Uworld - Medicine Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

Which important complication of end-stage liver disease is characterized by a significant decrease in glomerular filtration in the absence of another clear cause of renal dysfunction, minimal hematuria (< 50 erythrocytes/hpf) and lack of improvement with volume resuscitation?

A

Hepatorenal syndrome (HRS)

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2
Q

List 3 ways to treat hepatorenal syndrome?

A
  • Address precipitating factors i.e., hypovolemia, anemia, infection
  • Splanchnic vasoconstrictors i.e., midodrine, octreotide, NE + albumin
  • Liver transplantation
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3
Q

What are 3 indications for giving HAV vaccine to patient with HIV?

A
  • Chronic liver disease
  • Men who have sex with men
  • IV drug users
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4
Q

Renal injury typically causes hypocalcemia; the presence of hypercalcemia suggests what?

A

Multiple myeloma cast nephropathy

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5
Q

Which drugs have ben shown to increase appetite and weight gain in pt’s with cancer-related anorexia/cachexia syndrome?

A
  • Progesterone analogues i.e., megestrol acetate and medroxyprogesterone acetate

OR

  • Corticosteroids
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6
Q

Transmural intestinal inflammation is seen in what?

A

Chron’s disease

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7
Q

What is the preferred initial DMARD in pt’s with moderately to severely active RA?

A

Methotrexate

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8
Q

What are 3 potential complications of primary biliary cholangitis?

A
  • Malabsorption
  • Metabolic bone disease i.e., osteoporosis or osteomalacia
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
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9
Q

What is the most likely cause of occult GI hemorrhage days after being admittd to the ICU for septic shock?

A

Stress-induced ulcer

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10
Q

TTP must be treated emergently with what?

A

Plasma exchange (most important) + glucocorticoids

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11
Q

What are 3 effective first-line tx’s for uncomplicated cystitis in non-pregnant women?

A
  • Oral TMP-SMX
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Fosfomycin
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12
Q

Pt’s with clinical signs of HTN but normal BP readings should be tested for what?

A

Masked HTN w/ ambulatory BP monitoring

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13
Q

Cupping of the optic disc with loss of peripheral vision is characteristic of what?

A

Open angle glaucoma

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14
Q

What is the preliminary investigation of choice in the managment of pleural effusion; exception?

A
  • Diagnostic thoracentesis
  • EXCEPT in pt’s w/ classic signs and sx’s of CHF, where a trial of diuretic is warranted
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15
Q

Which 2 markers are the most appropriate diagnostic tests for acute hepatitis B infection?

A
  • HBsAg
  • anti-HBc
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16
Q

What should be recommended as part of the initial tx regimen in all pt’s with intermittent claudication?

A
  • Low-dose aspirin + statin therapy
  • Exercise therapy
17
Q

Hyperkalemia with EKG changes needs immediate tx with what?

A
  • IV Calcium
  • Although this does not affect the serum K+ concentration, Ca2+ does ↓ cardiac membrane excitability and provide short-term cardioprotection from the membrane depolarizing effects
    of hyperkalemia.
18
Q

Pt’s with Turners Syndrome often present with rib notching and on cardiac auscultation have a short 2/6 midsystolic murmur heard at the left paravertebral interscapular area which is consistent with what?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

19
Q

What are the 2 classic autoantibodies most often assoc. w/ Dermatomyositis?

A

anti-Jo-1 (antisynthetase antibody) and anti-Mi-2 (against helicase)

20
Q

How is Dermatomyositis managed clinically and what type of regular screening is essential for these pt’s?

A
  • High-dose glucocorticoids PLUS glucocorticoid-sparing agent
  • Regular, age-appropriate cancer screening
21
Q

Why is there an increased risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in pt’s with chronic autoimmune diseases (i.e., SLE, Sjogren’s)?

A
  • Persistent B-cell stimulation
  • Immune dysregulation
  • Exposure to immunosuppressive agents
22
Q

What is the mainstay pharmacotherapy for Bell’s palsy?

A

Oral glucocorticoids (i.e., prednisone)

23
Q

In a pt with chronic liver disease, such as with chronic HCV infection, what are the strategies recommended to prevent further liver damage?

A
  • Alcohol avoidance
  • Hepatitis A and B vaccination
24
Q

Which 2 infectious agents are responsible for severe, acute retinal necrosis with pain, keratitis, uveitis, and funduscopic findings of peripheral pale lesions and central necrosis in HIV patients?

A

Both HSV and VZV

25
Which cause of retinitis is _painless_ and has findings of hemorrhages and **fluffy** or **granular** lesions around the retinal vessels?
**CMV**
26
What laboratory value is often elevated in pt's with upper GI bleeding; why?
- **BUN/creatinine** ratio - Increased **urea production** from intestinal breakdown of hemoglobin - Increased **urea reabsorption** in the **prox. tubule** due to assoc. **hypovolemia**
27
What are some underlying conditions which can increase thyroid binding globulin (TBG)?
- **Estrogens** i.e., pregnancy and OCPs + **estrogenic drugs** i.e., tamoxifen - **Acute hepatitis**
28
Which features of peritonsillar abscesses can be helpful in distinguishing from epiglottitis?
**Deviation** of the **uvula** and **unilateral LAD**
29
Which DMARD sometimes used for RA is associated with retinopathy as an AE?
**Hydroxychloroquine**
30
Which 2 pro-motility drugs can be used to tx diabetic gastroporesis?
**Metoclopramide** and **Erythromycin** (for short intervals \<4 weeks)
31
A patient with nephrotic syndrome develops sudden onset abdominal pain, fever, and hematuria; what is the most likely complication?
**Renal vein thrombosis**: most commonly see with **membranous glomerulopathy**
32
Mixed connective tissue disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized by variable clinical features of what 3 autoimmune disorders?
- **SLE** - **Systemic sclerosis** - **Polymyositis**
33
Which serological marker has both high specificity and sensitivity for mixed connected tissue disease?
**anti-U1 RNP**
34
What is the first-line drug therapy during the acute phase of reactive arthritis?
**NSAIDs**
35
What are 6 common etiologies of crystal-induced AKI?
- **Acyclovir** - **Sulfonamides** - **Methotrexate** - **Ethylene glycol** - **Protease inhibitors** (-navir) - **Uric acid** (tumor lysis syndrome)
36
What are the preferred pharmacologic agents for treating vasospastic angina?
**Calcium channel blockers** i.e., diltiazem, amlodipine
37
Why is IgA antibody testing often negative in pt's with biopsy confirmed celiac disease?
Many have an associated **selective IgA deficiency**, which is **common** in **celiac disease**
38