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CDC > Volume 3 > Flashcards

Volume 3 Flashcards

1
Q

An installation’s primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other DRF elements during an emergency is through the

A. Commander’s notifications
B. Primary and secondary crash nets
C. DRF recall
D. EOC

A

B

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2
Q

What is the planning mechanism used throughout an incident to codify and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period?

A. IEMP 10-2
B. Contingency Response Plan
C. IRP
D. IAP

A

D

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3
Q

In AFIMS, during the Response phase of an incident, an IAP is established for a certain operational period. How long is a normal operational period for an IAP?

A. 6 or 12 hours
B. 12 or 24 hours
C. 24 or 28 hours
D. 48 or 72 hours

A

B

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4
Q

In the recovery phase of AFIMS, who identifies the ROC?

A. IC
B. CE Commander
C. Director of Operations
D. EOC Director

A

D

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5
Q

Which item best describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an EM program?

A. SMT
B. Contamination control teams
C. An effective C2 System
D. A survival recovery center co-located with the installation command post

A

C

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6
Q

Which divisions is not one of the five divisions of the AOC?

A. Strategy
B. Logistics
C. Combat Plans
D. Air Mobility

A

B

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7
Q

What do unit commanders use to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations?

A. UCC
B. EOC
C. Installation command posts
D. Installation Information exchange networks

A

A

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8
Q

What is the primary mission of the EOC?

A. Monitor and direct active defense measures
B. Pass attack information to the base populace and direct defensive measures
C. Monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions post-attack recovery operations
D. Assess damage reports, establish priorities, dispatch and control response forces, and inform the command post on the status of base facilities

A

C

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9
Q

What is the upward flow of attack information within the Installation C2 structure?

A. Individual through UCC to EOC
B. Individual through EOC to UCC
C. EOC through UCC to the individual
D. UCC through the EOC to the individual

A

A

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10
Q

A MCC is required to meet what DHS/FEMA resource type?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

C

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11
Q

Which ESF monitors, tracks, and reports financial impacts, reimbursement expenditures, and claims resulting from the CBRNE incident?

A. ESF-8
B. ESF-7
C. ESF-6
D. ESF-5

A

D

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12
Q

Which option is not one of the seven major requirements of the CBRN control center?

A. Detection
B. Plotting
C. Defending
D. Identification

A

C

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13
Q

After an attack against your installation involving chemical warfare agents, the CBRN control center provides advice to the EOC commander pertaining to agent persistency. What type of CBRN control center responsibility does this action best represent?

A. Internal
B. External
C. Coordination
D. Exposure determination

A

A

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14
Q

You are deployed to a contingency situation fulfilling the role of a CBRN control center team member. Chemical agents have not been used thus far in the theater of operations. The enemy attacks your installation. Several CBRN recon teams report a positive indication that the enemy used a chemical warfare agent. What NATO CBRN report must the installation CBRN generate to the theater CBRN cell?

A. CBRN 1
B. CBRN 2
C. CBRN 4
D. CBRN 5

A

B

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15
Q

Which defense condition (DEFCON) indicates war?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7

A

1

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16
Q

Which air defense warning condition color indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress?

A. White
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Black

A

C

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17
Q

What terrorist FPCON applies when an incident occurs or intelligence has received information that some form of terrorist action against personnel and facilities is imminent?

A. FPCON ALPHA
B. FPCON BRAVO
C. FPCON CHARLIE
D. FPCON DELTA

A

C

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18
Q

Prior to deploying to a high threat environment, you find out that the location you are deploying to does not use the USAF standardized alarm signals for areas subject to CBRNE attack. What best describes the action the R&EM flight takes?

