Week 1 Flashcards
(282 cards)
1
Q
Which 4 kingdoms have eukaryotic cells?
A
Animal, plants, protist, and fungi
2
Q
Describe what kind of cell yeast is
A
Yeast is a unicellular organism - eukaryotic
3
Q
DNA is organized into chromosomes which are made up of __________. DNA is wrapped around proteins known as ___________. The wrapping of DNA allows for it to fit inside the nucleus.
A
Chromatins
Histone proteins
4
Q
Within the nucleus is the __________. This is where ribosomal RNA is made.
A
Nucleolus
5
Q
Ribosomal RNA is used to make which cellular organ?
A
Ribosomes
6
Q
What is the function of ribosomes?
A
Ribosomes are enzymes that synthesize proteins within the cell
7
Q
Some ribosomes are free floating in the cell, others are attached to the _________ __________? Where they make proteins that are then sent to the Golgi apparatus to be packaged and shipped to the plasma membrane.
A
Endoplasmic reticulum.
8
Q
Cytoskeleton is made up of ______ and ________.
A
Centrioles and microtubuoles
“It is a network of tubules and filaments”
9
Q
What does amphipathic mean?
A
Ability to be both hydrophilic and hydrophobic
10
Q
The cell membrane is made up of phospholipids. They have a ________ head and 2 ______ _______ chains attached to it
A
Glycerol
Fatty acid chain tails
11
Q
The glycerol head of the phospholipid contains a phosphate group making it…..?
A
Partially charged
12
Q
Non-polar fatty acid chain tails on phospholipids contain only hydrocarbons that are hydro-________
A
Hydrophobic
13
Q
What are the subtypes of passive transport through cell membrane?
A
Simple diffusion
Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion (uniport)
14
Q
What are the subtypes of passive transport through cell membrane?
A
Primary and secondary
Subtypes of secondary
= Co-transport (symport) & Exchange (antitransport)
15
Q
ATP is converted into ADP through which process?
A
Hydrolysis, where a phosphate bond is broken and releases the phosphate group (also energy)
16
Q
2 major functions of a cell’s nucleus
A
- Cellular regulation - houses genetic material which directs all cellular activities and regulates cellular structure
- Production - produces ribosomal subunits in nucleolus and exports them into cytoplasm for assembly into ribosomes
17
Q
In non-dividing cells, _________ is a complex of DNA and proteins that make up the contents of the nucleus of a cell.
A
chromatin
18
Q
The primary functions of chromatin are to:
A
- Package DNA smaller
- Strengthen the DNA to allow mitosis (cell division),
- Prevent DNA damage
- Control gene expression and DNA replication.
19
Q
The local structure of chromatin during interphase depends on the genes present on the DNA: 2 major structure types
A
Euchromatin (turned on)
Heterochromatin (turned off)
20
Q
Describe Euchromatin
A
DNA coding genes that are actively transcribed (“turned on”)
They are more loosely packaged and are found associated with RNA polymerases
21
Q
Describe heterochromatin
A
DNA coding inactive genes (“turned off”) are found associated with structural proteins and are more tightly packaged
22
Q
Which has more active transport? Euchromatin or heterochromatin
A
Euchromatin is active for transport
23
Q
What is the visual difference between chromatin and chromosomes?
A
Chromatin: resting state, non dividing cells, looks like loose yarn
Chromosomes: reproducing, dividing cells, looks like skein of yarn
24
Q
What is a Barr body?
A
Females have a small, dense mass of heterochromatin (Barr body) that’s not present in males.
Heterochromatin = turned off genes
25
Are Barr bodies present in males?
No. Only females
26
How are the X chromosomes represented in females?
Barr bodies:
Facultative heterochromatin - One of the two X chromosomes in females that remains tightly coiled during mitosis
Constitutive heterochromatin - The other X chromosome is uncoiled, transcriptionally active and not visible.
27
What is a nucleosome?
A structural unit of eukaryotic chromosome, consisting of a length of DNA coiled around a core of histones
* DNA + 8 histone core
28
What is the medical application of Barr bodies?
Barr bodies permit gender determination in patients whose external sex organs do not permit determination
29
Barr bodies help with the presence of other anomalies like XXY chromosomes
[ ___________ syndrome which causes testicular abnormalities and absence of sperm _________]
1. Klinefelter syndrome
| 2. Azzospermia
30
What is the absence of sperm called?
Azzospermia
31
Extended loops of transcriptionally active chromatin tethered to protein scaffold is dispersed (Euchromatin or Heterochromatin?)
Euchromatin is connected to protein scaffolds
Heterochromatin is condensed
32
Karyotyping is important to detect ________ ______
Genetic anomalies
33
What is karyotyping and what is it used for?
Collection of chromosomes being examined
Allows for determination of abnormalities or structural problems with chromosomes
During division, the chromosomes are arranged by size and appearance and they ‘pair up’
34
When a cell isn’t dividing, how are the chromosomes arranged?
They are spread out in an unorganized way
35
________ cells (body cells) have all chromosomes and are _______ (have two sets of 23)
________ cells are haploid (have one set of 23)
1. Somatic cells
2. Diploid
3. Germ cells - gametes/sex cells: sperm and ova
36
What is cell replication important for?
1. Reproduction
2. Growth
3. Tissue repair
37
All Somatic cells divide through process called ________
Germ cells divide through process called _______ to produce gametes/sex cells
1. Mitosis
| 2. Meiosis
38
Cells that continue to divide throughout their lifespan are called _________
Progenitor or stem cells
| are categorized as somatic cells
39
When an ova is penetrated by a sperm cell, they undergo mitosis for about 5-6 days creating a lump of identical cells called _________
Totipotent cells - early embryonic stem cells that are capable of becoming any cell
40
What is a multipotent/pluripotent cell?
Typical cells in an adult (can become many cell types *but not all)
Ex: hematopoietic stem cells produce formed elements of the blood
41
What is a unipotent cell?
A cell that can only become one cell type
Ex: epidermal stem cells can only form epithelial cells
42
Which cells do common myeloid progenitor cells produce?
These come from multipotent hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblasts)
Megakaryocytes -> thrombocytes
Erythrocytes
Mast cells
Myeloblast -> basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils Myeloblast -> monocytes -> macrophages
43
Which cells do common lymphoid progenitor cells produce?
Natural killer cells (large granular lymphocytes)
Small lymphocytes -> B and T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes-> plasma cell
44
The cell cycle leads to DNA replication and cell division: split into ______ and mitosis
Interphase = (G1, G2, and S phases)
45
Mitosis is divided into different phases regulated by _____, which are mediated by ______.
1. Specific checkpoints
| 2. Specific molecules
46
Uncontrolled cell replication results in disease states, leading to __________
Neoplasms such as cancers
47
Cells that leave the cell cycle are permanently differentiated and enter the ________ phase.
G-0 phase
| Example: neurons
48
What is happening during the S phase?
DNA synthesis
49
Cells considered ______ retain ability to divide if needed
Facultative dividers
Example: liver cells
50
What is an example of a cell that’s permanently differentiated and have entered the G0 phase?
Neurons
51
What is an example of a facultative divider cell?
Liver cells
52
Some of the key checkpoint molecules of the cell cycle are:
Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)
Transitions between phases are highly regulated by these molecules with others
53
What are the 3 Key checkpoints in the cell cycle?
G1/S phase transition
G2/Mitosis transition
Metaphase/Anaphase transition within Mitosis
54
The cell cycle is also influenced by hormones, _____, and cell contact during normal development and reproduction
Growth regulators
55
Interphase is split up into three phases: Gap 1, S phase, and Gap 2 phase. Explain what happens in G1
Cell can differentiate (produce cell-specific proteins through transcription and translation = gene expression), grow in size,
and perform its specialized functions
56
Interphase is split up into three phases: Gap 1, S phase, and Gap 2 phase. Explain what happens in S phase
DNA synthesis phase. Cell duplicates it’s DNA in preparation for cell division
57
Interphase is split up into three phases: Gap 1, S phase, and Gap 2 phase. Explain what happens in G2
Cell prepares for mitosis
58
G1 phase prepares for the S phase:
1. Preparation of DNA synthesis machinery:
DNA _________ and other enzymes.
2. Production of ________ for winding of new DNA
1. Polymerase
| 2. Histones
59
During S phase (DNA replication), the DNA unzips and _______ strands of DNA are formed.
Two strands of DNA -> strands separate -> new nucleotides added = _____ of DNA
1. Complementary
| 2. Two identical copies of DNA (are created)
60
Which enzyme unwinds/unzips DNA?
Helicase
61
_____ is an enzyme that elongates the ____ strand of DNA (being made in the same 5’ to 3’ direction as the growing fork).
The ____ strand is made from short, separated segments of DNA
1. DNA Polymerase
2. Leading
3. Lagging
62
In DNA replication, for the lagging strand an
| RNA-primase makes an RNA _____
RNA Primer
63
During DNA replication, the RNA primer is extended as short DNA segments called _______ fragments
Okazaki
64
During DNA replication, after the RNA primer is replaced by DNA, the ______ fragments are joined together by an enzyme called DNA ___________
1. Okazaki fragments
2. DNA ligase
* Quiz Q
65
Five main steps of DNA replication:
1. _______ unwinds parental double helix
2. Single stranded binding proteins _____ DNA
3. Leading strand is synthesized continuously in the ____ direction by ______
4. The lagging strand is synthesized ____. Enzyme called ____ synthesizes a short RNA primer, which is extended by DNA polymerase to form an _____
5. After RNA primer is replaced by DNA, (due to another DNA polymerase), the enzyme ____ joins the Okazaki fragments to the growing strand.
1. Helicase
2. Stabilize
3. 5’ to 3’ direction by DNA polymerase
4. Discontinuously; Primase; Okazaki fragment
5. DNA ligase
66
All of the enzymes and proteins needed to replicate DNA are made during the _____ phase
G1
67
Once DNA is duplicated, it is reassembled into ____
It's reassembled into chromosomes
These are more tightly coiled (due to histones) than before replication
68
After the S phase, the chromosomes are now ____ and are called ___ which are attached to a _____
Duplicated
Sister chromatids
Centromere
69
During the G2 phase, the entire cell prepares for _____ by doing three things:
1. ________ - inherited by mother - 37 genes responsible for inherited diseases
2. ____ of DNA
3. Precursors for ____ form - important for chromosome movement during mitosis
Division
1. Mitochondria division
2. Repairment of DNA
3. Mitotic spindles
70
Key markers of G2 of interphase:
```
Centrosomes present (with centriole pairs)
Chromatin is duplicated
```
71
Mitosis is broken up into how many phases?
5
72
What are the phases of mitosis?
1. Prophase
2. Prometaphase
3. Metphase
4. Anaphase
5. Telophase
73
What is mitosis?
Equal distribution of chromosomes to daughter cells
74
What is cytokinesis?
Is the cytoplasmic division of a replicating cell
| Begins in late telophase
75
When does cytokenesis begin to occur?
Begins in late telophase
76
What are kinetochore microtubules?
They invade nuclear space and attach to kinetochore of sister chromatids
77
What happens in prophase? (Step 1 mitosis)
Chromosomes condense and become visible
Mitotic spindle fibers form as centrioles migrate
Nucleolus disappears
78
What happens during Pro-metaphase?
| (Step 2 mitosis)
Nuclear envelope degrades
Each sister chromatid has a kinetochore
Kinetochore microtubules invade nuclear space and attach to mitotic spindle kinetochores
Polar microtubules push against each other, moving centrosomes apart
79
What are polar microtubules?
They push against each other, moving centrosomes apart
80
What happens during metaphase?
Chromosomes line up along metaphase plate
81
During metaphase, chromosomes line up at ______ equator, known as the __________ or ______ plate
Spindle equator known as the equatorial plate or the metaphase plate
82
During metaphase, the ______ controls entry into the next phase (anaphase) so that mitosis doesn’t proceed until all chromosomes are aligned
This metaphase checkpoint prevents formations of daughter cells with unequal chromosome numbers*
Kinetochore
83
Which checkpoint, during metaphase, prevents formations of daughter cells with unequal chromosome numbers?
