Vol 1 UREs

Question 1

which document provides the information necessary to plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective 1c5x1 career field and training program?

Answer 1

Career field education and training plan CFETP

Question 2

actual hands on task performance training best describes which type of training?

Answer 2

qualification

Question 3

the specialty training standard STS is found in which part of the career field education and training plan CFETP?

Answer 3

II

Question 4

which publication establishes the occupational structure of the Air Force enlisted force

Answer 4

Air force enlisted classification directory AFECD

Question 5

which skill level must you attain to be eligible for promotion to staff sergeant?

Answer 5

5

Question 6

which skill level is required for promotion beyond the rank of staff sergeant?

Answer 6

7

Question 7

a 3 skill level C2BMO operator carries the title of?

Answer 7

an apprentice

Question 8

which classification identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified within the MILPDS?

Answer 8

Special experience identifier SEI

Question 9

which defense readiness condition DEFCON indicates the normal state of readiness?

Answer 9

5

Question 10

which DEFCON requires an increase in force readiness above that required for normal readiness?

Answer 10

3

Question 11

which DEFCON indicates all forces are ready for a wartime situation?

Answer 11

1

Question 12

a DEFCON indicates

Answer 12

the state of readiness that must be achieved in various military situations

Question 13

when an attack by hostile aircraft is considered probable, imminent, or taking place upon the continental US or Canada, which declaration is declared?

Answer 13

Air Defense Emergency

Question 14

when an attack by hostile aircraft or missiles is probable which air defense warning condition is declared?

Answer 14

yellow

Question 15

which organization is the principle agent of the DOD for the air defense of the united states?

Answer 15

North American Aerospace Defense Command NORAD

Question 16

who is the authority for emergency security control of air traffic plan (ESCAT) in the 48 contiguous states?

Answer 16

Commander, NORAD

Question 17

How many priorities does the emergency security control of air traffic (ESCAT) air traffic priority list (EATPL) contain?

Answer 17

8

Question 18

which of the cardinal directions represents a bearing of 120 degrees?

Answer 18

southeast

Question 19

an object at bearing of 060 degrees and a range of 135 miles would be reported as

Answer 19

zero six zero, one hundred thirty five

Question 20

an object at a bearing of 005 degrees and a range of 50 miles would be reported as

Answer 20

zero zero five, fifty

Question 21

when you read a latitude and longitude, you should always read from

Answer 21

the lower to the higher numbers

Question 22

what is the width of a MGRS zone?

Answer 22

6 degrees

Question 23

the MGRS is read from the

Answer 23

left to right, and then up

Question 24

which character designates the keypad number when using Global Area Reference System?

Answer 24

7

Question 25

which reference system is theater specific?

Answer 25

Common Geographic Reference System (CGRS)

Question 26

what size is a common geographic reference system CGRS Keypad?

Answer 26

10 x 10

Question 27

a radar cannot determine which aspect of a target?

Answer 27

type

Question 28

which radar component allows a single antenna to serve for transmitting and receiving?

Answer 28

duplexer

Question 29

the radars antennas function during transmission is to

Answer 29

concentrate the radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space

Question 30

the radars antennas function during reception is to

Answer 30

collect the energy contained in the echo signal and deliver it to the receiver

Question 31

the number of times the radar transmits per second is known as the

Answer 31

pulse rep freq PRF

Question 32

airborne radars are able to distinguish targets from ground returns

Answer 32

because stationary returns do not produce a Doppler shift

Question 33

concerning the type of effect weather has on radar, the combo of scattering and absorption type is known as

Answer 33

attenuation

Question 34

How is radar performance normally affected during superrefraction?

Answer 34

radar energy is bent downward, increasing the range

Question 35

which form of refraction may result in radar holes or blind spots?

Answer 35

trapping

Question 36

which series of IFF/SIFF transponders do we use today?

Answer 36

MARK XII

Question 37

the primary function of iff/siff is

Answer 37

Identification

Question 38

mode 3 of the military IFF system is identical to which IFF mode of the civil system

Answer 38

Mode A

Question 39

the IFF/SIF mode that provides automatic reporting of aircraft altitude is

Answer 39

C

Question 40

which iff/siff code is generated by an altimeter?

Answer 40

Mode C

Question 41

which IFF/SIF code includes an enhanced feature that allows for auto reporting of platform location?

Answer 41

Mode S

Question 42

which IFF/SIF mode enables operators to distinguish between friendly and potentially hostile aircraft?

Answer 42

4

Question 43

what does IFF/SIF mode 3/A code "7500" mean?

Answer 43

Hijackers on board or suffering from unlawful interference

Question 44

what does IFF/SIF mode 3/A code 7600 mean?

Answer 44

radio communication failure

Question 45

what allows a pilot to transmit a response that will result in a special display at your console?