A. Establish a pre-deployment information program to inform base populace personnel of the deployed locations warning system
B. Establish an information program at the deployed location to inform base populace personnel of the deployed locations warning system
C. Establish an information program that disseminates the deployed locations warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location
D. Work with the deployed location to change the warning system to mirror the USAF standardized alarm signals for areas subject to CBRNE attack

A

C

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19
Q

Installations located in CBRN medium and high-threat areas use standard MOPP levels. When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under

A. MOPP 0
B. MOPP 1
C. MOPP 2
D. MOPP 3

A

B

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20
Q

Installations located in CBRN medium and high-threat areas use standard MOPP levels. When personnel wear all IPE items, the installation is operating under

A. MOPP 1
B. MOPP 2
C. MOPP 3
D. MOPP 4

A

D

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21
Q

Which is not a standard MOPP option?

A. Ventilation
B. No ABU or flight suit
C. Mask-only
D. Hood open

A

D

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22
Q

What is the most critical factor for sound MOPP analysis?

A. Initial training required
B. Warning and reporting information
C. Gathering of post attack information
D. Work rate and rest cycle implementation

A

C

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23
Q

What rank is a RTF Commander?

A. Major
B. Colonel
C. General
D. Civilian

A

C

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24
Q

A nuclear weapons accident undergoes a high-order detonation causing radioactive contamination to spread downwind over 3 miles. Hundreds of civilian personnel start to show up at your CCS. Unfortunately, you have only four personnel and a limited number of RADIAC to operate your CCS. Your CCS is completely overwhelmed by the number of people needing to process. Given these circumstances, what is the best action to take?

A. Implement initial CCS procedures
B. Implement standard CCS procedures
C. Direct the civilians to a holding area until the RTF arrives
D. Separate the civilians into several large groups and conduct a spot monitor of only a few in each group. If the few are clean, then release the rest.

A

A

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25
Q

Which option is not a principal element of a CCS?

A. Hot line
B. CCL
C. Contamination removal zone
D. Contamination reduction area

A

C

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26
Q

In what area of the CCS do the CCS team personnel conduct radiological monitoring?

A. Hot line
B. CCL
C. Contamination removal zone
D. CRA

A

D

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27
Q

While conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the CCS, which probe should you hold in place for 10 seconds?

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Beta/gamma

A

A

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28
Q

Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach deposition within how many minutes?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 60

A

C

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29
Q

The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface would is to

A. Decon
B. Keep personnel out of contaminated zones
C. Have personnel leave contaminated zones by any means
D. Keep personnel inside buildings in contaminated zones

A

B

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30
Q

What colors are used for the background and writing on CBRN marking signs to indicate bio contamination?

A. Blue background; red writing
B. Red background; blue writing
C. Yellow background; red writing
D. Red background; write writing

A

A

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31
Q

Who is responsible for establishing a shelter plan for protection and recovery from CBRN attacks?

A. CE commander
B. MSG commander
C. Installation commander
D. Individual units

A

C

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32
Q

A COLPRO shelter may not provide sufficient shielding from what form of contamination without modification?

A. Radiological
B. Chemical
C. Biological
D. Chlorine

A

A

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33
Q

Which level of decon is conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated?

A. Immediate
B. Operational
C. Thorough
D. Clearance

A

A

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34
Q

Which level of decon is conducted by a unit, with or without external support, to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment, material, and/or work areas?

A. Immediate
B. Operational
C. Thorough
D. Clearance

A

C

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35
Q

Which decon technique is not conducted during the operational level of decon?

A. Spot decon of areas that must be touched or used
B. MOPP gear exchange
C. Detailed equipment decon
D. Equipment wash down

A

C

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36
Q

What decon kit is made with reactive sorbent powder?

A. RSDL
B. M291
C. M295
D. M256

A

C

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37
Q

Covering chemical agents with at least how many inches of earth will give protection provided the area is not disturbed?

A. 1 inch
B. 2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 4 inches

A

D

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38
Q

During decon operations, you let the RSDL remain on your skin for at least how many minutes?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B

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39
Q

In an attempt to extend the wear time of the BDO after exposure to agents other than VX, you should use the M291/M295 kit on your over garment no longer than how many minutes?

