Vol 3 UREs Continued Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

who normally primarily submits the preplanned request in a multi service force environment to the combat plans division

A

army

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2
Q

which mission set of the ATO contains the aircraft call sign and the standard conventional load?

A

mission aircraft

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3
Q

who designates the airspace control authority?

A

JFC

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4
Q

which document provides the details of the approved request for fire support coordination measures?

A

airspace control order ACO

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5
Q

who provides the capabilities required to meet the area air defense plan? AADP

A

component commanders

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6
Q

what combines active defense, passive defense, and C2 systems to defend against threats?

A

Area Air Defense Plan AADP

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7
Q

which document outlines duties functions and parameters for tactical link operations?

A

OPTASKLINK

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8
Q

who submits daily intelligence summaries (disum) to the national level?

A

combatant commands

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9
Q

which document tends to become historical and statistical over the passage of time?

A

DISUM daily intel summary

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10
Q

who is the final authority for theater rules of engagement (ROE)?

A

joint forces commander

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11
Q

which type of tactic is performed during peacetime ROE when intercept is run on an aircraft entering US airspace

A

Stern Attack

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12
Q

what supplements numerous procedures and airspace usages contained in other portions of the ATO

A

SPINS

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13
Q

SPINS are published

A

baseline, weekly, and daily

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14
Q

which umbrella term covers technologies that produce concentrated electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles?

A

Direct energy (DE)

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15
Q

the usage of electronic or mechanical devices that reduces the effectiveness of enemy offensive and defensive electronic systems are known as an electronic?

A

attack

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16
Q

what responds to searches that consist of the interception, identification, and location sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for the purpose of threat recognition?

A

electronic support ES

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17
Q

in control of the electromagnetic spectrum EMS, denial is accomplished using

A

degradation, disruption, and deception….. not DETECTION

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18
Q

which characteristic does a jamming transmitter not use to jam a radar?

A

Reflecting or absorbing the radar signal

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19
Q

which is an advantage of a sweep jammer

A

can sequentially jam several radars operating at different frequencies

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20
Q

which is an advantage of a barrage jammer?

A

covers a wide band of frequencies simultaneously

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21
Q

which characteristic does not affect chaffs screening ability

A

range

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22
Q

small aircrafts containing propulsion system that can be programmed to maneuver and change altitude are known as

A

decoys

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23
Q

which type of device is designed to home in on a radar signal

A

missiles

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24
Q

which devices are used as a countermeasure for infrared IR receivers aboard interceptor aircraft or against IR seeking missiles?

A

Flares

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25
the ability of a radar set to be tuned rapidly from one frequency to another frequency is s what we call
frequency agility
26
frequency agility is most successful against a
manually tuned spot jammer
27
what is the first thing you do if you realize that you are being jammed
alert other crew members
28
when would you not mention anything about an electronic attack? EA
over no secure radios or telephones
29
which operator action uses the intersection of two or more radar electronic attack EA strobes to determine the position of a jammer?
triangulation
30
why is important to locate the position of a jammer?
so you can direct interceptor aircraft to it to neutralize the jammer
31
the type of communications jamming you probably will encounter more frequently than others are
spark
32
which type of comms jamming cause a sound somewhat like an aircraft engine?
Sweep-through
33
which type of comms jamming may be mistaken for a receiver or atmospheric interference
noise
34
which option is not an effect jamming measure
recorded music or foreign language broadcast
35
when experiencing comms jamming, what must you not do?
consider all interference as unintentional unless you can positively identify it to be jamming
36
when your comms are being jammed, what should you remember to do when you go to an alternate frequency
change your call sign
37
when can you use enemy freqs
as a last resort with the concurrence of your intel officer
38
what must you not do when using "radio discipline" as a countermeasure?
speak quickly so as to pass as much info as possible
39
what is the preferred way of submitting an EMI report
via electronic message
40
what is a form of intentional interference that does not affect radar circuits, but concerns the transmission or retransmission of actual or simulated navigational signals to confuse navigation
meaconing
41
within how many hours must you report emi incidents?
24
42
which report is not a type of EMI report
cancellation
43
what are the 3 types of emi reports
initial, closing, and supplemental
44
which EMI report does the engineering installation squadron or the major command MAJCOM designated point of contact submit
closing
45
a data link architecture is defined as
the overall design of the comms system forming the multi-tactical network (MTN)
46
which timing architecture is normally used if your unit is operating in the link 11 environment?
polling
47
which data link transmission methods are used across great distances?
HF and SATCOM
48
which comms medium is used by link 11 participants for beyond the horizon nets?
HF
49
what is the TDL for airborne plaforms that uses ultrahigh freqs UHF radio for line of sight LOS nets
link 11
50
what TDL is capable of operating in both full duplex mode and is primarily used between ground based units?
link 11B
51
which voice communications net is used by the interface control officer (ICO) to manage the data link architecture?
Data link coordination net (DCN)
52
which voice comm net provides signal intel (SIGINT) information between interfacing units?
voice product net VPN
53
which TACS unit is capable of data link operations but has no inherent surveillance radar capabilities?
AOC
54
what piece of equipment is used at the AOC to monitor and interface on a near real time basis with tactical units
ADSI
55
the Modular Control Equipment MCE data links consist of link 11
link 11b, link 16, army tactical data link-1 (ATDL-1), and link-1
56
which TDL are typically used by the Army to receive data link inputs?
Link 11B and Link 16
57
which document contains specific voice coordination freqs used for troubleshooting and coordinating data-link operations?
OPORD annex K
58
which message type outlines duties, functions, and parameters for link operations?
OPTASKLINK
59
when designing your data link architecture, what must you consider to allow overlapping coverage and to also prevent multiple instances of track duplication?
data link filter plan
60
which is not a sub-network of the joint data network (JDN)?
domestic events network
61
what are sub networks of the Joint data network (JDN)?
Sensor network, intelligence network, and multi tactical data link network.
62
what is the primary feed to support generation of the common tactical picture (CTP)
Joint Data Network (JDN)
63
which data link tool is used to request certain data that was purged or dropped locally from one or more C2 interface units?
Data update request