Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1C5 CDCs Code 6 > VOL 2 UREs > Flashcards

VOL 2 UREs Flashcards

1
Q

the TACS design is based on the principle of

A

Centralized Control and Decentralized Execution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which center or system consists of airborne and ground element for the command and control of air and space power?

A

TACS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

in TACS organization, what supports full and open interaction within the multinational force MNF structure?

A

coordination centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

who delegates battle management BM responsibilities to the TACs elements?

A

JFACC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which element of the TACS plans, directs, controls and coordinates all air operations within its area of responsibilities AOR?

A

AOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which division within the AOC is responsible for monitoring and executing the current ATO?

A

Combat Ops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which combat liaison within the AOC supports integration of air, space, and cyberspace operations with ground maneuver?

A

Battlefield coordination detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which support team element within the AOC provides timely notification of meteorological and oceanographic impacts affecting launch and recovery bases?

A

weather specialty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what position within the AOC provides is responsible to the chief , combat ops division for directing and supervising offensive combat ops?

A

Senior Offensive Duty Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

within the AOOC who is responsible for displaying and maintaining air situational data and updating airbase, flight facility, and theater air control status?

A

Defensive Duty Technician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

within the AOC who facilitates the resolution of dual track designation and identification conflicts that are a result of system interoperability problems or operator error?

A

Track Data Coordinator TDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which theater air control system TACS radar element is the primary command, control, and surveillance facility?

A

CRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how many functional areas is the CRC operations divided?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what function of the CRC is responsible for detecting, tracking, and identifying airborne tracks?

A

Surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

within the CRC, who supervises the weapons section and allocates fighter resources?

A

Senior Director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

within the CRC, who makes sure the recorder/reproducer and the line printers are operated according to unit directives and technical order?

A

AST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

at the CRC, who is responsible to the AST for establishing data links and monitoring data link effectiveness?

A

ICT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which technicians position is located within the TPS-75 radar van and is responsible for maximizing radar presentations?

A

EPT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The main sensor for the modular control equipment MCE is the

A

AN/TPS-75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

at the Tps 75 radar shelter, which of these performs target detection and tracking, noise and clutter filtering, radar status monitoring, and message processing?

A

Modular control equipment interface group MIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the internal radio equipment provide for C2 operations to how many internal UHF radios

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the TACS unit that plans, coordinates, and directs tactical air support of ground forces is the

A

ASOC air support ops center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which section of the ASOC is responsible for matching allocated air component assets to prioritized land component requirements?

A

operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which ASOC duty position may be staffed by a field duty officer FDO?

A

ATO Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is an element of TACS that advises ground commanders on the capabilities of air operations

A

TAC-P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what ASOC duty position maintains the status of the web air request processor WARP

A

ATO Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

SOF special ops forces, normally pursue SOF-unique objectives that prepare or shape whose objectives?

A

JFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

who does the joint force special ops component commander (JFACC) provide to coordinate, deconflict, and sync special operations with other air operations?

A

Special operations liaison element SOLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

who provides key capabilities across the spectrum of irregular warfare?

A

Special operations forces SOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what gives AWACS the ability to detect targets flying lower than the E-3 without interference from radar returns from the ground?

A

Pulse Doppler radar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

in AWACS, which radar combo cannot be used?

A

Maritime and beyond the horizon radars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the have quick system makes available to AWACS an improved

A

air to air and air to ground, jam-resistant UHF voice comm capability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The JSTARS radar antenna is

A

electronically scanned in azimuth and mechanically positioned in elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is used by the JSTARS to broadcast data to army ground station modules

A

surveillance and control data link SCDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what type of command is NORAD North American aerospace defense?

A

Bi-national

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

to accomplish its mission effectively, into how many regions is the NORAD divided?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

to NORAD and USNORTHCOM command centers were combined due to the commands

A

similar missions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what division with the Korean Air Operation Center KAOC plans the day to day expenditure of air resources based upon the objectives set forth by the commander, air component commander CCAC?

A

Combat Plans Division CPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what division with the KAOC supervises the detailed execution of air ops orders and ATOs?

A

Combat Ops Divison COD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what unit within the KTACS Korean theater air control system, is responsible for execution surveillance, identification, and weapons control?

A

Master Control and Reporting Center MCRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What MCRC position develops and briefs the weapons specific section of the daily crew brief?

A

SD

42
Q

What MCRC position updates the recognizable air picture by dropping duplicate, local tracks, and associating local and data link tracks?

A

DST

43
Q

which Japan Air defense System JADS position maintains the logbook?

A

MCCT

44
Q

which JADS position ensures adherence to ROE

A

SD

45
Q

what type of computer system is the NATO air command and control system ACCS

A

Distributed

46
Q

which JADS position is responsible for the supervision of the tactical control ops team TCOT personnel?

A

MCC

47
Q

on what principle is NATO air command and control system ACCS built around?

A

Centralized control and decentralized execution

48
Q

what system is used to control and coordinate all air operations within an amphibious objective area?

A

Naval tactical air control system NTACS

49
Q

which option is the objective of joint communication systems?

A

assist in the command and control of military operations

50
Q

which comms system includes the introduction of information into the computer system?

A

acquisition

51
Q

this function of the comm system interfaces with the user

A

presentation

52
Q

a joint force that is linked and synchronized in time and purpose is

A

networked

53
Q

which comms system principle allows for mutual use of info services and capabilities?

A

shared

54
Q

what is the primary mission of the GCCS?

A

support the c2 function of the president and the secretary of defense

55
Q

what DOD computerized system of record for strategic command and control functions?

A

GCCS

56
Q

how is connectivity between GCCS sites provided

A

Defense Information System Network DISN

57
Q

the force level of TBMCS provides the combined force air component commander CFACC with the automated tools necessary to effectively and efficiently

A

plan, monitor, and execute the air campaign

58
Q

the completed air battle plan ABP that is disseminate to the forces is the

A

ATO

59
Q

which TBMCS app allows for update and review of air and missile mission execution data on any exported air battle plan

A

execution status and monitoring (ESTAT)

60
Q

how many products are available via force status and monitoring? FSTAT

A

6

61
Q

which TBMCS app allows for the input of joint tactical air strike request?

A

web air request processor

62
Q

who does strategic worldwide integration capability SWIC provide planning and execution capabilities for?

A

USSTATCOM/AFCYBER

63
Q

What system provides globally capable C2 tools tailored to United States Strategic Command USSTARTCOM processes?

A

strategic worldwide integration capability (SWIC)

64
Q

what picture does the ADSI create?

A

RAP Recognized air picture

65
Q

which option is not one of the three separate computers that are integrated in the ADSI?

A

data link generator

66
Q

what are the three separate computers that are integratied in the ADSI?

A

Tactical situation display, Master Database, and Router/Forwarder

67
Q

How many tactical situation display workstations can be connected to each ADSI

A

50

68
Q

which unit uses the BCS-K to control all US air assets over Korea?

A

KAOC

69
Q

How many JREAP are used to transmit and receive link 16 messages?

A

3

70
Q

for platforms connecting by long-haul comm networks the joint range extension JRE provides?

A

inter-zone, intra-zone, reach back, and reach forward link 16 abilities

71
Q

which unit uses the Ground mobile Gateway GMGto process info from multiple tactical data links?

A

ASOC

72
Q

who is responsible for coordinating air support and providing airspace de-confliction for tasked aircraft using the ground mobile gate way GMG system?

A

FDT fighter duty techs

73
Q

what type of operations begins to take priority when friendly forces initiate hostilities or when the enemys air attack is nullified?

A

OCA

74
Q

which type of mission is the preferred method of countering air and missile threats?

A

OCA

75
Q

what type of mission comprises both active and passive air and missile defense measures?

A

DCA

76
Q

which option is not a primary weapon for DCA ops

A

Bomber AC (fighter, Air defense artillery, and Surface-to-air missiles are)

77
Q

which aircraft have proven to be the key to successful defensive and offensive air operations in numerous conflicts?

A

Airborn early warning

78
Q

who collects real-time intel info on systems posing threats to the personnel recovery mission?

A

personnel recovery coordination cell

79
Q

which aircraft provides navigation assistance, route sanitization, and armed escort for the recovery vehicle during personnel recovery operations?

A

rescue escort aircraft

80
Q

who is responsible for initiating rescue efforts in the objective area until rescue forces arrive?

A

on scene commander

81
Q

what type of mission is a form of Ariel maneuver that destroys, disrupts, diverts, or delays the enemys surface military potential before it can be used effectively against friendly forces?

A

AI Air Interdiction

82
Q

which type of target is a less efficient use of air power during air interdiction?

A

artillery battery

83
Q

which aircraft were modified or have been specially designed to increase their effectiveness against enemy air defense and are thought of as suppression of enemy air defense aircraft?

A

F-15 and F-16

84
Q

which mission is conducted against enemy forces in close proximity to friendly forces?

A

CAS

85
Q

Once aircraft are assigned to CAS, who determines which target they are to attack?

A

ground commanders

86
Q

what type of missions are responsible for providing national and theater command authorities with timely, reliable, high-quality information about an enemy or potential enemy?

A

RECCE Reconnaissance

87
Q

what is the weapons load of the F/A-22 for its primary air to air role?

A

6 AIM-120s and 2 AIM-9s

88
Q

which weapons system cannot be carried by the F-15 eagle?

A

AIM-54

89
Q

Which aircraft have variable-geometry wings?

A

B-1B Lancer

90
Q

the unfueled range of a B-52 Stratofortress is in excess of how many miles?

A

8.,800

91
Q

which aircraft permits surveillance and can fly a mission profile approximately eight hours without refueling?

A

E-3 Sentry

92
Q

which aircraft is used for on-scene intelligence collection, analysis, and dissemination?

A

RC-135 River Joint

93
Q

the RQ-4a Global Hawk is capable of how many hours of flight endurance?

A

28 plus

94
Q

how many aircraft make up a fully operational predator system?

A

4

95
Q

what is the minimum runway length requirement for a C-17

A

3,500 feet

96
Q

which option is not a mission of the C-130?

A

Aerial Bombing (it does Antarctic ice resupply, weather recon, and airlift support)

97
Q

what fuel delivery methods are possible with a KC-10A

A

boom or hose and drogue on the same mission

98
Q

what USAF aircraft employs EA capabilities against enemy early warning and acquisition radars?

A

EC-130H Compass Cell

99
Q

what is the principle mission of the KC-135

A

Aerial Refueling

100
Q

what is the US Navys newest electronic warfare aircraft?

A

EA-18G Growler

101
Q

what is the primary mission of the HH-60G pave hawk?

A

personnel recovery

1C5 CDCs Code 6 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions