Week 1-3 Flashcards
1
Q
Basic Unit of Measure in the metric system
A
liter
gram
meter
2
Q
how many mililiters are in 1 liter
A
1000 mililiter
3
Q
household system of measurement for volume
A
teaspoon
tablespoon
cups
4
Q
household sytem of measure for weight
A
ounces
pounds
5
Q
household system of measure uses for length
A
inches
feet
yards
6
Q
doses less than a teaspoon use what?
A
needleless syringe instead of measuring cup
7
Q
smallest household measure
A
drop (gtt)
8
Q
how many teaspoon in a tablspoon?
A
3 teaspoon equals a tablespoon
9
Q
how many tablespoon in 1 ounce
A
2 tablespoon
10
Q
1 teaspoon is how many milliliter?
A
5mL
11
Q
1 tbs is how many mL
A
15mL
12
Q
1 oz is how many mL?
A
30 mL
13
Q
1 cup is how many oz?
A
8 oz
14
Q
8 oz is how many mL?
A
240 mL
15
Q
1 pt is how many cup?
A
2 cups
16
Q
1 Pt is how many mL?
A
500mL
17
Q
1 quart is how many cups?
A
4 cups
18
Q
1 quart is how many oz?
A
32 oz
19
Q
1 quart is how many mL?
A
1000 mL
20
Q
1 pound is how many oz?
A
16 oz
21
Q
1 foot is how many inches?
A
12 inches
22
Q
how many cm in 1 inch?
A
2.54 cm
23
Q
how many feet and inches in 1 yd
A
3 feet or 36 inches
24
Q
What type of data would the nurse be collect when completeing a physical examinition?
A
objective
25
Which information would a nurse collect while performing a health history?
medication
26
Which criterion would the nurse use to determine the skills needed to complete a health assessment?
clinical practice area
27
In which part of the health history would the nurse document information about a patient’s hospitalizations?
previous illness
28
In which section of the health history would the nurse document that a patient’s mother had breast cancer?
family history
29
normal oral temperature in Fahrenheit
96.8 to 99.5
30
Which type of data would the nurse collect when completing the health history?
subjective
31
Which action would the nurse take after collecting and documenting health assessment data?
cluster the data
32
Which component would the nurse identify as essential to healthcare?
health promotion
33
At which time would the nurse consider health promotion actions for a patient?
during the health assessment
34
which step is first in clinical reasoning?
assessment what has been learned from the patient
35
Since healthcare providers’ feeling, attitudes, and values can be strong enough to affect clinical decision-making, it is important that healthcare providers know themselves and regularly engage in which activity?
critical reflection
36
At which time would a nurse document health assessment data?
at time of the encounter
37
Which information would the nurse identify as the legal permanent record of a patient’s health status?
health record
38
Which core skill would the nurse use to examine a patient’s skin?
inspection
39
for which reason would the nurse analyze collected data?
identify expected and abnormal findings
40
Which time would the nurse update a patient’s problem list?
when a problem resolves
41
During which time frame in nursing history did Dorothea Dix organize military hospitals and head the US Sanitary Commission?
19th century
42
Which major contribution did Hippocrates make toward the evolution of medicine and health care?
Was the first to attribute disease to natural causes rather than supernatural causes and curses of the gods
43
Which elements are included in the ANA standards of professional performance?
ethics
collaborations
quality of practice
resource utilization
44
Which nursing roles are inherent roles?
change nurse
patient advocate
45
Which contemporary nursing role is one of the fastest-growing specialties in the 21st century?
forensic nurse
46
A dean in a college of nursing is trying to inspire a faculty member to obtain a terminal degree. Which nursing role does this action represent?
leader
47
what was contributed during the middle ages
care provided based on sanctity of human life
48
what was contributed during early civilization
advance hygiene and sanitation practices
49
what was contributed during the early 20th century?
American Journal of Nursing was established
50
what was contributed during the Renaissance period?
women were recruited for Sisters of Charity
51
Which 19th century nurse used her extensive knowledge in tropical medicine to treat patients during the cholera epidemic in the 1850s?
Mary Seacole
52
Which organization’s definition of nursing includes the autonomous role of nurses?
International Council of nurses (ICN)
discussed nursing roles including promoting safe environment, participation in research, and participating in shaping health policy and education
53
Which role do nurses serve?
care provider
educator
researcher
54
Which role describe how nurses function to ensure that members of the healthcare team work together to accomplish a common goal?
collaborator
55
A charge nurse is authorized to make changes in the number of staff members who work a shift. Within which nursing role is the charge nurse functioning?
manager
56
Which roles is the nurse demonstrating when recognizing a problem and collecting data to sufficiently support the need for policy updates?
researcher and change agent
57
During which time frame in nursing history did Dorothea Dix organize military hospitals and head the US Sanitary Commission?
19th century
58
Which major contribution did Hippocrates make toward the evolution of medicine and health care?
Was the first to attribute disease to natural causes rather than supernatural causes and curses of the gods
59
altruism
engaging in selfless acts
60
which term describes how nurses engage in selfless act
altruism
61
competence
the ability of the nurses to demonstrate skills accurately in nursing
62
autonomy
the ability of the nurse to function independently
63
which criteria establish nursing as a profession
licensure
specialized body of knowledge
higher education
64
which nursing action demonstrate accountability
accepting responsibility for decisions
65
Which entity publishes and updates the Standards of Nursing Practice focusing on quality care?
American Nursing Association (ANA)
66
Which document is best for the nurse to consult to ensure that the standards of right and wrong behavior and decisions are followed for the delivery of quality patient care?
ANA code of ethics
67
Which elements are defined by state nurse practice acts for nurses residing or working in that state?
scope of practice
legal practice limit
68
Which strategy can be utilized by a nurse to ease the transition from student to professional nurse?
acquiring a mentor
69
Which one of Benner’s nursing proficiency levels includes being able to begin to see situations more holistically?
competent
70
A new graduate nurse attending a hospital’s orientation session is an example of which process?
socialization
71
Which nursing action demonstrates the concept of autonomy?
making independent decision
72
Which group can a nurse join to gain support and encourage high standards within the nursing profession?
professional organization
73
Which action is consistent with the purpose of addressing diversity in nursing practice?
demonstrating cultural competence
74
Which document is best for the nurse to consult when making decisions about nursing practice or conduct?
code of ethics for nurses
75
Which values does the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses address?
improving the environment
patient advocacy
commitment to others
76
Resource ultilization
considers factors related to safety, effectiveness, cost, and impact on practice in the planning and delivery of nursing services
77
which degree are considered terminal degree in nursing
DNP- doctor of nursing practice
DNS - doctor of nursing science
PhD - doctor of philosphy
78
Which roles require preparation with a master’s degree in nursing (MSN) but involve indirect or no direct patient care?
nursing educator
79
Which actions are considered requirements or core competencies for the APRN?
expert coaching and guidance
direct clinical practice
ethical decision making
80
According to Benner’s Novice to Expert Model, a nurse who interprets nuances and perceives deviations from normal is at which level of clinical nursing practice?
proficient
81
Which actions would the new nurse recognize as self-care behaviors that can ease the transition from a student to a nursing professional?
engaging in physical activity
practice mindfulness
eating healthy food
reducing stress
82
Which statement may be expressed by a nurse experiencing the recovery phase of Reality Shock?
“I’ll start my charting around 1:30 so that I will be finished by the end of my shift.”
83
Which statement made by the novice nurse, who is learning about drug calculations from the nurse, requires correction?
“When I change larger units to smaller units, I will move the decimal to the left.”
84
To which number would the nurse round a liquid medication?
Nearest 10th
85
Which medicaiton type would the nurse refrain from splitting?
capsule
enteric-coated tablets
controlled-released tablets
sustained-release table
extended-release tablets
86
Which action would the nurse perform to ensure patient safety when administering a continuous intravenous (IV) heparin infusion?
verify the label dosage strength
87
Which syringe would be used to administer U-100 insulin?
