroy

A

body’s own cells that have become infected or cancerous

286
Q

top 3rd of esophagus is under

A

somatic control

287
Q

middle third of esophagus is under

A

autonomic control

288
Q

bottom third of esophagus is under

A

autonomic control

289
Q

middle third of esophagus has combo of both

A

skeletal and smooth muscle

290
Q

full length protein –>

A

free digested protein fragments –> MHC II –> T cell receptor

291
Q

all nucleated cells contain

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC) I molecules

292
Q

pro antigen-presenting cells also contain

A

MHC II molecules

293
Q

MHC molecules form complexes with

A

antigens displayed on cell surface

294
Q

antigens displayed in complex with MHC molecules on cell surface bind to

A

T-cell receptors

295
Q

neurotransmitters bind to receptors on

A

postsynaptic cell and make it more or less likely to fire an AP

296
Q

larger current do not create

A

larger APs

297
Q

action potentials are said to be

A

all or none signals

occur fully or NOT AT ALL

298
Q

types of granulocytes

A

neutrophils
eisonophils
basophils

part of innate immune system

299
Q

types of agranulocytes

A

monocyte

lymphocute

part of innate immune system

300
Q

CO2 and H+ will trigger heme group to

A

release its O2

301
Q

Co2 and H+ allosterically

A

inhibit hemoglobin

302
Q

allosteric inhibition of hemoglobin means oxygen is

A

released near lots of Co2 or in acidic sites

which is where respiration is happening and O2 is needed

303
Q

agranulocytes have no

A

granules

304
Q

transduction is the

A

transfer of genetic material using a bacteriophage

305
Q
A

bio (3 decks)

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