Vet Nursing Final Flashcards by Sarah Anderson

When a flap of skin is torn away but still attached, aka degloving injury

Avulsion

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What are the 3 phases of healing?

Inflammatory, proliferative, maturation

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Healing phase that begins immediately after injury, platelets aggregate forming blood clot, and macrophages and neutrophils begin removing bacteria

Inflammatory phase

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The first 3-5 days after an injury are known as “lag phase” which occur during ______ phase

Inflammatory phase

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Occurs when surgical incision or wound reopens, most like occurs within 3-5 days or the ______ phase

Dehiscense, inflammatory

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This healing phase begins 2-3 days after injury and may continue for several weeks, overlaps inflammatory phase

Proliferative

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When does granulation begin to fill a wound?

3-5 days after injury

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Fibroblasts deposit ____ to strengthen the wound

collagen

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Epithelialization begins ____ days over healthy granulation tissue

4-5 days

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When does contraction of a wound begin?

Begins in 1 week

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Phase begins at appx 3 weeks and can last weeks/months/years, collagen fibers form and fill the wound creating a scar

Maturation phse

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What is primary or first intention healing?

Clean, minor wounds. Tissues can be pulled togethr and sutured or stapled with no complication

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Wounds older than 6-8 hours, treated as an open wound and then closed surgically. Closure must occur before granulation appears

Delayed primary closure

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Healing when a wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inner areas to outer surface, results in scar formation

Second-intention healing

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Wound is left open for 3-5 days to allow granulation tissue to form and then surgically repaired.

Combination of 1st and 2nd intention healing, open healing followed by closure.

Third-intention healing

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3 considerations for wound management

Cleansing, closing, covering

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Chlorhexidine and povidine-iodine are ______ _____

surgical scrubs

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Removal of necrotic tissue and foreign debris

Wound debridement

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Penrose drain is a ____ drain that uses capillary action

Passive

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Closed suction drain that works as wound vac is a ____ drain

Active drain

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Blood sample that is low pressure and deoxygenated blood

Venous

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Blood sample that is high pressure and oxygenated

Arterial

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For venipuncture the needle is placed at a ____ degree angle just ____ to the vein

25 degree angle lateral to the vein

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Peripheral capillary blood samples are used to check for blood parasites and are collected from ____ ___ and _____ _____

Marginal ear and nail trims

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Arterial blood samples are collected from ____ artery or ____ artery

Femoral or dorsal metatarsal artery

Arterial blood samples are used to evaluate ____ \_\_\_\_ and _____ status

Acid base and respiratory

Collapsed lung caused that may be caused by pulmonary disease, scarring of lung, infections, tumors and foreign objects

Atelectasis

Rare disease, with flu-like symptoms, spread by contact with blood, urine, semen, milk and tissues

Canine brucellosis

Zoonotic disease spread via fecal/oral route

Campylobacter and salmonella

Disease spread via contact with infected urine

Leptospirosis

Opthalmic condition associated with intraocular pressure

Glaucoma

Glaucoma is considered a medical _____ as delay may cause permanent damage

Emergency

Nonhereditary causes of cataracts

Diabetes mellitus, inflammation, trauma

Only effective treatment for cataracts

removal of lens

Characterized by inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva

Keratoconjunctivitis "Dry eye"

Characterized by fluid backup into the lungs (pulmonary edema) and pleural effusion in cats

Left sided heart failure

Characterized by congestion in the thoracic and abdominal cavities

Right sided heart failure

Edema jugular distention, abdominal distension, hepatomegaly, pleural and pericardial effusion are all signs of ____ \_\_\_\_ heart failure

Right sided

Patients with right sided heart failure should be stabilized with \_\_\_\_\_, ____ and the removal of effusion

Oxygen and diuretics

Most frequently diagnosed form of heart disease in the dog

Mitral insufficiency

Clinical signs of mitral insufficiency

cough, pulmonary edema, dyspnea

What breed of dog are predisposed to mitral insufficiency?