U-100 insulin syringe
88
Which action(s) would the nurse perform to prevent injury from infiltration when administering IV fluid of 0.9% normal saline (NS) to a patient with dehydration? Select all that apply. One, some, or all response may be correct.
Assess the IV insertion site
Prevent IV Tubing kinks
Monitor the electronic infusion pump
Avoid taking blood pressure on the arm with the IV line
89
Which intervention(s) by the nurse would help a patient achieve pain relief if the patient is using the patient-controlled analgesia method? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
Instruct the patient about the use of a control button
Instruct the patient to report any side effects
Advise the patient about the safety features of the pump.
90
Where will the generic name of a medication appear on a drug label?
directly under the brand name
91
Which are the identifiers for a medication’s trade name on a drug label?
capitalized
registered
trademark
92
Why are the bar codes located on medication labels useful in the clinical environment?
They identify the drug in the medication distribution system.
93
CR
controlled release
94
DS
double strength
95
EC
enteric coated
96
ER
extended release
97
ER
extended release
98
LA
long acting
99
SR
sustained release
100
XL
long acting
101
Why do some drug labels list only a generic name, instead of a trade name along with its generic name?
the medication's generic name is official name
102
Which nursing action is appropriate to determine if a drug recall affects a medication administered in the hospital?
check the lot number or control number on the drug label
103
Which method is best for measuring the temperature of a critically ill patient who is catheterized?
thermistor port temparture
104
Over which regions is the pulse rate palpated?
carotid
radial
popliteal
femoral
105
what is the maximum normal pulse rate
100 beats per minute
106
what is considered bradycardic
less than 60 beats per minute
107
The nurse should measure respiratory rate immediately after measuring which vital sign?
pulse rate
108
normal respiration for adults
12-20 breaths
109
what is blood pressure
measure peripheral functions of cardiac system
force of blood against artery wall during contractions and relaxation of ventricles
110
systolic
when ventricle contract
111
diastolic
when ventricle relax and heart is filling
pressure exerted by peripheral vascular resistance
112
normal blood pressure
120/80
113
elevated BP
120-129 for systolic and less 80 for diastolic
114
stage one HTN
130-139 for systolic and 80-89 for systolic
115
Stage 2 HTN
g>140 for systolic and 90 for diastolic
116
how do you determine cuff size
40% wide and 80 % long of patient's arm
117
what is the reading if the cuff is too narrow
give high reading
118
what kind of reading if the cuff is too big
gives low reading
119
how to determine when to stop inflation of cuff
20-30 mmHg above palpable systolic pressure
120
what is the maximum blood pressure considered normal
19mmHg
121
When measuring the blood pressure of a patient, which measurement represents the force exerted by peripheral vascular resistance when the heart is in the filling or relaxed state?
diastolic pressure
122
Which assessment method should be used to identify the systolic and diastolic blood pressure?
auscultation
123
what is considered hypoxia
sats below 90% oxygen
124
Why is it important to ensure a strong pulse during pulse oximetry testing?
the change in the color between oxygenated and deoxygenated arterial blood in minutes
125
Which areas of the body are used for measuring the oxygen saturation in infants?
foot
big toe
palm
thumb
126
what is considered normal reading for oximetry
95%-100%
127
An increase in body temperature may be an indication of which condition?
infection
damage to hypothalamus
vasoconstriction
vasodilation
128
Contraction and relaxation of the skeletal muscles result in what temperature-regulating reaction?
shivering
129
Which is the best method by which to measure temperature in a 5-month-old patient?
tympanic
130
Which communication term can be applied to this statement: How messages are received and interpreted would include personal states such as mood disturbance, environmental stimuli related to the setting of the communication, and contextual variables?
Metacommunication
metacommunication
131
A patient does not make eye contact with the nurse and folds their arms at their chest. Which aspect of communication has the nurse assessed?
nonverbal
132
The nurse is admitting a new patient to the psychiatric unit. Which factor will most likely contribute to a positive outcome of the interaction?
the environment is quiet
patient has been admitted to the facility in the past
patient is awake, alert, and oriented to the person, place, and time
133
The nurse is having a therapeutic conversation with a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension. Which communication techniques will most likely prove effective for this patient?
the nurse presents a laminated poster to the patient the depicts food that would be low sodium diet
the nurse and patient engage in humorous conversation about the top ten "what not to eat when you are being treated for hypertension"
the nurse help identify weight loss goals that are reasonable
the nurse waits until the patient has been away for a few hours before beginning the teaching plan
134
Communication in professional nursing practice encompasses a wide range of practices. Which is an exemplar of communication in nursing practice?
handoff/reporting
assertive communication
therapeutic communication
electronic health record documentation
135
normal oral temperature in celsius
36-37.5
136
normal rectal temp in Fahrenheit
97.3 to 100.2
137
normal rectal temp in celsius
36.3 to 37.9
138
normal tympanic temp in Fahrenheit
97.2-100
139
normal tympanic temp in celsius
36-37.8
140
The nurse should measure the recumbent length of a child until what age?
2 years
141
lymphoid growth includes what?
thymus, lymph nodes, and intestinal lymph masses
142
neural growth includes what?
brain, dura, spinal cord, optic apparatus, and head deminsion
143
genital growth includes what?
reproductive organ growth
144
when does brain growth peak?
during fetal development and early infancy
145
when does the most rapid brain growth occur
during conception and 3 year
146
when does muscle growth peak
during fetal development and adolescence
147
when does adipose tissue peak
during infancy and adolescence
148
when does lymphoid growth peak during?
ages 10-14
149
neural growth peaks during when?
ages 4-14
150
genital growth peak during when?
adolescence as reproductive organs achieve maturation and function
151
what happens to organs as we age
the size and weight of the liver, kidney, and lungs decreases
152
what happen during fetal stage?
fetal weight increases in the third trimester with organ development
head is the fastest growing skeletal portion of fetal growth
153
what occurs during infant years
growth of trunk dominates (main area of skeletal growth)
weight gain is initially rapid but slows as the infant reaches 1 years of age
154
what happens during child years
weight is steadily gain until age 7
at age 7 prepubital increases and fat will occur prior to true growth spurt
legs are the fastest growing body part
155
what happens during adolescent years
50% of individuals body weight is gained
organs double in size.
male have increase in body fat during early adolescence and average lean muscle body mass to 90%
females have increase in body fat and slight decrease in lean body mass to 75%
156
what happens to older adult
over age of 60 years, have 5% body weight loss over several years with an increase in body fat.
results due to skeletal muscle.
157
at what age does the intervertebral disc thin and kyphosis develop?
50 years of age
158
what is kyphosis
abnormal condition of the vertebral columns
increase curvature of the spine viewed from the side
can be cause by ricket or TB of the spine
159
cause for kyphosis
skeletal muscle decreases as a result of decrease in excercise and steroid production
160
what is the most rapid period of brain growth occur?
conception and 3 years of age
161
Which age-related physical changes contribute to skeletal muscle loss in the older adult?
decrease in excercise
decrease in steroid production
162
during what stage is skeletal growth considered complete?
late puberty
163
what does growth hormones do?
promotes growth
increase in organ size
regulate carbohydrates
lipid matobolism
164
what does thyroid hormones do?
stimulate growth hormones
production of insulin-like growth factor-1
effect growth of other body tissue
influence other metabolic processes, such as weight, heart rate, temperature, and menstruation
165
what is insulin-like growth factors
regulated by insulin
exerts negative feedback on growth hormone secretion to control growth in peripheral tissue
stimulate target cells that control tissue growth adn ossification to stimulate muscle and skeletal growth
166
what does estrogen do
stimulates development of female secondary sex characteristic
167
what does testosterone
enhances muscular development and sexual maturation
168
what does adrenal hormones do?
secreted by adrenal glands
promote masculinization of secondary sex characteristics and skeletal maturation
169
what is Ghrelin?
produce by gastric lining of the stomach intake and the development of ebesity
170
what is interleukin-6
helps in bone formation and reabsorption
171
what is leptin?
hormone in regulating body fat and is thought to be a trigger for puberty
172
what is luteinizing hormone?
stimulates the gonads to release more sex hormones
173
growth at puberty depends on interactions of which hormones
growth hormones
insulin-like growth fator-1
174
growth hormones-releasing hormones stimulates the pituitary glands ro release which hormones?
growth hormones
175
which organ completes physical development more quickly than other body parts
brain
176
at ehich developmental age do the legs grow faster than any other body part
child
177
what physical assessment finding in the older adult suggest skeletal muscle loss?
increase in fat
loss of body weight
178
at what age does the head make up nearly 50% if the body
fetus
179
which hormones helps regulate an individuals height
insulin-like growth factor-1
180
which hormone, regulated by insulin, stimulates cells that control connective tissue growth and ossification
insulin-like growth factor-1
181
what hormone is responsible for bone maturation and epiphyseal fusion
testosterone
182
which characteristics describe the purpose of the clinical judgment in nursing practice
affect patient outcome
involves recognizing cues
influences the plan of care
is the observed outcome of critical thinking
183
what rationales supports the significance of recognizing patient cues as soon as the nurse enters the room
the nurse is less likley to miss key information if listening to the patient and observing the environment
184
to effectively recognize cues, which concepts would the nurse need to understand?
the first few minutes of hrte patient encounter are critical
a nonjudgmental environment promotes communication
the nurse should adapt the physical assessment based on patient age
185
which factos can hinder the nurse's ability to recognize patient cues?
the patient is 3 years old
the patient is crying uncontrollably
the patient does not speak English as a first language
the patient's culture discourage eye contact with strangers
186
which factors can influence the nurse's ability to recognize and categorize patient cues
experience with other patients
187
dose-response relationship
the body's physiological response to change in drug concentration at the site of action
determine minimum amount of drug needed to elicit a response
the maximum response a drug can illicit
how much to increase the dosage to produce the desire increase in response
188
efficacy
the drugs ability to produce the desire result
189
maximum efficacy
largest effect that a drug can produce
height the does-response curve
190
potency
the amount of drug needed to elicit a specific phsiologic response to the drug
higher the potency the less drug is needed
the lower the potency the higher the dose to illicit the same effect
191
Minimum Effective Concentration (MEC)
lowest blood level needed to cause intended action
if body eliminated the drug fater tahn drug enters the body, drug level at any given time will not be enough
if body eliminate teh drug more slowly than the drug enters teh bodyk the drug level could become high enough to increase side effects or reach toxic concentration
192
onset
the time it takes for a drug to reach MEC after administration
193
peak
occurs when the drug reaches its highest concentration in the blood
indicates the rate of drug absorption
194
how many hours does it take oral drug to peak
2-3 hours
195
how many hours does it take intramuscular drug to peak
2-4 hours
196
how long does it take IV drug to peak
30 minutes to 60 minutes
197
duration of actions
length of time the drug exerts a therapeutic effect
198
drug half-life
the time it take for the amount of drug in the body to be reduced by half
199
what is factors the can affect drug half-life?
the amount of drug administered
the amount of drug remaining from previous dose
body's metabolism
elimination from the body
200
what is the half life of Ibuprofen
2 hours
201
the half life of digoxin
36 hours with normal kidney function
takes 5 days to reach a steady state of concentration
202
loading dose
initial large does of drug administered at onset of therapy
203
maintenance does
smaller does given to maintain plateau drug level
204
what to collect during assessment of drug?
