Volume 1 Flashcards
What two incident levels were established by the Stafford act?
A. Emergencies and non-emergencies
B. Emergencies and major disasters
C. Natural and major disasters
D. Natural and man-made disasters
B
Which departments primary mission includes preventing terrorist attacks within the United States to terrorism; and minimizing the damage and assisting in the recovery from terrorist attacks that occur within the United States?
A. DoS
B. DoD
C. Department of the interior
D. Department of Homeland Security
D
What directive required the federal government to establish a single, comprehensive approach to domestic incident management?
A. The national preparedness goal
B. PPD-8, National preparedness
C. HSPD-8, National preparedness
D. HSPD-5, Management of Domestic Incidents
D
What presidential directive provides a nationwide template that enables federal, state, local, tribal governments, and private sector and non-governmental organizations to work together effectively and efficiently to prevent, prepare for, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents regardless of cause, size and complexity?
A. National preparedness goal
B. NRF
C. National disaster response framework
D. NIMS
D
Which DoD publication provides a concept of operations as well as functional information necessary to execute a comprehensive and unified response to a nuclear weapon accident?
A. DODI 2000.16, DoD AT standards
B. DODI 3150.10, DoD response to nuclear weapons incidents
C. DOD 3150.8-M, nuclear weapon accident response procedures
D. DODD 3150.08, DoD response to nuclear and radiological incidents
C
What department has primary responsibility to protect United States citizens and interests abroad?
A. DoS
B. DoD
C. Department of Foreign affairs
D. DoHS
A
Which term is defined as “our codified practices on how best to employ air and space power”?
A. Policy
B. Doctrine
C. Guidance
D. Regulations
B
Which operation is not one of the five operational pillars of C-CBRN operations?
A. Counterforce
B. Offensive operations
C. Proliferation prevention
D. Consequence management
B
When using MTTP what factor must you remember?
A. MTTPs are directive in nature
B. MTTPs are not directive in nature
C. MTTPs provide standardized references to service commanders at the strategic level
D. MTTPs provide standardized references to service commanders at the operations level
B
Which action is not part of the primary mission of the Air Force EM program?
A. Save lives
B. Maintain and restore operational capability
C. Provide support to civil and host-nation authorities
D. Minimize the loss or degradation of resources in an all-hazards environment
C
What essential elements are contained in the response mission area of the AF EM program?
A. Notification, response, and protective actions
B. Save lives, protect property, and mitigate the effects of an incident
C. Casualty treatment, UXO safing, decon, and facility restoration
D. Passive defense, consequence management, and incident response measures
A
Diseases that impact humans or animals are classified as which hazard category?
A. Natural hazard
B. Technological
C. Human-caused
D. Terrorist action
A
Which action is one of the first steps an installation commander takes in establishing a single, installation-wide EM program?
A. Appointing a crisis action team director
B. Establishing an EOC
C. Appointing an installation EMer
D. Establishing an EMWG
C
Which action is not a major element of the installation EM program?
A. Planning
B. Equipping
C. Organizing
D. Recovering
D
What factors determine the type and amount of equipment needed for the EM program on your installation?
A. The installations mission and the hazards it may face
B. The size of the installation and the hazards it may face
C. The installations mission and the number of personnel assigned
D. The size of the installation and the number of personnel assigned
A
At a minimum, how often does the MAJCOM EMWG meet?
A. Annually
B. Quarterly
C. Bi-weekly
D. Semiannually
D
At a minimum, how often the installation EMWG meet?
A. Annually
B. Quarterly
C. Bi-weekly
D. Semiannually
B
Who is the point of contact for EM exercise planning and coordination?
A. WIT
B. Exercise evaluation team
C. Exercise inspection team
D. EM support team
A
Which function serves as the essential C2 node for the installation?
A. Command post
B. CAT
C. ICS
D. EOC
A
Which installation function is activated to provide Command, control, and communication link to higher headquarters and civilian agencies and coordinates the incident response needs when installation resources are exceeded?
A. Command post
B. CAT
C. UCC
D. EOC
B
Who activates the EOC?
A. EOC director
B. EOC manager
C. Incident commander
D. Installation commander
D
Who serves as the EOC director?
A. Incident commander
B. Installed commander
C. MSG commander
D. FSS commander
C
Who provides the IC all the support requested to manage the incident, restore mission capabilities, and sustain response and recovery activities?
A. EOC manager
B. Operations section chief
C. Installation commander
D. EOC director
D
Which person would be appointed as the EOC manager by the installation commander?
A. Fire chief
B. MSG commander
C. CE commander
D. R&EM flight superintendent
D
Which ESF is responsible for oversight of communications procedures, equipment, and capabilities?
A. ESF 2
B. ESF 5
C. ESF 7
D. ESF 10
A
Which ESF is responsible for HAZMAT response?
A. ESF 4
B. ESF 5
C. ESF 10
D. ESF 13
C
Which ESF is responsible for energy infrastructure assessment, repair, and restoration?
A. ESF 7
B. ESF 9
C. ESF 11
D. ESF 12
D
Which ESF is external affairs?
A. ESF 1
B. ESF 9
C. ESF 14
D. ESF 15
D
Which function directs, monitors, and reports mitigation and preparedness activities and maintains unit continuity for C2?
A. UCC
B. EOC
C. Post attack recon team
D. ECC
A
What is the goal of the integrated ECC?
A. To provide an enhanced COP
B. To direct all resources needed by the incident commander
C. To provide a collocated location for medical and fire dispatch
D. To manage communications between the EOC and CAT
A
Which function provides emergency call taking, alarm monitoring, sensor monitoring, video monitoring, control, comm support, channel and frequency assignments, allocation, and emergency notification responder reach back capability during emergencies as well as notification of an emergency to the receiving medical treatment facilities and hospitals?
A. UCC
B. EOC
C. PAR team
D. ECC
D
Which ESF is responsible for managing the CBRN control center?
A. ESF 4
B. ESF 5
C. ESF 9
D. ESF 10
B
Which function serves as the focal point for base security and defense C2?
A. CAT
B. EOC
C. Base defense operations center
D. PAR team
C
Who is the trained and experienced responder who provides tactical on-scene control by initiating the ICS using SME and support from other functions?
A. Incident commander
B. Installation command
C. CAT director
D. EOC director
A
Which DRF members deploy to the accident scene after the first responders to expand the ICS and perform support functions?
A. First responders
B. Follow-on responders
C. Secondary responders
D. Emergency responders
D
Which teams are formed from existing installation and unit personnel resources to support emergency response operations?
A. Specialized and support/recovery teams
B. Response and recovery teams
C. Emergency support teams
D. Special support teams
A
Which team is not one of the primary emergency response support teams that are part of the DRF?
A. SMT
B. Contamination control team
C. Response and recovery team
D. EM support team
C
Which reason is not valid for the installation commander or a designation representative to approve releasing a trained member from a specialized team?
A. Retirement
B. Routine leave
C. Medical disqualification
D. PCS
B
Which team is established by installations when there is a requirement for extended sheltering of base personnel during natural disasters or man-made incidents?
A. SIP team
B. Emergency shelter team
C. SMT
D. Base support and recovery team
C
What is the minimum team requirement for natural disaster shelters?
A. One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, and one security person
B. One shelter manager, two monitors for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, and two security personnel
C. One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, one security person, and one person for logistics
D. One shelter manager, two monitors for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, two security personnel, and two people for logistics
C