Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

STEP 1 > Wednesday > Flashcards

Wednesday Flashcards

(63 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What neurotransmitters are altered in Huntington’s Disease?

A
  • Increased
    • DA
  • Decreased
    • ACh
    • GABA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment for dry age-related macular degeneration?

A

Smoking cessation

Antioxidant supplements

(FA: multivitamin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drug classes are used as first line agents in the treatment of glaucoma?

A
  • Beta-blockers
    • Decrease aqueous humor synthesis
  • Prostaglandins (Latanoprost)
    • Increase outflow of aqueous humor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MOA of Thalidomide?

A

Inhibits TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which spinal tracts contain alternate routes of voluntary movement?

A
  • Reticulospinal
  • Rubrospinal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which spinal tract is important for postural adjustments and head movements?

A

Vestibulospinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which spinal tract conveys voluntary motor command from the motor cortex to the head and neck?

A

Corticobulbar Tract

(Body = L and V Corticospinal tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What intranuclear inclusions are seen in Herpes Simplex encephalitis?

A

Cowdry type A inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What cytoplasmic inclusions are pathognomonic for Rabies?

A

Negri Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What neuronal inclusions are characteristic of Parkinson’s?

A

Lewy Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What Cytoplasmic inclusions are associated with aging?

A

Lipofuscin granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the eosinophilic, rod-like inclusions in the hippocampus of Alzheimer’s patients?

A

Hirano Bodies

_H_ippocampus = _H_irano bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What inclusion is diagnostic of Alzheimer’s?

A

Neurofibrillary plaques and tangles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What filamentous inclusions stain with silver and do not survive neuronal death?

A

Pick Bodies

“you use a pick to mine for silver”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What filamentous inclusions stain with PAS and Ubiquitin?

A

Lewy Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dementia plus Visual Hallucinations

A

Lewy Body Dementia

  • Dementia
  • Visual Hallucinations
  • Syncopal Episodes
  • Parkinsonian features
  • alpha-synuclein defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dementia plus Progressive Aphagia

A

Frontotemporal Dementia (Pick Disease)

  • Dementia
  • Progressive Aphagia
  • Uninhibited Social Behavior
  • Pick bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dementia plus Ataxia and Loss of pupillary light reflex

A

Neurosyphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dementia plus Megaloblastic anemia and Peripheral Neuropathy

A

Vit B12 defeciency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dementia plus Resting Tremor and Bradykinesia

A

Parkinson’s

or

Lewy Body Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dementia plus Uninhibited Social Behavior

A

Frontotemporal Dementia (Pick Disease)

  • Dementia
  • Progressive Aphagia
  • Uninhibited Social Behavior
  • Pick bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dementia plus Urinary Incontinence and Ataxic gait

A

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

“Wet, Wobbly, Wacky”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dementia plus Syncopal Episodes

A

Lewy Body Dementia

  • Dementia
  • Visual Hallucinations
  • Syncopal Episodes
  • Parkinsonian features
  • alpha-synuclein defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dementia plus Dysarthria and Liver Disease

A

Wilson Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Dementia plus Myoclonus
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
26
Which Bacteria are obligate intracellular pathogens?
"Really Loves Cytoplasm" * Rickettsia * Legionella * Chlamydia
27
What enzymes do obligate anaerobes lack?
Catalase and/or Superoxide Dismutase * "anaerobes Can't Breathe Air" * Clostridium * Bacteroides * Actinomyces
28
Which Mycobacterium species causes leprosy?
M. leprae
29
Which Microbacterium species causes pulmonary TB-like symptoms in COPD patients?
M. kansasii
30
Which Mycobacterium species causes cervical lymphadenitis in children?
M. scrofulaceum
31
Which Mycobacterium species causes a disseminated disease in AIDS patients?
M. avium intracellulare
32
Which Mycobacterium species causes hand infection from aquarium exposure?
M. marinum
33
What are the obligate aerobic bacteria?
"Nagging Pests Must Breath" * **_N_**ocardia * **_P_**seudomonas * **_M**_yco_**B_**​acterium tuburculosis
34
What are the monocyte-derived cells of the joints?
Type A synovial cells
35
In what disease would you find Anti-mitochondrial Ab?
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
36
In what disease would you find anti-centromere Ab?
CREST scleroderma C = Centromere, CREST
37
What is the female homologue to the corpus spongiosum?
Vestibular bulbs
38
What is the female homolog to the ventral shaft of the penis?
Labia Minora
39
What is the use of Cyproheptadine?
Antihistamine Appetite Stimulant
40
For what is Promethazine used?
Antihistamine Nausea and vomiting
41
For what is Chlorpheniramine used?
OTC allergy/cold
42
For what is Hydroxyzine used?
Anti-histamine Sedation, itching
43
For what is Meclizine used?
Anti-histamine Vertigo
44
Actions of what drug is blocked by methylxanthines such as theophylline?
Adenosine
45
What is the most common salivary gland tumor?
Pleomorphic adenoma * Benign * Histo * Chondromyxoid stroma and epithelium * S/s * Painless, mobile mass * Recurs if not completely excised
46
What is Homan sign?
Calf pain on dorsiflexion of the foot Sign of DVT
47
What lung pathology is associated with bilateral hilar adenopathy and uveitis?
Sarcoidosis
48
What lung pathology is associated with "Honeycomb Lung" on x-ray?
Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
49
What lung pathology is associated with "tennis racket"-shaped cytoplasmic organelles? What are these organelles called?
Langerhans Cell Histeocytosis Birbeck Granules
50
What classic infections are associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome?
* Campylobacter jejuni (most important) * CMV Also * HBV * HIV * Mycoplasma pneumonia
51
What CD marker is found on all NK cells and binds the constant region of IgG?
CD16
52
What CD markers inhibit complement C9 binding?
CD55 and CD59
53
What CD marker is an exotoxin receptor found on macrophages?
CD14
54
What are the most common locations of lung cancer metastasis?
* Adrenals * Bone * Brain * Liver
55
Exposure to what substances put a coal miner at risk of bronchogenic lung cancer?
Radon Silica
56
Which lysosomal storage disease causes accumulation of dermatin sulfate?
Hurlers Syndrome Hunters Syndrome
57
Which lysosomal storage disease causes deficiency in hexosaminidase?
Tay Sachs
58
What are the causes of Typical Pneumonia?
* Typical: * Bad symptoms * Productive cough w/ purulent sputum * X-ray: lobar, white-out of area * Causes * S. pneumoniae\*\* * S. aureus * H. influenza * Group B strep
59
What are the causes of Atypical Pneumonia?
* Atypical * Nonproductive cough * Mild * "walking pneumonia" * x-ray: diffuse, patchy * Causes: * Mycoplasma pneumonia\*\* * Legionella pneumophila * Chlamydophilia pneumoniae
60
Which immunosuppressant is an Ab that binds to CD3 on T cells?
Muromumab
61
Which immunosuppressant is an Ab that binds IL-2 receptor on activated T cells?
Daclizumab
62
Which immunosuppressant inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase?
Mycofenolate mofetil
63
Which immunosuppressants inhibit calcineurin, leading to loss of IL-2 production and blockage of T cell differentiation and activation?
Cyclosporin Tacrolimus

STEP 1 (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions