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CDC > Volume 2 > Flashcards

Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The ABC warfare program in was formed in 1951 in response to proliferation of
A. Nuclear weapons after WWII by the Middle East
B. Nuclear weapons after WWII by the Soviet Union
C. Chemical weapons after WWII by the Middle East
D. Chemical weapons after WWII by the Soviet Union

A

B

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2
Q

What EM career field emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry, graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements, and is still in use today?
A. BCE Emblem
B. DCG Emblem
C. DRF Emblem
D. The EM Emblem

A

C

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3
Q

What career field award recognizes the best R&EM flights annually?
A. The 1Lt Joseph Terry award
B. The SrA John L. Levitow
C. The General Eugene Lupia award
D. The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer

A

D

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4
Q

After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, a significant change to emergency management and response was the implementation of
A. JTF-CS
B. FSTR
C. NIMS
D. CBIRF

A

C

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5
Q

The AF complied with the directive to adopt NIMS by
A. Modifying installation plans
B. Reorganizing emergency response agencies
C. Modifying installation command and control operations
D. Implementing AFIMS

A

D

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6
Q

The CSAF approved the EM career field occupational badge in
A. 2001
B. 2003
C. 2005
D. 2006

A

D

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7
Q

Where does the career field education and training plan (CFETP) state about wearing the EM occupational badge?
A. There is no stipulation
B. Only active duty personnel must wear the CE and EM occupational badges
C. You may wear the CE occupational badge with the EM occupational badge
D. You must wear the CE occupational badge with the EM occupational badge

A

D

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8
Q

Which activities should include training and education as well as exercises, personnel qualifications, equipment certification, and the integration of planning and procedures?
A. Planning
B. Prevention
C. Operations
D. Preparedness

A

D

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9
Q

Providing support in the EOC, CBRN control center, and UCC fall into what R&EM flight mission set?
A. Planning
B. Prevention
C. Operations
D. Preparedness

A

C

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10
Q

What determines the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight?
A. MAJCOM
B. Size of the installation
C. Manpower authorizations
D. Installation threats/hazards

A

C

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11
Q

Who supervises the R&EM flight and analyzes the local threat of natural, technological, or man-made hazards?
A. Flight chief
B. Superintendent
C. The highest ranking 3E9
D. CES commander

A

A

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12
Q

Who is the key EM rep for the senior AF authority and will perform the duties necessary to properly train and educate airmen of AF specific requirements such as CBRN passive defense?
A. EM section
B. Operations element
C. CE squadron
D. R&EM flight

A

A

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13
Q

Which section is responsible for ensuring the CE squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF Program requirements in accordance with AFI 10-210, Prime BEEF program, and AFPAM 10-219, volume 8, Prime BEEF Management?
A. Planning section
B. Operations section
C. EM section
D. Expeditionary engineering section

A

D

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14
Q

Who do senior R&EM flight personnel directly report to?
A. MAJCOM
B. Wing commander
C. Base CE
D. MSG commander

A

C

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15
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring unit EM programs are managed according to AFMAN 32-1007 and AFI 10-2501?
A. EM section
B. Flight leadership
C. Planning element
D. Operations element

A

B

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16
Q

Which of the following would not be included in the meeting agenda?
A. Location
B. Date/time
C. Purpose of meeting
D. List of people attending

A

D

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17
Q

The EM program review is designed
A. As a means to correct problems
B. For evaluation of civil engineer manning requirements
C. For senior staff oversight and direction of the installation program
D. To facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies

A

D

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18
Q

After determining briefing topics, what is the next step in preparing for an EMWG meeting?
A. Conduct follow-up
B. Prepare documentation
C. Send out meeting minutes
D. Schedule the time and place for the meeting

A

D

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19
Q

The work center assignments option falls under which module of ACES-PR?
A. Readiness
B. Personnel
C. Recall roster
D. Additional duties

A

B

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20
Q

Which module of ACES-PR allows the user to manage equipment, mobility, the EM program, and stats?
A. Readiness
B. Personnel
C. Reference table
D. Organization table

