Vitamins & Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Vitamin A (retinol, retinal, & retinoic acid)

Features

A

An antioxidant

Retinal pigments (rhodopsin & iodopsin)

Cellular differentiation (pancreatic & mucus cells)

All-trans retinoic acid to treat acute myelocytic leukemia

Retinal-acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vitamin Def:

  • Nyctalopia (night blindness)
  • Xerosis cutis (dry + scaly skin)
  • Corneal squamous metaplasia
  • Bitot spots (Keratin debris & foamy spots in conjunctiva)
  • Keratomalacia (blindness)
  • Immunosuppression
A

Vitamin A deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vitamin Toxicity:

Nausea
Vomiting
Increased intra corneal pressure (vertigo & blurred vision)

A

Acute vitamin A toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vitamin Toxicity:

Alopecia
Cheilosis
Osteoporosis
Hepatic toxicity & enlargement
Dry skin
Arthralgias
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Teratogenic effects

A

Chronic vitamin A toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Vitamin toxicity:

Yellow/orange skin

A

B-carotene excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vitamin D features

A
  • D3 (Cholecalciferol) absorbed through the skin (stratum Basale) via sun
  • D2 (Ergocalciferol) plants, fungi, & yeast

Both get converted to 25-OH-D3 (storage form) in liver & 1,25-OH2D3 (active form aka calcitriol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vitamin D functions

A
  1. Increase intestinal absorption of Ca2+
  2. Increase bone mineralization (makes Ca2+ binding protein aka osteocalcin on osteoblasts)
  3. Increase bone reabsorption via RANKL activation to raise osteoblast levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vitamin regulation:

High PTH
Low Ca2+
Low PO4^-3

A

Increased 1,25(OH)2D3 aka active calcitriol its feedback inhibits it’s own production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vitamin regulation:

High PTH triggers ________ & _____reabsorption in the kidneys

A

increased Ca2+ & decreased PO4^-3 reabsorption in the distal renal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vitamin Deficiency:

During first year of life
- Craniotabes
- Frontal bossing
- Square head (excess osteoid)
- Rachitic Rosary (overgrown cartilage & osteoid tissue in costosternal junctions)

A

Vitamin D deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vitamin Deficiency:

  • Rickettes (Genu varum) in kids
  • Osteomalacia, Osteoporosis, & hypocalcemia tetany in adults
A

Vitamin D deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vitamins:

  • Lack of UVB (sun exposure)
  • Mineral oil as a laxative
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Advanced liver disease
A

Causes of vitamin D deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vitamins:

Hypercalcemia
Hypercalciuria
Low appetite
Stupor

A

Vitamin D toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vitamin A
&
B-carotene/retinal absorption

A
  1. Vit A & B-Carotene can be turned into one-another & bile helps them be absorbed into the intestine & gets incorporated into chylomicrons to move through lymph
  2. Apolipoprotein E receptors on liver bring them into hepatocytes to be stored in Ito cells & adipose cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vitamin A
&
B-carotene/retinal release

A
  1. Stored Vitamin A & B-carotene bind to retinol-binding proteins (RBP) made in the liver before being released into the blood
  2. Peripheral tissues with RBP-specific receptors binds retinol while the RBP is sent back into the blood
  3. Within the tissues retinol is oxidized into usable form retinoic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vitamin:

Synthesis of vitamin A

A

Retinol is oxidized all-trans-retinol which is isomerized into 11-cis-retinol which is covalently associated with 7-transmembrane protein opsin to make rhodopsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Function of vitamin A:

A

Cell growth & differentiation

Retinoic acid receptors with retinoic acid forms heterodimers with retinoic x receptors

The RAR/RXR heterodimers bind retinoic acid response elements (RAREs) in regulatory genes for growth factors, tumor suppressors, & secreted proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vitamin deficiency:

Squamous metaplasia (loss of mucus secreting epithelium & pancreatic cells)

A

Vitamin A deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All-trans retinoic acid has _________ for RAR it induces differentiation of ________ by binding PML-RARa

A

The highest affinity for RAR & it induces differentiation of promyelocytic leukemia cells by binding PML-RARa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vitamins:

All-trans Retinoic acid + RXR/RAR + PML means

A

Activated transcription causing increased differentiation of malignant promyelocytes into short-lived PMN CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vitamins:

Retinoic acid + RXR/RAR + PML

A

Block transcription & differentiation of acute promyelocytic leukemia NO CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Vitamin:

Retinoic acid + RXR/RAR

A

Activates transcription & differentiation into short-lived PMN’s CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vitamin A:

RXR is activated by _____ which form heterodimers

A

9-cis-RA

RXR/RAR (Acute promyelocytic leukemia)

RXR/PPARs (High fatty acid oxidation, angiogenesis, & lipolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vitamin D synthesis

A
  1. Absorbed in the gut
  2. Vitamin D binds alpha globin (Vit D binding protein) & gets moved to the liver
  3. Vit D is converted to 25-OH-D via 25-Hydroxylases (CYP27AI & other CYPs)
  4. 25-OH-D is converted into 1,25OH2D3 (aka active form) via 1 alpha hydroxylase in the kidney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Chronic renal disease & vitamin D deficiency is caused by

A

Secondary hypertension (low GFR)

Causing hyperphosphatemia & low 1,25(OH)2D3 which reduces more PTH secretion causing secondary hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hyperphosphatemia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperparathyroidism
Osteodystrophy
Low vitamin D (1,25(OH)2D3)

A

Chronic renal disease & vitamin D deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Morphology of vitamin D

A
  • Excess of unmineralized bone matrix
  • Overgrown epiphysial cartilage
  • Distorted & irregular masses
  • Bone deformities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Vitamins:

Tocopherol & Tocotrienol

A

Vitamin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Vitamin Deficiency:

  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Acanthocytosis
  • Ophthalmoplegia
  • Pigmented retinopathy
  • Muscle weakness
  • Demyelination of posterior columns & spinocerebellar tracts
    (Progressive ataxia, poor proprioception, impaired joint position, & vibration sensation)
A

Vitamin E deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Vitamin toxicity:

Enterocolitis (Infants)
Increased need for vit K
Patients taking oral anticoagulants have heavy bleeding

A

Vitamin E toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Used in redox reactions as a cofactor for dehydrogenases (constituent for NAD & NADP) derived from tryptophan

A

Vitamin B3 Niacin deficiencies, Pellagra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Vitamin Deficiency:

Dementia
Diarrhea
Dermatitis
Insomnia
Fatigue
Nervousness
Irritability
Depression

A

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency pellagra

Can be caused by alcoholism or Hartnup disease

33
Q

Nutrition:

Hypoalbuminemia
Hyperkeratosis
Malnutrition
Edema (Anasarca)
Anemia
Fatty liver
Skin lesion

A

Kwashiorkor

34
Q

Genetics:

Tall + long extremities
Anterior meningocele
Arachnodactyly
Pectus carinatum
Hypermobile joints
Aortic root aneurysm/dissection
Mitral valve prolapse
Ectopia lens (up/out lens dislocation)

A

Marfan’s syndrome

Fibrillin 1 defect (FB1N) on x15 & TGFB receptor 2 defect

35
Q

Pathophysiology of Marfan’s disease

A
  1. Missense mutations of FB1N & TGFB2 genes alter Ca2+ binding domains in the epidermal growth factor-like domains of proteins
  2. This causes tropo-elastin to be deposited on fibrillin to form elastin fibers (more in the aorta, ligaments, & lungs)
  3. The mutations lead to more TGFB signaling increasing risk of aneurysms & deleterious effects on vascular smooth muscle development & over activation of metalloproteases which decreased ECM
36
Q

Describe the symptoms of Marfan’s syndrome

A

Tall + long extremities
Anterior meningocele
Arachnodactyly
Pectus carinatum
Hypermobile joints
Aortic root aneurysm/dissection
Mitral valve prolapse
Ectopia lens (up/out lens dislocation)

37
Q

Describe the Ghent diagnostic criteria for Marfan’s syndrome

A

2 cardinal signs (Aortic root dilation & ectopia lens
OR
1 cardinal sign with a FB1N missense mutation

38
Q

Genetics:

Onset 25-45yrs
Chorea (sudden jerks)
Athetosis (slow writing fingers)
Aggression
Depression
Dementia

A

Huntington’s disease

AUTO DOM, CAG trinucleotide repeat in X4p16.3 causing atrophy of the caudate nucleus & putamen

39
Q

Genetics:

High Dopamine
Low Ach
Low GABA

A

Huntington’s disease

40
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Huntington’s disease

A

CAG trinucleotide repeats during spermatogenesis leads to anticipation (early onset in the next generation). The caudate and putamen portions of the brain have shrunk, causing the ventricles to expand. Because the death of striatal neurons, which was caused by the binding of a chemical called NMDA-R and the overstimulation of another chemical called glutamate excitotoxin

