Variadas 1

Question 1

What are some symptoms of lesion on the cerebellum?

Answer 1

Ataxia, dyssynergia, intention tremor.
Ex: unable to perform finger to nose test

Question 2

What are some symptoms of lesion on the basal ganglia?

Answer 2

Resting tremor and rigidity

Question 3

What are some symptoms of lesion in the pyramidal trats?

Answer 3

Difficulty in motor tasks and spasticity

Question 4

What are some symptoms of lesion on the DCML (dorsal column medial lemniscus)?

Answer 4

Sensory issues

Question 5

What region of the lungs are preferentially ventilated when the pt is standing?

Answer 5

Base

Question 6

What region of the lungs are preferentially ventilated when the pt is supine?

Answer 6

Posterior areas

Question 7

What region of the lungs are preferentially ventilated when the pt is sidelying?

Answer 7

Ipsilateral lung
(The lung being laid on)

Question 8

What are some signs and symptoms of Hypoglycemia?

Answer 8

Profuse sweating
Cold, clammy skin
Unsteadiness

Question 9

Is excessive thirsty ( polidypsia) a sign of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia?

Answer 9

HYperglycemia

Question 10

What cannot be included in testimonials?

Answer 10

Superlative statements

Statements that says u are a specialist (if u are not). You have to be successfully authorized by the register.

Garantee of results

Question 11

What type of reviews (made by pts) you cannot use?

Answer 11

Review that gives treatment recommendations

Do not use reviews that speak poorly about another clinic/physiotherapist

Avoid reviews that use relative statements

Question 12

What are some risk factors for COPD?

Answer 12

Smoking (environment risk factor)

Allergies (host risk factor)
Poor nutrition (host risk factor)
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (host risk factor)

Question 13

When is sweat chloride test considered positive for Cystic fibrosis?

Answer 13

Maior ou igual 60mEq/l in individuals with a medical history consistent w CF

Question 14

Prior to age 6 which is test used to measure of overall lung function in CF?

Answer 14

ABG analysis

Question 15

Which skin tests would you perform prior to applying electrical stimulation?

Answer 15

Sharp and dull sensation

Question 16

Which skin tests would you perform prior to applying thermal treatments?

Answer 16

Hot and cold

Question 17

Which skin tests would you perform prior to applying non thermal treatments?

Answer 17

None

Question 18

Adtional sounds and vibrations heard during auscultation are called…

Answer 18

Adventitius breaths

Question 19

When the breath sounds are very quiet and barely audible they are called…

Answer 19

Decreased

Question 20

When a louder,hollowed and echoing sound occupies a larger portion of the ventilatory cycle , the breaths sounds are called…

Answer 20

Bronchial

Question 21

Inhalation and the beginning of exhalation normally produce a soft rustling sound.
The end of exhalation is normally silent.

This characteristic of a normal breath sound is called

Answer 21

Vesicular

Question 22

dyssynergic bladder

Answer 22

a problem with coordination between the bladder contraction and sphincter relaxation.

Common symptoms include urinary urgency, urinary frequency, hesitancy in starting urination, nocturia (frequency at night), dribbling, and incontinence.

Question 23

Spastic bladder

Answer 23

presents with problem of storing the urine resulting in urge incontinence.

Question 24

Flaccid bladder

Answer 24

presents with problem of emptying the bladder and causes overflow incontinence cause of inability of bladder to contract.

Question 25

MCA stroke

Which extremities is more involved?

Answer 25

upper extremities are involved more than the lower extremities

Question 26

Which extremities are more involved in ACA strokes?

Answer 26

lower extremities are more involved

Question 27

If the right side of the cerebral cortex is involved,

What side will the pt have hemiplegia?

Answer 27

right side of the cerebral cortex is involved, the patient will have left side hemiplegia.

Question 28

Anosognosia

Answer 28

lack of awareness or denial of a paretic extremity belonging to that person or lack of insight of paralysis.