A

A

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21
Q

Which function of ACES-PR personnel module allows the user to add and modify records; view personnel history and/or move records to history; view, assign personnel to work center positions?
A. Readiness
B. Recall roster
C. Organization table
D. CE personnel

A

D

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22
Q

Which EM section element is responsible for all R&EM flight equipment?
A. Planning
B. Training
C. Logistics
D. Operations

A

C

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23
Q

Checklists for R&EM flight equipment must be prepared within how many days after the new equipment is received?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 120 days
D. 365 days

A

A

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24
Q

Which element of the R&EM flight is responsible for regularly reviewing EM related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted or changed?
A. Operations
B. Logistics
C. Planning
D. Training

A

B

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25
Q

What document provides basic allowances of equipment normally required by AF activities and individuals for accomplishing the assigned mission, tasks, or duties?
A. Allowance standard
B. Program element code
C. Equipment authorization
D. Equipment supply listing

A

A

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26
Q

Which of the following would not be found in an allowance standard?
A. Vehicles
B. Communication equipment
C. WRM
D. CBRN equipment

A

C

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27
Q

Which of the following is not a suitable reason to request changes to an allowance standard?
A. When allowances are excessive
B. When allowances are inadequate
C. When broken equipment needs to be repaired
D. When equipment is unsuitable for peacetime or wartime

A

C

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28
Q

Items not in an allowance standard, but required by an organization to perform its mission, may be obtained as
A. Special allowances
B. Special requirements
C. Unfunded requirements
D. Unauthorized allowances

A

A

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29
Q

What is used to authorize a required item that is not in an allowance standard but it is already on hand?
A. Reprieve request
B. Retention authority
C. Special allowance request
D. Equipment authorization request

A

B

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30
Q

Temporarily required items are items needed for a period of
A. 45 calendar days or less
B. 89 calendar days or less
C. 180 calendar days or less
D. 364 calendar days or less

A

C

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31
Q

Unless otherwise directed by the SecDef, installations may not stock supplies solely for
A. WRM
B. DSCA
C. MOOTW
D. Active CBRN response

A

B

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32
Q

What is the key to logistics?
A. Carefully planning your budget
B. Effective inventory management
C. Determining equipment requirements
D. Ensuring you stock enough spare parts

A

B

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33
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process?
A. Determining requirements
B. Accounting for equipment on-hand
C. Establishing equipment turn-in procedures
D. Actively addressing the shortfalls and overages

A

C

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34
Q

Which system is a cross service web, enabled, automated tracking system designed to initiate process and track equipment deficiency reports from the Warfighter through the investigation process?
A. JDRS
B. AFEMS
C. ACES-PR
D. JACKS

A

A

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35
Q

Who must identify requirements and then budget for, obtain, store, and maintain material needed to accomplish their specific functions EM tasks in support of response plans?
A. Each MAJCOM
B. Unit commanders
C. Wing commanders
D. Each individual flight

A

B

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36
Q

The types and quantities of passive defense equipment needed by forces in the area of employment are specified in
A. The status of forces agreements
B. AFI 10-2501 and AFMAN 32-1007
C. The logistics portions of war and contingency plans
D. IEMP 10-2

A

C

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37
Q

What must you do prior to starting any equipment task?
A. Review all applicable TO for familiarization with the latest procedures
C. Complete an operations check and document any discrepancies
D. Review the equipment operations checklist

A

A

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38
Q

Members appointed as TODA representative must complete training within how many days of assignment?
A. 10 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days

A

D

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39
Q

In CBRN threat areas, who must store and maintain pre-positioned material for additive forces according to theater reinforcement plans, base support plans, and joint support plans?
A. Installation commanders
B. MAJCOM commanders
C. Unit commanders
D. Individual flights

A

A

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40
Q

Who ensures unit material, including material in bulk storage, is stored in facilities that provide security, and protection from fire, extreme weather, temperature, dust, and humidity?
A. Installation commanders
B. MAJCOM commanders
C. Unit commanders
D. Individual flights