Miniature Poodles

Most common cardiomyopathy in felines

HCM (Hypertrophic)

Most common cardiomyopathy in dogs

Dilated (DCM)

Cardiomyopathy associated with Boxers

arrythmogenic right ventricular

Cardiomyopathy secondary to feline hyperthyroidism

Ventricular hypertrophy

Cardiomyopathy secondary to canine parvo virus

DCM

Disorder caused by excessive adrenal cortex production, appearance is often pot bellied, muscle wasting, alopecia

Cushing's disease (Hyperadrenocorticism)

Disorder caused by deficient adrenal cortex function,

Addison's disease (Hypoadrenocorticism)

Emergency- severe insulin deficiency

Ketoacidosis

Common signs of hyperthyroidism

Weight loss, increased appetite, PU/PD, V/D

Signs of hypothyroidism

Decreased metabolic- weight gain poor haircoat, lethargy, "Heat seeking"

Uterine disease of immediate postpartum period

metritis

Occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum often in small bitches with large litters

Eclampsia (Hypocalcemia)

Formula for RER

30 X ideal weight in kg +70

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tubes are used short term to administer medications and nutritional support, patient should swallow, NOT cough

Nasogastric/nasoesophogeal

Placement of this tube requires sedation, placed in the mid cervical esophagus on left side of neck. Measure from midcervical to 7th rib

Esophagastomy tube

Patients tolerate _______ tubes better than _______ tubes because there is less irritation and less likely to become dislodges or induce emesis

Esophagastomy tubes better tolerated than pharyngostomy tubes

Length of this tube is measured to the 13th rib, and used often for admin of charcoal for toxicity, medication, food, etc.

Orogastric tube

Given, the decreased tolerance for sodium load in patients with heart disease, What type of fluids would be ideal in patients with heart disease

Hypotonic solutions (5%Dextrose in water, .45% NaCl, Normosol-M)

0.9% NaCl has _____ effects

Acidifying

Balanced electrolyte solutions containing sodium bicarbonate precursors have _____ effects

Alkalinizing

What route of administration not be used for patients with severe compromise from dehydration, hypotension, or electrolyte imbalance

To avoid adverse cardiac effects, potassium should not be administered IV at a rate faster than ____ mEq/kg/hr

0.5

Cats in shock often present with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Bradycardia

Animals that present with _____ shock often have bounding pulse, bright red mm and fever

septic shock

Drugs that are safe to administer through an endotracheal tube

N-Naloxone A- Atropine V-Vasopressin E-Epinephrine L-Lidocaine

The blood pressure cuff width should be appx \_\_\_\_% of the circumference of the limb being used

40%

Atrial fibrillation is identified by lack of _____ \_\_\_\_\_ and the presence of fibrillatory waves, usually a fast, irregular rythm with supraventricular (normal) QRS

P Waves

Because of the consequences of gastric rupture, ________ intubation should be performed in all patients being examined for abdominal pain

Nasogastric

Epistaxis is a common occurrence after removal or passage of a ______ tube

Nasogastric tube

Copious amounts of a warm ____ \_\_\_\_\_ fluid are best for effective wound lavage (give examples)

Isotonic crystalloid (LRS, Normal saline)

Distal limb bandages are not appropriate for fractures ______ the elbow or stufle because they can not effectively immobilize injuries

Above the elbow or stifle

Non-weight bearing sling applied to pelvic limb to protect the hip joint after injury

Ehmer sling

Non weight bearing slings should not be maintained for longer than ____ weeks to prevent muscle and joint contracture

2-3 weeks

Non-weight bearing sling for forelimb

Valpeau

The _______ , term that describes the attachment structures of the teeth, include gingival connective tissue, alveolar bone, periodontal ligament, and cementum

Periodontium

The ultrasonic scaler tip should never be directed at a ____ degree angle toward the tooth surface as it will cause damage to the enamel

90 degree

Scalers are designed to be used on the ____ \_\_\_\_ while curettes are designed to be used \_\_\_\_\_

Tooth crown, subgingivally

This stage of periodontal disease is characterized by inflammatory changes confined to the gingiva and is easily reversible

Grade 1

This stage of periodontal disease is characterized by 25-50% loss of attachment; root debridement, gingival curettae and periodontal surgery are often required. Severe gingivitis upon probing, red-purple rounded gingival margin, early periodontal pocket formation

Grade 3

This stage of periodontal disease is characterized increased gingival inflammation causes rounded gingival margin, moderate amount of gingivitis

Grade 2

Term for when the upper jaw is longer than the lower jaw (overshot)

Brachygnathism

Term for when the mandible is longer than the maxilla (underbite)

Prognathism

Initiating factor of periodontal disease

Bacterial plaque

Tooth mobility, Grade 1

Slight tooth movement

Tooth mobility, Grade 2

Moderate teeth movement of 1 mm

Tooth mobility, Grade 3

Marked tooth movement of more than 1 mm

When polishing a tooth never stay on one tooth longer than ___ seconds, and when using ultrasonic scaler no longer than ___ seconds

5 seconds 10-15 seconds

Vet Nursing Final Flashcards

(90 cards)