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Flashcards in Vol 1 UREs Deck (88)
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1

which document provides the information necessary to plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective 1c5x1 career field and training program?

Career field education and training plan CFETP

2

actual hands on task performance training best describes which type of training?

qualification

3

the specialty training standard STS is found in which part of the career field education and training plan CFETP?

II

4

which publication establishes the occupational structure of the Air Force enlisted force

Air force enlisted classification directory AFECD

5

which skill level must you attain to be eligible for promotion to staff sergeant?

5

6

which skill level is required for promotion beyond the rank of staff sergeant?

7

7

a 3 skill level C2BMO operator carries the title of?

an apprentice

8

which classification identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified within the MILPDS?

Special experience identifier SEI

9

which defense readiness condition DEFCON indicates the normal state of readiness?

5

10

which DEFCON requires an increase in force readiness above that required for normal readiness?

3

11

which DEFCON indicates all forces are ready for a wartime situation?

1

12

a DEFCON indicates

the state of readiness that must be achieved in various military situations

13

when an attack by hostile aircraft is considered probable, imminent, or taking place upon the continental US or Canada, which declaration is declared?

Air Defense Emergency

14

when an attack by hostile aircraft or missiles is probable which air defense warning condition is declared?

yellow

15

which organization is the principle agent of the DOD for the air defense of the united states?

North American Aerospace Defense Command NORAD

16

who is the authority for emergency security control of air traffic plan (ESCAT) in the 48 contiguous states?

Commander, NORAD

17

How many priorities does the emergency security control of air traffic (ESCAT) air traffic priority list (EATPL) contain?

8

18

which of the cardinal directions represents a bearing of 120 degrees?

southeast

19

an object at bearing of 060 degrees and a range of 135 miles would be reported as

zero six zero, one hundred thirty five

20

an object at a bearing of 005 degrees and a range of 50 miles would be reported as

zero zero five, fifty

21

when you read a latitude and longitude, you should always read from

the lower to the higher numbers

22

what is the width of a MGRS zone?

6 degrees

23

the MGRS is read from the

left to right, and then up

24

which character designates the keypad number when using Global Area Reference System?

7

25

which reference system is theater specific?

Common Geographic Reference System (CGRS)

26

what size is a common geographic reference system CGRS Keypad?

10 x 10

27

a radar cannot determine which aspect of a target?

type

28

which radar component allows a single antenna to serve for transmitting and receiving?

duplexer

29

the radars antennas function during transmission is to

concentrate the radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space

30

the radars antennas function during reception is to

collect the energy contained in the echo signal and deliver it to the receiver

31

the number of times the radar transmits per second is known as the

pulse rep freq PRF

32

airborne radars are able to distinguish targets from ground returns

because stationary returns do not produce a Doppler shift

33

concerning the type of effect weather has on radar, the combo of scattering and absorption type is known as

attenuation

34

How is radar performance normally affected during superrefraction?

radar energy is bent downward, increasing the range

35

which form of refraction may result in radar holes or blind spots?

trapping

36

which series of IFF/SIFF transponders do we use today?

MARK XII

37

the primary function of iff/siff is

Identification

38

mode 3 of the military IFF system is identical to which IFF mode of the civil system

Mode A

39

the IFF/SIF mode that provides automatic reporting of aircraft altitude is

C

40

which iff/siff code is generated by an altimeter?

Mode C

41

which IFF/SIF code includes an enhanced feature that allows for auto reporting of platform location?

Mode S

42

which IFF/SIF mode enables operators to distinguish between friendly and potentially hostile aircraft?

4

43

what does IFF/SIF mode 3/A code "7500" mean?

Hijackers on board or suffering from unlawful interference

44

what does IFF/SIF mode 3/A code 7600 mean?

radio communication failure

45

what allows a pilot to transmit a response that will result in a special display at your console?

Identification of position I/P

46

why might you receive an IFF/SIFF return from a target and not a radar return

the IFF/SIF return is stronger than the radar return

47

when used in conjunction with radar IFF/SIFF can help improve

tacking continuity

48

which few range does the air surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) operate in?

1,215 to 1,400 MHz

49

how many 2 degree elevation beams does the ADR-4 use

10

50

what radar system is used in mobile applications?

TPS-75

51

how many vertically stacked, slotted waveguide radiators make up the TPS-75 radar antenna?

48

52

the FPS-117 radar can freq hop on up to how many preset freqs?

18

53

the FPS-124 radar processes and forwards up to how many tracks per scan?

20

54

which type telephone is direct line that does not have dialing capabilities?

hot line

55

which piece of equipment is used to secure comms on secure terminal equipment

fortezza card

56

which telephone feature is the highest precedence in the telephone priority system?

Flash

57

the only method of communicating over long distances from one point of the earth to another without a relay, satellite, or connecting cable is by using the

High freq band HF

58

which freqs are normally only useful for distances approx. within line of sight LOS

VHF and above

59

what determines the hoping pattern rate in a have quick system?

WOD word of day

60

what surface weather event may cause high freq HF black outs

X-Rays flares

61

approx, how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone when transmitting?

half an inch

62

what should be used to keep voice transmissions as brief and clear as possible?

prowords

63

what are the two methods of calling used in radio communications?

full and abbreviated

64

in which method of calling are the call signs of the calling and called stations only given once?

full

65

under MINIMIZE, what message traffic is considered to be essential?

that which deals directly with the success of a mission or safety of life

66

who may cancel of modify MINIMIZE procedures?

the imposing authority or an appropriate higher authority

67

The main guideline for including a report in the operational report OPER-3 system is it must

be essential to command and control of aerospace forces

68

which OPER-3 report is the initial voice notification is due within 5 minutes after learning of the even

pinnacle nucflash

69

which report keeps the joint staff, services, and other national leadership apprised of existing political, military, and operational situations?

Commanders Situation report SITREP

70

Commanders SITREP must be submitted no later than

0800z

71

what regulation authorizes DOD to provide direct support to other federal agencies on a reimbursable basis?

the economy act

72

what regulation provides a means for the federal gov to supplement state resources in major disasters and emergencies when state resources are inadequate?

the Stafford act

73

which system uses mission essential task MET and mission essential task list METL the standard measurement criteria?

Defense Readiness Reporting System

74

which method allows units the ability to report unit type code UTC level readiness

air expeditionary force reporting tool

75

the chief of staff, United States Air force CSAF and subordinate commanders use status of resources and training system SORTS data in assessing their

effectiveness in meeting their responsibilities

76

the units designed operational capability DOC statement is used to

summarize unit tasking requirements

77

which C-Level indicates that a unit posses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized?

c-1

78

Which C-level indicates a unit requires additional resources to undertake its wartime mission

C-4

79

which measured resource area MRA normally drives a units overall category level

the lowest of the four MRAs

80

when a change affects a units overall category level C-level the database must be updated within how many hours?

24

81

what is a major us goal for the USMTF system

get allied adoption of USMTF standards

82

how many major structural components make up the USMTF system

3

83

what is the only portion of a message that is governed by the USMTF system rules?

main text

84

what are the three categories of operations checklist

normal, emergency, and quick reaction

85

what does the first page of each operations checklist contain

a sheet showing the date reviewed and the initials of the reviewer

86

why do you place a mark next to each item in a checklist as you complete it?

prevents you from missing critical steps

87

what color of ink is used for entries in the logbook

blue or black

88

which entry is not required in the ops logbook?

the intel officer will certify all entries in the logbook