A

C

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41
Q

The R&EM flights training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by
A. AF/A7CV
B. AF/A7CXR
C. AFCEC/CXR
D. AFCEC/CXX

A

C

42
Q

When EM training is completed the R&EM flights training element updates
A. ACES-PR
B. ACES-RM
C. ACES-PM Unit scheduler
D. ACES-PR Unit Scheduler

A

A

43
Q

When formal training slots are available, individual mobilization augmentees should be
A. Scheduled before active duty personnel to ensure they receive the training quickly
B. Scheduled after all active duty personnel have been scheduled
C. Scheduled only if the active duty personnel cannot attend
D. Given the same consideration as active duty personnel

A

D

44
Q

What can help to evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered, thus overcoming the urge to teach favorite topics and neglect other critical areas when conducting in-house training?
A. Proper documentation
B. A rigid training schedule
C. Selecting instructors that are already experts on the topic being covered
D. Selecting instructors that are not experts on the topic and challenging them to research the topic

A

A

45
Q

How often must the installation DRFs ability to respond to adversarial/human-caused, technological/accidental, and natural threats outlined in the IEMP 10-2 be exercised?
A. Every quarter
B. Twice a year
C. Annually
D. Every 2 years

A

C

46
Q

Who is responsible for exercising the ability to conduct deployed combat operations?
A. All AF units
B. AF units in overseas areas
C. Any unit with a wartime mission
D. AF units identified by the CJCS

A

C

47
Q

Which component of the SMART approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to remember that exercises are conducted during a limited timeframe and objectives must be able to be met during that time?
A. Smart
B. Attainable
C. Measurable
D. Task-oriented

A

B

48
Q

Which component of the SMART approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks be completed?
A. Simple
B. Attainable
C. Measurable
D. Task-oriented

A

D

49
Q

What is the first step in establishing an effective be ready campaign?
A. Identify requirements
B. Plan for execution
C. Budget for items
D. Hazard analysis

A

D

50
Q

Which element of the R&EM flight ensures ESF-5 has the ability to provide core management functions in the EOC?
A. Planning
B. Training
C. Logistics
D. Operations

A

D

51
Q

The R&EM flight operations element ensures that every unit and agency on the installation is in compliance with the EM program by
A. Implementing the EM program review process
B. Providing EM training to all assigned units
C. Assigning unit EM representatives
D. Conducting quarterly exercises

A

A

52
Q

Who determines which installation will train and equip geographically separated units in compliance with the EM program?
A. HQ USAF
B. MAJCOMs
C. Unit commanders
D. Installation commanders

A

B

53
Q

How long after the most recent EM review checklist?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

A

B

54
Q

Each EM program review should be coordinated with the unit EM representative and commander at least how many weeks before the visit?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

A

C

55
Q

R&EM flight leadership will submit the written EM program review assessment to the CE commander within how many duty days after the out-brief?
A. 5 duty days
B. 10 duty days
C. 15 duty days
D. 20 duty days

A

A

56
Q

Which of the following is not a factor that will affect the size of the EMST?
A. 24-hour operations
B. Mutual aid agreements
C. Training requirements
D. Installations initial response capability

A

C

57
Q

Which element of the R&EM flight serves as the OPR for CBRN passive defense and consequence management planning?
A. Planning
B. Training
C. Logistics
D. Operations

A

A

58
Q

The R&EM flight planning element is responsible for assisting with what portions of the installation risk management process?
A. CBRN and force protection
B. Force protection and EM
C. Anti-terrorism and force protection
D. CBRN and EM

A

D

59
Q

Which group performs and documents the risk management process?
A. R&EM flight’s EM section
B. Installation’s EMWG
C. Installation’s TWG
D. EOC

A

B

60
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three assessments required to be completed as part of the risk management process?
A. Hazards assessment
B. Capability assessment
C. Efficiency assessment
D. Vulnerability assessment