A. 3
B. 7
C. 10
D. 15

A

D

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40
Q

During CCA processing, what is the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers.

A. Dry powder
B. 5 percent liquid chlorine solution
C. 30 percent super tropical bleach
D. 50 percent BK powder and Lo-Bax

A

B

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41
Q

The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least how many feet away from the entrance to the CCA?

A. 25
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50

A

D

42
Q

Which formula is used to transform 50 pounds of STB with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content?

A. (30/8) X (50-5) / 5
B. (50/8) X (30-5) / 5
C. (30/5) X (50-5) / 5
D. (50/5) X (30-5) / 5

A

B

43
Q

Which option is not one of the four operational elements of CBRN passive defense?

A. CBRN Shape
B. CBRN sense
C. CBRN shield
D. CBRN supply

A

D

44
Q

Which option is not a form of CBRN recon operation?

A. Route
B. Area
C. Installation
D. Zone

A

C

45
Q

Which CBRN location technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain or so that sites for high value facilities are free of contamination?

A. Cloverleaf
B. Grid
C. Lane
D. Zigzag

A

A

46
Q

During dismounted reconnaissance, from what direction will the initial entry team approach the area being surveyed when conducting an initial area survey?

A. Direct as possible
B. Crosswind
C. Upwind
D. Downwind

A

C

47
Q

During initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places what mark on the door?

A. An X
B. A slash
C. A slash and circle
D. A X and Circle

A

A

48
Q

During an initial area survey, while in the structure, an initial entry element conduct radio checks with command every

A. Minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

A

B

49
Q

When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will take what step first?

A. Determine if the item is unrecognizable
B. Move toward the item
C. Photograph the undisturbed item
D. Initiate detection procedures

A

C

50
Q

Which item is not defined in a sample collection plan?

A. Purpose and scope of operations
B. Priority of sample collectio
C. Sample collection parameters
D. Route of entry to facility

A

D

51
Q

During sample collection operations, the assistant sample collector is referred to as

A. Clean person
B. Dirty person
C. element leader
D. recorder

A

A

52
Q

During two person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection?

A. Clean person
B. Dirty person
C. Recorder
D. IC

A

B

53
Q

During three-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection?

A. Sample collector
B. Assistant sample collector
C. Element leader
D. IC

A

C

54
Q

When taking an environmental sample, what is the total volume of stones that should be taken?

A. 100 to 200 milliliters
B. 200 to 300 milliliters
C. 300 to 400 milliliters
D. 300 to 400 milliliters

A

B

55
Q

When taking an environmental sample, what is the surface area of a soil sample that should be taken?

A. 3 1/2 inches by 3 1/2 inches
B. 2 1/2 inches by 2 1/2 inches
C. 1 1/2 inches by 1 1/2 inches
D. 1/2 inches by 1/2 inches

A

A

56
Q

Sample collection teams should bring enough sample collection equipment and consumables to take a minimum of how many samples of a necessary type?

A. Four
B. Six
C. Eight
D. Ten

A

D

57
Q

During sample collection operations, how many water samples should be taken?

A. Minimum of two (1 sample, 1 control)
B. Minimum of three (2 sample, 1 control)
C. Minimum of four (3 sample, 1 control)
D. Minimum of four (2 sample, 2 control)

A

C

58
Q

Which sample collection technique is the basic and preferred sample collection method?

A. Composite
B. Discrete
C. Surface
D. Grab

A

D

59
Q

When samples are taken at predetermined intervals it is considered what type of collection strategy?

A. Periodic
B. Random
C. Systematic
D. Judgmental

A

C

60
Q

During surface sample collection procedures, charcoal-impregnated pads can be used for sampling what type of substances?

A. Volatile solvents
B. Organic substances
C. Radiological materials
D. Collection of metals

A

A

61
Q

What is the recommended sample collection size for a chemical vegetation sample?