examin patient's history to identify factors relevant to onset, peak, and duration (kidney disfuntion)
collect drug history including date, time, and drug taken
peform a physical assessment to identify problems that may be relevant to the onset, peak and duration of drug to be administered. (dyphagia in the need for IV vs oral delivery
205
what do n urses do during implementation of a drug
provide patient education related to procedures to monitor drug onset, peak, and duration (fingerstick for glucose) in a way do they understand
provide education where they feel safe to express themselves and their concerns
check peak levels and trough levels of drug especially those with narrow therapeutic range
206
how does nurse evaluate after drug is administered
evaluate physical, social, and psychological outcomes of education related to pharmacotherapy
evaluate the therapeutic effectivenes sof pharmacotherapy
207
If the body eliminates a drug more slowly than the drug enters the body, which conditions can occur?
toxic concentration
increased side effects
208
how many half-life does it take for a drug to reach a steady state
4 half-lives
209
ligand-gated channel
binding is on the cell surface and activate the enzyme inside the cell and a response is initiated
210
g-protein-couple receptor system
has 3 component
1. the receptor
2. the g-protein that binds with guanosine triphosphate
3.the effector
211
cell membrane-embedded enzymes
channel crosses the cell membrane. when channel opens ions flow into and out of the cell
affects sodium and calcium ions
212
transcription factors
found in the cell nucleus on DNA not on the surface.
activation of receptors through transcription factors regulate protein synthesis and is prolonged
213
nonselective drug
exert their effect across many tissues
free flowing
214
relatively selective drugs
exerts a singular effect on a specific targe tissue or organ
215
highly selective drugs
drugs that exert their effect on a single organ or organ system
216
agonist
drugs that binds to receptor and produce desired response by mimicking the body's own regulatory molecules
217
antagonist
block receptor activation and prevent the receptor from behaving in its normal manner
218
partial agonist
have moderate intrinsic activity
they act as agonist and antagonist
219
affinity
the preference or attraction a drug has for its receptor
220
drugs that don't act through recpetors
antacid
antiseptics
hormones
chelating agents
221
drug-drug interaction
an alteration in drug effect as a result of interaction with one or multiple drugs
222
symptoms of drug-drug interaction
nausea
heartburn
headache
lightheadedness
223
additive drug effects
two drugs are administered in combination to which the response is increase beyong what either could produce alone
224
synergic drug effects
the therapeutic effect is substantially greater than that of either drug
both drugs are equally, both drug reduce does of each drug
225
potentiation
a second drug is added to help with the therapeutic effect
226
antagonistic drug effects
drugs with antagonistic effects are administered together, one reduces or blocks the effect of the other
example: Morphine Sulfate OD uses naloxone
227
grapefruit juice
drug category:
amiodarone, buspirone, carbamazepine, cyclosporine, nifedipine, calcium channel blocker, anticholesterol drugs
outcone:
decrease metabolism of drug and increased effects
228
caffeine
drug category:
theophylline
outcome:
Excessive CNS excitation
229
Salt substitute
drug category:
potassium-sparing diuretic
outcome:
dangerously high potatssium level
230
citrus beverage
drug category:
aluminum containing antacid
outcome:
excessive absorption of aluminum
231
leafy green veggie
drug category:
warfarin
outcome:
decrease anticoagulant effect
232
dairy product
drug category:
tetracycline and fluoroquinolones
outcome:
chemical binding of the drug leading to decreased effect and treatment failure
233
St. John's wort
reduces effectiveness of many drugs such as warfarin, digoxin, and oral contraceptive
234
what are common side effects of drugs
constipation - opiod analgesiac
sexual disinterests or imptency - antidepressant and antihypertensive
diarrhea - antibacterial or penicillin
drowsiness - antihistamine
decrease in blood clotting - aspirin
235
dose related adverse effects
result from decreased drug clearance in pateint with impaired kidney or liver function or from durg-drug ineraction
example; medication for UTI causing jaundice and elevated liver funciton
236
allergic adverse effects
allergies developed when a drug acts as an antigen or allergen.
requires prior exposure
237
Idiosyncratic adverse effects
genetically determine abnormal response
occur in small percentage of patient given a drug
238
paradoxical effect
effect that is opposite of the indended drug response.
239
therapeutic index
the difference between the effective (therapeutic, ED50) dose and the toxic dose (TD50)
240
which age group is more vulnerable to adverse effect
pediatric and older adult patients
241
which TI drugs requires close monitoring of blood levels to adjust dosing
digoxin
lithium
warfarin
phenytoin
242
how many phase are there on the dose-response curve
3
243
phase 1 dose response cruve
the dose is too low to elicit any measureable response
244
phase 2 dose response curve
increase in does elicits an increase in response
245
phase 3 of dose response curve
an increase in dose is unable to elicit any further increase in drug response
246
what are the half-life of 4 hours?
4 hours is 50%
8 hours is 75%
12 hours is 88%
16 hours is 94%
20 hours is 97%
247
which drug clases interact adversely with cheeses (dairy)?
tetracycline
fluoroquinolones
Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor
248
the brain consist of what three major area?
the brain stem
the cerebellum
the forebrain
249
the forebrain
cerebral cortex
involve in higher function
has 4 lobes; frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital
has 3 motor cortex; somatosensory, broca area, and wernicke area
250
Brainstem
contains medulla oblongata, the pons, and the midbrain
251
cerebellum
adjacent to the the brainstem and below occipital lobe
252
reflex arcs
closed circuits of spinal and peripheral nerves and not under control of the brain
253
dermatome
an area of skin that is supplied by a single berve
254
broca area
formation of words and speech
255
w
256
Wernicke area
processing of words in coherent though
understanding of written/spoken words
257
motor cortex
controls voluntary movement
258
somesthetic (sensory) area
processing sensory information from the body surfaces, including the muscle, tendon, and ligament
259
cerebellum
coordination of movement and focusing of function of the muscles, joints and tendon
maintain balance and equilibrium
260
medulla oblongata
regulates respiration, heart rate and blood pressure
261
pons
regulate respiration
acts as a relay to signal between the forebrain and the cerebellum
262
cranial nerves
communication between the brain and the body
exits brain directly and have both sensory and motor functions
263
primary sensory neuron
relays signals from the peripheral to the central nervous system
264
corticospinal fibers
relay stimulation for the motor neurons
265
tertiary sensory neuron
relays stimulation from the thalamus to the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe
266
secondary sensory neuron
relay stimulation from the spinal cord to the thalamus
267
pyramidal pathway
conducts impulses for voluntary muscle contraction
268
extrapyramidal pathway
conducts impulse for instinctual and reactionary movement rather than voluntary muscle contraction
269
trigeminal nerve (V)
muscles for chewing (jaw movement)
control facial sensation
largest cranial nerve
270
hypoglossal (XII)
muscle that move the tongue
help speaking, swallowing, and chewing
271
facial (VII)
muscle for face and scalp (facial expression)
stimulate tongues and oral cavity and lacrimal glands
272
olfactory (I)
transmit infor regarding smell
273
vestibulococlear (VIII)
infor regarding sound and balance information from the inner ear to brain
274
optic nerve (II)
process visula info
275
oculomotor nerve (III)
eye movement
blinking, pupil constriction and eyelid positioning
276
trochlear nerve (IV)
eye movement up and down and back and forth direction
277
abducen nerves (VI)
control horizontal movement of the eyes toward the temple
278
Glossopharyngeal (XI)
oral sensation and taste
279
Vagus (X)
control body function such as digestion, heart rate, and immune system
280
Accessory (XI)
should elevation or movement of neck and sholder
head turning from side to side
281
which physical condition will result if there is a lack of impulse conduction to skeletal muscle?
paralysis
282
from which reasons would the nurse avoud nontherapeutic communication in a nurse-patienbt helping (therapeutic) relationship?
requires justification of actions fromteh patient
283
what are the interaction spaces and distance
intimate 0 - 1.5 feet
personal 1.5 - 4 feet
social 4 - 7 feet
public greater than 12 feet
284
Acronym SOLER
s = sit facing patient
o = open stance or posture
l = lean toward the patient
e = eye contact
r = relax
285
How many times does the nurse check a medication before administering it under the 'right drug' part of the 'six rights' of medication administration?