A

C

61
Q

Which is the most important assessment tool in the risk management process for an installation’s EM program?
A. Hazards assessment
B. Capability assessment
C. Efficiency assessment
D. Vulnerability assessment

A

A

62
Q

Which risk management assessment describes all resources and capabilities available both on and off the installation for incident response and recovery?
A. Hazards assessment
B. Capability assessment
C. Efficiency assessment
D. Vulnerability assessment

A

B

63
Q

Which risk management assessment identifies shortfalls (procedural or programmatic) and steps taken to either mitigate or eliminate the shortfalls through procurement, developing support agreements, developing or revising plans/procedures, accepting the risk, or some other method?
A. Hazards assessment
B. Capability assessment
C. Efficiency assessment
D. Vulnerability assessment

A

B

64
Q

Which risk management assessment identifies areas of improvement to withstand, mitigate, and deter hazards and serves as one of the foundational components for effective EM?
A. Hazards assessment
B. Capability assessment
C. Efficiency assessment
D. Vulnerability assessment

A

D

65
Q

How often are the assessments associated with the risk management process conducted?
A. Monthly
B. Quarterly
C. Annually
D. Biannually

A

C

66
Q

Which publication provides FEMA guidance on the fundamentals of planning and developing emergency operations plans?
A. CPG 101
B. AFI 10-2501
C. AFI 10-2502
D. DODI 6055.17

A

A

67
Q

Which of the following is the foundation for state, territorial, tribal, and local emergency planning in the US and is the standard for EM planning used within the AF EM program?
A. CPG 101
B. AFI 10-2501
C. AFI 10-2502
D. DODI 6055.17

A

A

68
Q

Planners can test whether critical plan elements are sufficiently flexible by
A. Allowing all first responders to test the plan
B. Having multiple people read the plan before approval
C. Exercising them against the same scenario over and over
D. Exercising them against scenarios of varying type and magnitude

A

D

69
Q

Which of the following is not one of the planning tiers?
A. Tactical
B. Strategic
C. Deliberate
D. Operational

A

C

70
Q

Planners typically use which approach to develop planning assumptions primarily for hazard- or threat-specific annexes to a basic plan?
A. Scenario-based planning
B. Function-based planning
C. Operations-based planning
D. Capabilities-based planning

A

A

71
Q

Which approach to planning focuses on a jurisdiction’s capacity to take a course of action?
A. Scenario-based planning
B. Function-based planning
C. Operations-based planning
D. Capabilities-based planning

A

D

72
Q

What establishes an agreement between parties and documents proof of the agreement and its contents?
A. Support plans
B. Assistance plans
C. Support agreements
D. Assistance agreements

A

C

73
Q

For DSCA response within the US, it’s territories, and possessions, who coordinates response activities for federal agencies if the incident affects areas outside the installation’s boundaries?
A. DoHS
B. Installation commander
C. SecDef
D. CJCS

A

A

74
Q

At the national level, who is responsible for EM within CONUS?
A. The president
B. Joint director of military support
C. DoHS
D. FEMA

A

D

75
Q

Which plan provides comprehensive guidance for an emergency response to physical threats resulting from natural, man-made, or technological hazards?
A. IEMP 10-2
B. CE contingency response plan
C. NRF
D. Base support plan

A

A

76
Q

Who approves the IEMP 10-2?
A. R&EM flight chief
B. MSG commander
C. Installation commander
D. MAJCOM commander

A

C

77
Q

What was developed and adopted to assist AF emergency managers in the development process of their respective IEMP 10-2?
A. CPG 101
B. IEMP 10-2 planning tool
C. AF be ready awareness campaign
D. All hazards risk management process

A

B

78
Q

Units must develop and/or update implementing instructions within how many days of publication of an IEMP 10-2?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90

A

C

79
Q

Who is responsible for identifying and evaluating installation facilities that may be used for shelters?
A. Base Civil engineer
B. Installation commander
C. American Red Cross personnel
D. R&EM flight personnel