41
Q

Genetics:

one gene copy is silenced by methylation, and only the other copy is expressed diseases are dependent on parent-of-origin effects

A

Genetic imprinting for conditions like Prader-Willis syndrome & Angelman syndrome

42
Q

Genetics:

Paternal imprinting

A

paternal gene is silenced

43
Q

Genetics:

Maternal imprinting

A

Maternal gene is silenced

44
Q

Genetics:

Hyperphagia
Obesity
Hypogonadism
Hypotonia
Adult-onset diabetes mellitus

A

Prader Willis syndrome X15

Due to maternal imprinting (maternal gene is silenced & paternal gene is deleted)

45
Q

Genetics:

Prader-Willis & Angelman’s syndrome can be caused by _______ & ________

A
  1. Maternal imprinting
  2. Uniparental disomy (person inherits two copies of a chromosome from only one parent (both silenced), instead of one copy from each parent)
46
Q

Genetics:

Seizures
Ataxia
Intellectual disability
Laughter
Poor language development & motor milestones

A

Angelman’s syndrome

Due to paternal imprinting (paternal silenced, maternal deleted)

47
Q

Genetics:

Describe the symptoms of Prader Willis syndrome

A

Hyperphagia
Obesity
Hypogonadism
Hypotonia
Adult-onset diabetes mellitus

48
Q

Genetics:

Describe the symptoms of Angelman’s syndrome

A

Seizures
Ataxia
Intellectual disability
Laughter
Poor language development & motor milestones

49
Q

Genetics:

Intellectual disability
Flat facies
Single palmar crease
5th finger gap
Hirschsprung’s disease
Atrioventricular canal
Brushfield spots (white spots on iris)
Early (40yrs) onset Alzheimer’s
High risk Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

Downs syndrome (X21)

95% cases due to meiotic nondisjunction during meiosis I (separation during anaphase I or separating pairs during Anaphase II)

4% cases due to unbalanced Robertsonian translocation between X14 & X21

1% cases due to post fertilization mitotic error

50
Q

Genetics:

What is the test used for Down’s syndrome?

A

Ultrasound during the first trimester to evaluate nuchal translucency & hypoplastic nasal bone

AND

Labs for:
High B-hCG + Inhibin A
Low Alpha fetoprotein + PAPP-A

51
Q

Genetics:

Labs for:
High B-hCG + Inhibin A
Low Alpha fetoprotein + PAPP-A

Describe the syndrome & its 5A’s

A

Down’s Syndrome (X21)
&
1. Advanced maternal age (big risk)
2. Atresia (duodenal)
3. Atrioventricular septal defect
4. Early onset Alzheimer’s (40yrs)
5. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

52
Q

Genetics:

  • Prominent occiput
  • Rocker-bottom feet
  • Intellectual disability
  • Clenched fists with overlapping fingers
  • Low-set ears
  • Omphalocele
  • Myelomeningocele
  • Ventricular septal defect or patent ductus arteriosus
A

Edward’s syndrome (X18)

A non-disjunction mutation causing death before the age of 1

53
Q

Genetics:

Labs:
Low B-hCG
Low Alpha-fetoprotein
Low PAPP-A
Nondisjunction mutation

What is the condition & its symptoms?

A

Edward’s syndrome (X18)
&
Symptoms:
- Prominent occiput
- Rocker-bottom feet
- Intellectual disability
- Clenched fists with overlapping fingers
- Low-set ears
- Omphalocele
- Myelomeningocele
- Ventricular septal defect or patent ductus arteriosus

54
Q

Genetics:

  • Severe intellectual disability
  • Rocker-bottom feet
  • Microencephaly
  • Polydactyly/Syndactyly
  • Cleft lip/palate
  • Cutis aphasia
  • Holoprosencephaly
  • Microphthalmia (eye)
  • Ventricular septal defect
  • Poly cystic kidney disease
A

Patau’s syndrome (X13)

Midline defects (fusion of perichondral mesoderm) cause major physical symptoms

55
Q

Genetics:

Labs:
Low B-hCG
Low PAPP-A
Low Alpha-fetoprotein
Midline defects

What’s the condition & some of its symptoms?