Question 29

Somatoagnosia

Answer 29

Somatoagnosia is impairment of body scheme or lack of awareness of the body structure and the relationship of body parts to oneself or to others.

Patients with this deficit may display difficulty following instructions that require distinguishing body parts and are unable to imitate movements.

The patient for example may have difficulty with transfer activities because they do not perceive the meaning of terms related to the body parts. The lesion site is often the dominant parietal lobe.

Question 30

Visual agnosia

Answer 30

Visual agnosia is the inability to recognize familiar objects despite normal functioning of the eyes and optic tracts.

The patient can identify an object once it is handled.

The lesions are most common in the occipito-temporo-parietal association area of either hemisphere.

Question 31

Astereognosis

Answer 31

Astereognosis is the inability to recognize forms by handling them although tactile, proprioceptive and thermal sensations are intact.

Question 32

A physical therapist performs a manual muscle test on the primary hip abducior. The therapist should perform the test while palpating the _

А.rectus femons
B. gluteus medius
C. sartorius
D.gluteus minimus

Answer 32

B

Question 33

A 36 year old female is limited to 30 degrees of exteral rotation at the right shoulder.
Which shoulder mobilization technique might prove to be beneficial?

A. anterior glide of the head of the humerus
B. posterior glide of the head of the humerus

C. inferior glide of the humeral head on the glenoid
D. superior glide of the humeral head on the glenoid

Answer 33

A

Question 34

Which progressive resistive exercise would function to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor?

A. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
B. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
C. extemal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
D. intemal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing

Answer 34

C

Question 35

A physical therapist palpates from a spinous process laterally along the second rib. What bony structure would you expect the therapist to next encounter?

A-lateral border of the scapula
B-spine of the scapula
C-superior angle of the scapula
D-acromion

Answer 35

C

Question 36

A physical therapist observes a patient ambulating with a Trendelenburg gait pattem. This deviation is caused by weakness of the

A. gluteus maximus
B. gluteus medius
C. gluteus minimus
D. pirformis

Answer 36

B

Question 37

A 25 year old female presents with a diagnosis of recurrent patella dislocation. Based on your knowledge of the anatory of the knee, the patella probably dislocated in a/an direction?

A: superior
B. inferior
C. medial
D. lateral

Answer 37

D

Question 38

. A physical therapist evaluates a 16 year old male diagnosed with left knee anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. During the evaluation a Lachman test is performed. Ideally the therapist should perform the test with the knee in .?

А.5-10 degrees of fiexion
В.15-30 degrees of flexion

C.45-60 degrees of flexion
D. complete extension

Answer 38

B

Question 39

therapist examines a patient referred to physical therapy diagnosed with a lateral collateral ligament sprain. Which nerve can be palpated immediately below the head of the fibula?

A. common peroneal
B. tibial
C.sural
D. lateral plantar

Answer 39

A

Question 40

Failure to integrate the reflex could explain a child’s inability to flex the neck while in a supine position?

А.tonic labyrinthine
В.Moro

C. asymmetrical tonic neck
D. symmetrical tonic neck

Answer 40

A

Question 41

Which type of gait would be most appropriate for a patient who exhibits unilateral lower extremity weakness?

A. 4 point gail
B. 2 point gar
C. 3 point gait
D. swing through

Answer 41

C

Question 42

A patient is having surgery performed to amputate his right lower extremity below the knee. The physician’s choice of postoperative dressing is a rigid dressing. A rigid dressing should

A. be applied 24 to 48 hours after surgery
B. not be used during ambulation

C.promote residual limb circulation and aid in proprioception
D. be used to avoid a knee flexion contracture

Answer 42

C

Question 43

A chid with athetoid cerebral palsy is referred to physical therapy. Which of the following characieristics would a physical therapist typically identify when evaluating an athetoid child?

A. continuous low tone and intermittent tonic spasms
B. small range movements with full control within the range

C. disorganized movement with fluctuating muscle tone
D. Ittle to no influence from tonic neck reflexes

Answer 43

C

Question 44

A type of dressing which is used post-amputation is a Shrinker. Which of the following is true regarding Shrinkers.