Answer 45

Identification of position I/P

Question 46

why might you receive an IFF/SIFF return from a target and not a radar return

Answer 46

the IFF/SIF return is stronger than the radar return

Question 47

when used in conjunction with radar IFF/SIFF can help improve

Answer 47

tacking continuity

Question 48

which few range does the air surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) operate in?

Answer 48

1,215 to 1,400 MHz

Question 49

how many 2 degree elevation beams does the ADR-4 use

Answer 49

10

Question 50

what radar system is used in mobile applications?

Answer 50

TPS-75

Question 51

how many vertically stacked, slotted waveguide radiators make up the TPS-75 radar antenna?

Answer 51

48

Question 52

the FPS-117 radar can freq hop on up to how many preset freqs?

Answer 52

18

Question 53

the FPS-124 radar processes and forwards up to how many tracks per scan?

Answer 53

20

Question 54

which type telephone is direct line that does not have dialing capabilities?

Answer 54

hot line

Question 55

which piece of equipment is used to secure comms on secure terminal equipment

Answer 55

fortezza card

Question 56

which telephone feature is the highest precedence in the telephone priority system?

Answer 56

Flash

Question 57

the only method of communicating over long distances from one point of the earth to another without a relay, satellite, or connecting cable is by using the

Answer 57

High freq band HF

Question 58

which freqs are normally only useful for distances approx. within line of sight LOS

Answer 58

VHF and above

Question 59

what determines the hoping pattern rate in a have quick system?

Answer 59

WOD word of day

Question 60

what surface weather event may cause high freq HF black outs

Answer 60

X-Rays flares

Question 61

approx, how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone when transmitting?

Answer 61

half an inch

Question 62

what should be used to keep voice transmissions as brief and clear as possible?

Answer 62

prowords

Question 63

what are the two methods of calling used in radio communications?

Answer 63

full and abbreviated

Question 64

in which method of calling are the call signs of the calling and called stations only given once?

Answer 64

full

Question 65

under MINIMIZE, what message traffic is considered to be essential?

Answer 65

that which deals directly with the success of a mission or safety of life

Question 66

who may cancel of modify MINIMIZE procedures?

Answer 66

the imposing authority or an appropriate higher authority

Question 67

The main guideline for including a report in the operational report OPER-3 system is it must

Answer 67

be essential to command and control of aerospace forces

Question 68

which OPER-3 report is the initial voice notification is due within 5 minutes after learning of the even

Answer 68

pinnacle nucflash

Question 69

which report keeps the joint staff, services, and other national leadership apprised of existing political, military, and operational situations?

Answer 69

Commanders Situation report SITREP

Question 70

Commanders SITREP must be submitted no later than

Answer 70

0800z

Question 71

what regulation authorizes DOD to provide direct support to other federal agencies on a reimbursable basis?

Answer 71

the economy act

Question 72

what regulation provides a means for the federal gov to supplement state resources in major disasters and emergencies when state resources are inadequate?

Answer 72

the Stafford act

Question 73

which system uses mission essential task MET and mission essential task list METL the standard measurement criteria?

Answer 73

Defense Readiness Reporting System

Question 74

which method allows units the ability to report unit type code UTC level readiness

Answer 74

air expeditionary force reporting tool

Question 75

the chief of staff, United States Air force CSAF and subordinate commanders use status of resources and training system SORTS data in assessing their

Answer 75

effectiveness in meeting their responsibilities

Question 76

the units designed operational capability DOC statement is used to

Answer 76

summarize unit tasking requirements

Question 77

which C-Level indicates that a unit posses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized?

Answer 77

c-1

Question 78

Which C-level indicates a unit requires additional resources to undertake its wartime mission

Answer 78

C-4

Question 79

which measured resource area MRA normally drives a units overall category level

Answer 79

the lowest of the four MRAs

Question 80

when a change affects a units overall category level C-level the database must be updated within how many hours?

Answer 80

24

Question 81

what is a major us goal for the USMTF system

Answer 81

get allied adoption of USMTF standards

Question 82

how many major structural components make up the USMTF system

Answer 82

3

Question 83

what is the only portion of a message that is governed by the USMTF system rules?

Answer 83

main text

Question 84

what are the three categories of operations checklist

Answer 84

normal, emergency, and quick reaction

Question 85

what does the first page of each operations checklist contain

Answer 85

a sheet showing the date reviewed and the initials of the reviewer

Question 86

why do you place a mark next to each item in a checklist as you complete it?

Answer 86

prevents you from missing critical steps

Question 87

what color of ink is used for entries in the logbook

Answer 87

blue or black

Question 88

which entry is not required in the ops logbook?

Answer 88

the intel officer will certify all entries in the logbook