three
286
the study of drug effects on the body
pharmacodynamics
287
which term is used to describe the ration between and drug's therapeutic effects and tis toxic effects?
therapeutic index
288
which type of effect occurs when a psychological benefit is obtained from a compound that may not have a drug effect
placebo
289
what are the time limit within which the nurse must administer a prescription of paracetamol 7650 mg by mouth stat
immediately
290
which method helps standardize medication prescription
computerized order entry
291
which safety feature is specific to computerized healthcare provider (HCP) order entry systems?
include the ability to identify drug interaction with the patient's current and newly prescribed drugs
292
which action by the nurse determines the 'right patient' when following the six rights of medication administration?
scan the bar code on the patient's wristband, verify with the patient's eletronic medicaiton administration record, and ask the patient to state full name.
293
which term best describe the nurse's action when asking the patient to provide a list of all medications, including herbal and over-the-counter drugs, the patient takes?
medication reconciliation
294
for which reason are specific medication classified as "high-alert' medicaiton?
potential for patient harm is higher with these medications.
295
which nursing action is appropriate after the nurse administers a medication to the wrong patient?
notify the healthcare provider and document the error in an incident report
296
which number of patient identifier will the nurse check before administratin g a medication to a patient?
two
297
according to the current healthcare laws in the United States, which professional can legally prescribe medication?
Primary health care provider
nurse practictioners
physician assistants
298
how many times does the nurse verify a prescription before administering a medication to the patient?
three
299
which information is of the highest priority when obtaining a pharmacologic history from a patient?
allergies
300
which information in the medication prescription does the nurse verify before administering the drug?
date of drug prescription
301
which action does the nurse take during medication reconciliation of the patient who has renal failure?
instructs the patient to keep a list of medications in his or her wallet
302
which action does the nurse take before administering medicaitons to the elderly patient recently admitted to the hospital fromt eh skilled nursing facility
check teh patient's identification band against the medication profile and prescription
303
which action does the nurse take after reviewing a prescription written as 'diazepam 5 mg once daily at 2100.'
administer the medication after confirming the route with the healthcare provider
304
which nursing strategy is most appropriate to prevent medicatin errors when admitting an elderly patient to an acute care setting.
ask the patient to provide you with a written list of all medicaitons being taken at home
305
which piece of information will the nurse review after the patient states, 'I just read on the internet that some people are having really aweful side effects of the drug I'm suppose to take and I'm scare to continue taking the drug?'
Black box warning
306
which action will the nurse perform first when unable to read the drug name from a medication prescription
call the healthcare provider
307
which action correctly describe how to dispose of the remaining protion of a discontinued intravenous medication?
flush the discontinued intravenous medication down the hopper in the utility room
308
which statement is true regarding a prescription for 10mg/kg/day of a medicaiton whent he automatic dispensing cabinet (ADC) is stocked with unit does of the medication
the nurse does not have enough information to determine the dose
309
after the patient is resuscitated from an inadvertent administration of high dose morphine, what will the nurse's next action?
report teh error to the nurse manager
310
which specific information related to a drug does the nurse obtain while doing a drug assessment for a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease who has been prescribed a new medication to be taken by mouth?
sign and symptoms of allergic reactions
adverse reactions of the drug
patient's ability to swallow tablet
patient's ability to pay for the drug
311
which drug does the nurse suspect was administered in error whena patient who has parkinson disease does not improved symptoms and developed diarrhea?
polyethylene glycol instread of pramipexole
312
tachyphylaxis
rapid decrease in response to a drug
313
which drug delays the renal excretion of penicillin
probenecid
314
which instruction would the nurse include when teaching a patient about the administration of sulfonamide?
stay out of the sun when possible, and use sunscreen when you are outside
315
which instruction would the nurse include when teaching a patient about the administration of phenelzine?
refrain from eating sour cream
316
which statement describe a characteristics of highly protein-bound drugs
they increase the risk of drug-drug interactions
317