A

Patau’s syndrome (X13)
&
- Severe intellectual disability
- Rocker-bottom feet
- Microencephaly
- Polydactyly/Syndactyly
- Cleft lip/palate
- Cutis aphasia
- Holoprosencephaly
- Microphthalmia (eye)
- Ventricular septal defect
- Poly cystic kidney disease

56
Q

Genetics:

Testicular atrophy
Tall eunuchoid body
Gynecomastia
Female body hair distribution
Barr body
Hypogonadism
Higher breast cancer risk
Sterility
Small penis
Higher type 2 diabetes, SLE, & MVP risk

A

Klinefelter syndrome (47XXY)

Nondisjunction during meiosis

57
Q

Genetics:

Describe the Lyon hypothesis in relation to Klinefelter syndrome (47XXY)

A

In a normal person, one copy of each chromosome is active (working) and the other copy is inactive. This inactive copy is called a “barr body”. However, in some situations, not all of the genes on the inactive chromosome are turned off. This can lead to hypogonadism, which means that the reproductive glands (ovaries or testes) don’t produce enough hormones. This can happen because the androgen receptors, which normally respond to testosterone, are not working properly due to having longer than usual stretches of certain DNA building blocks called “CAG repeats”.

58
Q

Genetics:

Labs:
High Estrogen
High FSH
High LH
Low Testosterone
Low Inhibin E
Nondisjunction during meiosis

What’s the condition & some of it’s symptoms

A

Klinefelter syndrome 47XXY

&

Testicular atrophy
Tall eunuchoid body
Gynecomastia
Female body hair distribution
Barr body
Hypogonadism
Higher breast cancer risk
Sterility
Small penis
Higher type 2 diabetes, SLE, & MVP risk

59
Q

Genetics:

  • Short (SHOX gene)
  • Hypogonadism
  • Only pubic hair
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Ovarian dysgenesis (streak ovary)
  • Shield chest (wide based nipples)
  • Bicuspid aortic valve
  • Coarctation of aorta
  • Webbed neck (lymphatic defect)
  • Cystic hygroma (swollen feet/hands)
  • Horseshoe kidney
  • Primary amenorrhea
  • Shortened 4th metacarpal
  • High arched palate
A

Turner syndrome (45X0)

Nondisjunction during mitosis or meiosis that leads to complete or partial monosomy of the X chromosome

60
Q

Genetics:

Labs:
Low Estrogen
High LH
High FSH

What’s the condition & some of it’s key symptoms

A

Turner syndrome (45X0)
&
- Shield chest (widely based nipples)
- Bicuspid aortic valve
- Coarctation of aorta (Higher femoral pulse than radial)
- Cystic hygroma (swollen feet/hands)
- Hypogonadism
- No axillary hair (only pubic)

61
Q

Genetics:

Turners syndrome can be inherited by _______ & _____

A
  1. Mitotic errors (post zygote formation leads to some lost sex chromosome causing a mosaic karyotype 45X/46XX) & higher risk of gonadoblastoma
  2. Meiotic errors (usually in paternal gametes missing X or Y)
62
Q

Genetics:

  • Developmental delay
  • Cherry red spot on macula
  • Hyperacusis
  • Lysosomes with onion skin
A

Tay Sachs disease

Deficient Hexosaminidase A leads to a build up of GM2 Gangliosides

common in Ashkenazic jews

63
Q

Genetics:

Infantile form:
- Fatal neurodegenerative disease
- Macroencephaly
- Lost motor skills
- Macular cherry red spot

A

Tay Sachs disease

Deficient Hexosaminidase A leads to a build up of GM2 Gangliosides

64
Q

Genetics:

Adult form:
- Clumsy in childhood
- Progressive motor weakness (teens)
- Spinocerebellar/LMN symptom & Dysarthria (adults)
- Psychosis
- Low intellegence

A

Tay Sachs disease

Deficient Hexosaminidase A leads to a build up of GM2 Gangliosides

65
Q

Genetics:

  • Extensive neurodegeneration in
    -Cherry red spot on macula
  • Spasticity
  • Failure to thrive
  • MASSIVE hepatosplenomegaly with marked visceral accumulation of sphingomyelin
A

Type A Nieman Pick (X11)

AUTO REC, Deficiency of Sphingomyelinase causing build-up of Sphingomyelin leading to death within the first 3yrs of life

66
Q

Genetics:

-Cherry red spot on macula
- Progressive pulmonary disease with foam cells in the alveoli, lymph vessels, & pulmonary arteries
- Dyspnea
- Hypoxemia
- Reticular infiltrative pattern on Xray

A

Type B Nieman Pick disease X11

They survive into adulthood

Deficient sphingomyelinase causes a build-up of sphingomyelin

67
Q

Genetics:

  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Pancytopenia
  • Osteoporosis
  • Avascular necrosis (femur)
  • Bone crisis
  • Lipid-laden macrophages (GC)
A

Gaucher’s Disease X1

AUTO REC, deficiency of Glucocerebrosidase (B-glucosidase leading to a build-up of glucocerebroside & Gaucher cells (aka lipid-laden macrophages)

68
Q

Genetics: Gaucher’s

  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Bone pain
  • Bleeding
  • Gaucher cells
A

Type 1 Gaucher’s (common) a chronic Non-neuropathic accumulation of glucocerebrosides stored in macrophages (Gaucher cells) within tissues EXCEPT the brain

69
Q

Genetics: Gaucher’s

-Hepatosplenomegaly
- Bone pain
- Bleeding
- Supranuclear gaze palsy
- Strabismus

A

Type 2 an acute neuropathic infantile syndrome with accumulation of glucocerebrosides in macrophages in all tissues INCLUDING the brain aka it HAS neurological symptoms

70
Q

Genetics:

  • Severe fasting hypoglycemia
  • High blood lactate
  • High triglycerides (Hyperlipidemia)
  • High uric acid (Gout)
  • Renomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Xanthomas
  • Stunted growth
  • Failure to thrive
  • Platelet dysfunction (prolonged bleeding time)
A

Von Gierke disease (type 1)

AUTO REC, deficiency of G6P (Glucose-6-phosphatase)

Complications include hepatic adenomas

71
Q

Genetics:

Describe the symptoms of Von Gierke’s disease

A

deficiency of G6P (Glucose-6-phosphatase) causes:

  • Severe fasting hypoglycemia
  • High blood lactate
  • High triglycerides (Hyperlipidemia)
  • High uric acid (Gout)
  • Renomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Xanthomas
  • Stunted growth
  • Failure to thrive
  • Platelet dysfunction (prolonged bleeding time)
72
Q

Genetics:

  • Painful muscle cramps
  • Myoglobinuria (post exercise)
  • Arrythmia
  • High CK
  • Unaffected lactate
A

McArdle disease

Deficient muscle phosphorylase causes glycogen accumulation in skeletal muscle which causes severe cramping in short bursts of exercise but is relieved by prolonged exercise

73
Q

Genetics:

  • Cardiomyopathy
  • MASSIVE Cardiomegaly
  • Hypotonia
  • Exercise intolerance
  • Early death
  • Mild hepatomegaly with ballooning lysosomes
A

Pompe disease, deficient acid maltase (aka alpha 1,4, glucosidase with alpha 1,6 glucosidase activity)

Causing glycogen stores in the myocardium & MASSIVE CARDIOMEGALY

74
Q

Describe the features of Pompe disease

A

deficient acid maltase (aka alpha 1,4, glucosidase with alpha 1,6 glucosidase activity)

causing:
- Cardiomyopathy
- MASSIVE Cardiomegaly
- Hypotonia
- Exercise intolerance
- Early death
- Mild hepatomegaly with ballooning lysosomes

75
Q

Describe the features of McArdles disease

A

Deficient muscle phosphorylase causes:

  • Painful muscle cramps
  • Myoglobinuria (post exercise)
  • Arrythmia
  • High CK
  • Unaffected lactate
76
Q

Genetics:

  • CGG repeats 50-200
  • Tremor
  • Ataxia
  • Primary ovarian insufficiency
  • Developmental/behavioral traits
A

Fragile X syndrome premutation

X-DOM mutated FMR1 gene causing hypermethylated cysteine residues reducing gene expression

77
Q

Genetics:

  • CGG repeats 200+
  • Post pubertal macrochidism
  • Long face
  • Large jaw
  • Large & elevated ears
  • Autism
  • Mitral valve prolapse
  • Hypermobile joints
  • Self mutilation
  • Intellectual disability
A

Fragile X syndrome Full mutation

X-DOM mutated FMR1 gene causing hypermethylated cysteine residues because of increased translation of bound mRNAs at synaptic junctions leading to reduced gene expression

78
Q

Fragile X syndrome is susceptible to _________

Affected females make up _______ & are ________
&
Affected males make up __________& are ______

A

anticipation, meaning premutation can develop to a full mutation i.e it gets worse with every generation

Affected females make up 30-50% inheritance & are mentally retarded

Affected males make up ~20% & unaffected but can pass the gene along to the next generation

79
Q
A