A

A

80
Q

What is used during a natural, man-made, or technological emergency condition to provide limited protection for unprotected personnel or casualties?
A. Lockdown
B. Shelter-in-place
C. COLPRO
D. Extended operations shelters

A

B

81
Q

Which announcement is an emergency protocol used as a security measure to confine and restrict movement during an active shooter incident?
A. All clear
B. Lockdown
C. Evacuation
D. Shelter-in-place

A

B

82
Q

When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations, how many days should you plan for after the onset of CBRN contamination?
A. 3 consecutive days
B. 5 consecutive days
C. 7 consecutive days
D. 9 consecutive days

A

C

83
Q

Which agency is responsible for providing notification of earthquakes in order to enhance public safety and to reduce losses through effective forecasts based on the best possible scientific information?
A. NWS
B. USGS
C. ITWS
D. NOAA

A

B

84
Q

To determine which areas in the US are at higher risk than others to an earthquake, USGS creates seismic hazard maps that show
A. Fault lines
B. Ground depths
C. Peak ground acceleration
D. Local geological conditions

A

C

85
Q

Which agency monitors ocean waves after any Pacific earthquake with a magnitude greater than 6.5?
A. NWS
B. USGS
C. ITWS
D. NMHS

A

C

86
Q

When is hurricane season in the Atlantic, Caribbean, and Gulf of Mexico as well as in the central pacific basin?
A. 1 Jan to 31 March
B. 1 March to 30 June
C. 1 June to 30 Nov
D. 1 July to 31 Oct

A

C

87
Q

Which agency issues coastal tropical watches and warnings for the US and it’s Caribbean territories and provides watch and warning recommendations to other world meteorological organization region IV meteorological services?
A. NHC
B. NWS
C. NMHS
D. NOAA

A

A

88
Q

What is the nickname for the area of the US that consistently experiences a high frequency of tornadoes each year?
A. Tornado Row
B. Tornado Alley
C. Tornado Corner
D. Tornado central

A

B

89
Q

A boundary separating hot, dry air to the west from warm, moist air to the cast is called
A. A dry line
B. An isobar
C. A storm line
D. A thermocline

A

A

90
Q

Which level of HAZMAT response is conducted when the hazard is confined to a small area that can be controlled by first responders, does not require evacuation beyond the involved structure, and poses no immediate threat to life or property?
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

A

A

91
Q

Which level of HAZMAT response is conducted when the hazard poses a potential threat to life or property?
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

A

B

92
Q

Any large number of casualties produced in a relatively short time, usually as a result of a single incident that exceeds local logistic support capabilities is called a
A. Disaster
B. Major accident
C. Mass casualty incident
D. Full scale medical response

A

C

93
Q

Conventional explosives are the most troubling WMD because
A. The damage of the blast
B. They are very easy to make and acquire
C. They can be acquired easily and for little cost
D. They can disperse chemical, biological, or radiological agents

A

D

94
Q

Chemical agents are categorized based on their
A. Lethality
B. Rate of action
C. Exposure routes
D. Physiological effects

A

D

95
Q

Which weapons are used to cause illness, injury, or death in humans, livestock, or plants?
A. Chemical
B. Biological
C. Radiological
D. Conventional

A

B

96
Q

What is the primary defense against biological weapons?
A. Detection
B. Recognition
C. Immunizations
D. Decontamination

A

B

97
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three primary mechanisms by which terrorists can use radiation to carry out an attack?
A. Detonation of a nuclear bomb
B. Dispersal of radiological material
C. Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons
D. Attacking a facility housing nuclear material

A

C

98
Q

A dirty bomb is another name for what kind of weapon?
A. Chemical agents
B. Biological agents
C. Conventional explosives
D. RDD

A

D

99
Q

Critical water or sewer system failures can and do occur quite often, primarily as a result of
A. Terrorism
B. Natural hazards
C. Chemical agents
D. Biological agents

A

B

100
Q

According to the World food Programme, what is the greatest worldwide threat to health?
A. Water contamination
B. Contagious diseases
C. Natural radiation
D. Famine

A

D

CDC (3 decks)

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