A) It is ideal to keep changing a Shrinker over time as the residual limb circumference is bound to decrease.

B) Shrinkers are preferably used post-operatively as they minimize the stress on incision.

C) Shrinkers are expensive and difficult to apply with respect to elastic bandages.

D) It is recommended to apply shrinkers in order to control edema while the sutures are still in place.

Answer 44

A -It is ideal to keep changing a Shrinker over time as the residual limb circumference is bound to decrease.
Shrinkers are sock like garments knitted of heavy reinforced cotton.

Incorrect options:-
B and D - It is not ideal to use a shrinker post operatively as it can stress the incision while the sutures can get caught in the shrinker’s mesh and lead to wound dehisence.
C - Although shrinkers are expensive, they are relatively easier to apply when compared to elastic bandages.

Question 45

A physical therapy student is starting his clinical rotation at a skilled nursing facility and is reading about the modalities that promote tissue healing. In which of the following cases is a therapist LEAST likely to use electrical currents for tissue healing?

A) Ares of known thrombophlebitis
B) Area with impaired sensation

C) Patient with history of cardiac disease
D) Patient with altered cognition

Answer 45

Answer is A.

Rationale: Stimulation should not be placed over areas of known venous or arterial thrombosis or thrombophlebitis because stimulation may increase circulation, increasing the risk of releasing emboli.
Demand pacemaker or unstable arrhythmias when electrical stimulation is delivered with a stimulation unit, stimulation over the carotid sinus, stimulation over pelvis, abdomen, trunk, and low back during pregnancy are all contraindications to using electric currents for tissue healing. Cardiac disease, impaired mentation or sensation are precaution for using electric current for tissue healing. If the patient cannot report or feel pain, electrical stimulation must be applied with caution, and close attention must be paid to any possible adverse effects.

Question 46

In order to maximize the effectiveness of postural drainage techniques for the right middle lobe, a therapist should elevate the foot of the bed inches?

A. 4
B.8
C.14
D. 24

Answer 46

C

Question 47

A therapist presents an inservice on physical work capacity and endurance of the older adult. Which of the following items would not be influenced by age?

A.resting heart rate
B.stroke volume
C.cardiac output
D. blood pressure

Answer 47

A

Question 48

A therapist evaluates a 62 year old female status post stroke with left hemiparesis. Which of the following perceptual deficits is not commonly associated with left hemiparesis?

A. denial of disability
B. rigidity of thought
C.short attention span
D. sequencing deficits

Answer 48

D

Question 49

A patient requires a walker for gait training. When fitting the walker for the patient the elbow should be placed in

A. 10-20 degrees of flexion
B. 20-30 degrees of flexion
C. 40-50 degrees of flexion
D. complete extension

Answer 49

B

Question 50

Which statement best describes the realistic functional status of a C4 quadriplegic after completing rehabilitation?

A. patient is able to ambulate independently

B. patient is independent in all phases of activities of daily living

C.patient is able to propel a manual wheelchair independently but needs assistance for activities of daily living

D. patient is able to use a motorized wheelchair

Answer 50

D

Question 51

A 65-year-old female was reaching for a cup in her cupboard when she slipped and fell. She landed on her right hand resulting in a distal radial fracture.
While at the hospital, bloodwork revealed that she has osteoporosis. She has decided to consult with a physiotherapist to address her falls risk.

How should the physiotherapist proceed with reducing the patient’s fall risk?

a. Perform a general assessment of strength, balance and vestibular function.

b. Provide the patient with a cane to increase her base of support.

c. Educate the patient about proper footwear and offer suggestions such as grab bars for the bathroom and railings for the stairs.

d. Educate the patient about Osteoporosis and fragility fractures.

Answer 51

The answer is: A

A. Perform a general assessment of strength, balance and vestibular function.
This is the BEST answer as it is the only one that involves a thorough evaluation of the patient to specifically determine their needs. • A good falls prevention program is patient specific and designed around their needs.

Question 52

A young mother brings her 11-month-old daughter in for a physiotherapy consult. When asked what her concern is, the mother states that her daughter has poor head control and is still not crawling. She is concerned because when she places her daughter on her stomach, she tends to pull her arms and legs inwards like she is tucking herself into a ball and when she places her on her back, she tends to straighten out her legs and arms in an uncontrolled fashion.

Which of the following correctly describes the reflex that is being described by the mother?

a. Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex (ATNR)
b. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex (STNR)
c. Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex (TLR)
d. Moro Reflex

Answer 52

The answer is: C

A. Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex (ATNR)
• Stimulus: Head position, turned to one side
• Response: Arm and leg on face side are extended, arm and leg on scalp side are flexed

B. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex (STNR)
Stimulus: Head position, neck flexion or extension
Response: When head is in flexion, arms are flexed and legs are extended. When head is in extension, arms are extended and legs are flexed.

C. Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex (TLR)
Stimulus: Prone or supine position and resulting head position • Response: In supine position, the body and extremities are held in extension. In the prone position, body and extremities are held in flexion.

D. Moro Reflex
Stimulus: Head dropping into extension suddenly for a few inches (child feels like they are falling)
Response: The child cries out, opens their arms (extend and abduct) and hands and then bring the arms back across their chest

Question 53

Your 65-year-old patient suffered a stroke 9 months ago. He is actively participating in weekly outpatient rehabilitation.
Despite his efforts, he still has vision issues. He has also recently been diagnosed with right sided heart failure.

Question: What type of vision loss would occur with a lesion at the optic chiasm?

a) Bitemporal hemianopsia
b) Binasal hemianopsia
c) Hemispatial neglect
d) Hemianopsia

Answer 53

Answer: A

a) Bitemporal hemianopsia - A lesion at the optic chiasm would cause bitemporal hemianopsia (aka “tunnel vision”). This is a type of partial blindness where vision is missing in the outer (temporal) half of both the right and left visual field.

b) Binasal hemianopsia - Type of partial blindness where vision is missing in the inner (nasal) half of both the right and left visual field. It is associated with certain lesions of the eye and of the central nervous system, such as congenital hydrocephalus.

c) Hemispatial neglect - A neuropsychological condition in which, after damage to one hemisphere of the brain is sustained, a deficit in attention to and awareness of one side of the field of vision is observed.

d) Hemianopsia - A general term for blindness over half the field of vision.

Question 54

Vignette: Your 65-year-old patient suffered a stroke 9 months ago.
He is actively participating in weekly outpatient rehabilitation.
Despite his efforts, he still has vision issues. He has also recently been diagnosed with right sided heart failure.

Question: Which of the following signs and symptoms is not associated with both left and right heart failure.

a) Kidney and brain issues due to decreased perfusion
b) Pink, frothy sputum
c) Shortness of breath
d) Lethargy

Answer 54

Answer: B

a) Kidney and brain issues due to decreased perfusion - Found in both left and right heart failure.

b) Pink, frothy sputum - A hallmark sign of left heart failure not right heart failure. It is due to pulmonary edema that occurs with left heart failure.

c) Shortness of breath - Found in both left and right heart failure.

d) Lethargy - Found in both left and right heart failure.

Question 55

Vignette: Your 65-year-old patient suffered a stroke 9 months ago.
He is actively participating in weekly outpatient rehabilitation.

Despite his efforts, he still has vision issues. He has also recently been diagnosed with right sided heart failure.

Question: Given that the patient suffered an injury to the optic chiasm due to a stroke, which of the following structures was most likely also injured due to its close proximity to the optic chiasm?

a) Frontal lobe
b) Brainstem
c) Occipital lobe
d) Hypothalamus

Answer 55

d) Hypothalamus - Lies closest in proximity to the optic chiasm. The optic chiasm is located at the bottom of the brain immediately inferior to the hypothalamus.
i. What is the primary role of the hypothalamus?
• Keep the body in homeostasis through the regulation of hormones.