A. 2 leaves or 2 handfuls of grass
B. 2 leaves or 1 handful of grass
C. 3 leaves or 1 handful of grass
D. 3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass

A

D

62
Q

What is the recommended sample collection size for a biological liquid sample?

A. 10 to 25 mL
B. 25 to 50 mL
C. 50 to 75 mL
D. 75 to 100 mL

A

B

63
Q

AFI 48-137 does not apply to which protection?

A. Commercial respiratory
B. Service specific respiratory
C. Foreign respiratory
D. Military-unique respiratory

A

D

64
Q

The specific requirements outlined in AFI 48-137 are based on 29 code of federal regulations?

A. 1910.134
B. 1910.120
C. 1918.134
D. 1918.120

A

A

65
Q

Before using an APR or PAPR you need to make sure the

A. Oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%
B. Chemicals/air contaminants in the air are small-sized particles
C. Chemicals/air contaminants in the air are large-sized particulates
D. Atmospheric hazards are above IDLH conditions

A

A

66
Q

Which model of the JSGPM does the Air Force ground personnel use?

A. M50
B. M51
C. M52
D. M61

A

A

67
Q

When the M61 filter time patch assembly expires and must be replaced, it’s central color changes from white to

A. Black
B. Green
C. Dark blue
D. Dark green

A

C

68
Q

What is placed in the M50 JSGPM to minimize and possible deformation of the face seal during storage and shipment?

A. Mask mold
B. Face form
C. Face blank
D. Cover

A

B

69
Q

The M45 land warrior mask comes in what sizes?

A. Small, medium, large
B. Short, medium, long
C. Extra small, small, medium, large
D. Extra short, short, medium, long

A

C

70
Q

What team is the first to arrive at a deployed location?

A. Advance echelon (ADVON)
B. Follow-on force
C. Initial force
D. Cadre

A

A

71
Q

Missile maintenance would arrive at a bare base force deployed location with which force deployment team?

A. ADVON
B. Follow-on force
C. Initial force
D. Cadre

A

B

72
Q

What list combined with individuals on leave and quarters provided availability?

A. Recall roster
B. Weekly work schedule
C. Unit manning document (UMD)
D. Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR)

A

D

73
Q

During a contingency, where can you find a breakdown of all material that must be moved to the forward location?

A. Interim work information management system (IWIMS)
B. Automated data processing equipment (ADPE)
C. War Reserve Material (WRM)
D. UTC

A

D

74
Q

Which document lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise or deployment?

A. Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)
B. UPMR
C. Unit Manpower document (UMD)
D. UTC

A

A

75
Q

Which element is one of the five essential elements of a DRMD?

A. Departure date
B. AFSC
C. Aircraft types and numbers
D. Personnel selected for deployment

A

B

76
Q

What product is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in UTC capabilities?

A. Personnel identification and travel itinerary report
B. Mobility requirements/resources roster
C. Processing discrepancy report
D. Departure report

A

C

77
Q

What type of UTC provides the most detail to AF national military strategy planners and are used to the greatest extent possible?

A. Associate
B. Non-deployable
C. In-place requirement
D. Standard deployable

A

D

78
Q

In reference to mission capability, what are the required skill levels on an EM installation management team?

A. One 9 level
B. Two 5 levels
C. One 5 and one 7 level
D. One chief master sergeant (3E900)

A

C

79
Q

Which EM UTC provides initial equipment for CBRN personnel decon capability for an installation with up to 3,300 personnel?

A. 4F9WM- EN HLD response equipment
B. 4F9WS- EN CBRN personnel DECON equipment
C. 4F9WL- EN active CBRN response equipment
D. 4F9WP- EN CBRN detection augmentation equipment

A

B

80
Q

Who ensure all Prime BEEF team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles and all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy?

A. R&EM flight commander
B. Logistics Readiness Squadron commander
C. UDM
D. Prime BEEF manager

A

D

81
Q

What is the SORTS?

A. A system of electromagnetic phone lines connected with modems to the endpoint computer
B. An external management tool comprised of a family of computer data bases and a reporting system to update them
C. A system of electromagnetic phone lines with multiplexers that are attached to the endpoint laptop computer system
D. An automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations

A

D

82
Q

Which units are measured in SORTS?

A. Offensive or defensive
B. Skills or grades needed
C. Combat or combat support
D. Requisitions or requirements

A

C

83
Q

The degree to which a unit meets standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment is indicated by a five-point scale called

A. A-levels
B. C-levels
C. M-levels
D. P-levels

A

B

84
Q

Which product is used as a baseline to compare actual available personnel when compiling the SORTS report?

A. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement
B. UTC availability record
C. AF personnel desire list (AFPDL)
D. Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)

A

C

85
Q

SORTS C-level ratings are based on a five-point scale reflecting the degree to which a units resource meet prescribed levels of all of the following except

A. Equipment
B. Personnel
C. Funding
D. Training

A

C

86
Q

Which Allowance standard (AS) contains identifiers for RED HORSE and Prime BEEF UTC?

A. 429
B. 456
C. 459
D. 660

A

A

87
Q

Who ensures protected cargo is secure and under surveillance at all times during the deployment movement?

A. Aircrew
B. Couriers
C. Prime BEEF manager
D. UDM

A

B

88
Q

What are the usable surface dimensions of a 463L cargo pallet?

A. 84” by 104”
B. 84” by 108”
C. 88” by 108”
D. 88” by 104”

A

A

89
Q

What is the weight of an empty 463L pallet?

A. 65 pounds
B. 290 pounds
C. 355 pounds
D. 463 pounds

A

B

90
Q

AF WRM is essential material whose purpose is to

A. Eliminate airlift requirements
B. Meet planned defense objectives
C. Reduce financial requirements on combatant commanders
D. Provide equipment for use during exercises and inspections

A

B

91
Q

What category of WRM includes food necessary to feed a person for one day?

A. Rations
B. Equipment
C. Consumables
D. Fuels mobility support equipment

A

A

92
Q

What is not considered WRM?

A. Rations
B. Vehicles
C. Subsistence items
D, consumables items

A

C

93
Q

Who or what command determines WRM pre-positioning requirements?

A. WRM program manager
B. Using major command
C. Storing major command
D. Host installation commander

A

B

94
Q

What kind of installation deployment orders establishes a tentative C-day (day deployment operations will begin)?

A. Deployment
B. Planning
C. Warning
D. Alert

A

C

95
Q

What kind of installation deployment orders is sent to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) to direct execution planning before a COA is formally approved by the SecDef and POTUS?

A. Deployment
B. Planning
C. Warning
D. Alert

A

B

96
Q

What kind of installation deployment orders does the SecDef issue to prepare forces to deploy?

A. Deployment
B. Planning
C. Warning
D. Alert

A

A

97
Q

Which Logistics Module (LOGMOD) report, created through the schedule module, shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment?

A. Movement summary
B. Hazard code list
C. Packing list
D. Load list

A

C

98
Q

The personnel deployment function (PDF) is charged with maintaining accountability of deploying personnel from the time they arrive at the processing line until

A. They arrive at the aggregation point
B. They depart the PDF for the aircraft
C. Otherwise directed by the troop commander
D. They are turned over to the passenger terminal function

A

D

99
Q

The only type of orders used to deploy personnel is

A. Contingency, exercise, and deployment orders
B. NATO orders
C. PDF orders
D. TDY orders

A

A

100
Q

Where is cargo weighed and measured and the cargo documentation validated?

A. Cargo deployment function (CDF)
B. Deployment control center (DCC)
C. Marshaling yard
D. Personnel deployment function (PDF)

A

A

CDC (3 decks)

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