Kinetochore attachment by kinetochore microtubules
84
Mitotic microtubules: the ____ ends project away from spindle pole
The ____ ends are anchored at spindle poles (organized by centromeres)
1. Positive ends Project away
| 2. Negative ends anchored at poles
85
Interpolar microtubules from two cell poles _______ at the spindle equator
________ microtubules radiate out from the poles into the cytoplasm
Interdigitate
Astral microtubules = cytoplasm
86
Kinetochore microtubules connect the ______ poles with the kinetochores of sister chromatids
Spindle poles
87
Transition from metaphase to anaphase is regulated by?
Regulated by destruction of B cyclin
88
During anaphase the ________ split, and sister chromatids are moved to opposite side (now considered sister ________)
Centromeres
| Sister Chromosomes
89
During anaphase, _____ shorten to help move sister chromatids.
Astral microtubules are not connected to kinetochore ***
astral microtubules
90
What happens during anaphase?
Chromosomes break at centromeres, and sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell
91
What happens during telophase?
- Nuclear membrane reforms, nucleoli reappear, chromosomes unwind into chromatin.
- Myosin 2 and actin filament ring contract to cleave cell into two
92
During telophase, ___ and ___ filament ring contract to cleave cell in two
Myosin 2 and Actin filament ring
93
In telophase, daughter cells form due to _______
Cytokinesis
94
During telophase, the _____ defines the plane of division
Spindle equator
95
```
To remember Mitosis:
Prophase= P....
Prometaphase= P..m...
Metaphase = M...
Anaphase= A....
Telophase= T....
```
```
Prophase - plainly seen
Prometaphase - pre-middle
Metaphase - middle
Anaphase - apart
Telophase - two new nuclei
```
96
Pneumonic (with Interphase) = IPMAT
I Propose Men Are Toads
Idiot, Pass Me A Tequila
I Passed My Anatomy Test
97
During cell death, from necrosis or apoptosis, the chromatin shrink and aggregate. This is called?
Pyknosis is nuclear shrinkage
When DNA condenses into shrunken basophils mass
98
Apoptosis signals can be initiated by the release of _____ C from _______ that stimulates a _______ cascade
Cytochrome-C
Mitochondria
Caspase
99
In reference to apoptosis, the enzymatic _______ ______ results in cleavage of intracellular proteins, including nuclear ______, and activation of DNA-ase that cleaves DNA
Caspase cascade
| Nuclear lamins
100
```
Bcl-2 family proteins include:
Pro survival (examples:________)
Pro death (ex:________)
```
Pro survival ex: Bcl-2, Bcl-xL
| Pro death ex: Bax, Bad, Bim
101
Bcl-2 family proteins form ____ and ____ complexes that regulate the release of pro-apoptotic factors from the mitochondria (ex: cytochrome c)
Homomeric and heteromeric complexes
102
Cancers grow due to ____, which in part incorporates their ability to inhibit ______ mechanisms
1. Uncontrolled cell growth
| 2. Inhibit apoptosis mechanisms
103
Cancer that metastasizes means it has?
Spread to other areas
104
Aside from a lot of cell division and lack of cell death, one characteristic of most malignancies are ______ _____
Abnormal mitosis
105
Abnormal metaphase is characterized by?
Having four sets of chromatids and four spindles (instead of normal two)
This is called quadripolar mitosis
106
Abnormal mitosis:
| Highly indicative of malignancy marked _____ of surrounding cells also favors malignancy
pleomorphism and hyperchromatism
107
Which tissue type is most abundant in body?
Connective tissue
108
What are 4 distinctive features of connective tissue?
1. Highly vascular
2. Cells far apart (much intercellular material)
3. Many kinds of cells, single, groups, fixed, wandering
4. Matrix can be liquid, jelly, fibrous (strong), or hard
109
Function of connective tissue?
1. Support = stroma of tissue
2. Storage of metabolites
3. Immune and inflammatory responses
4. Tissue repair
110
Three basic components of connective tissue:
1. Cells
2. Fibers
3. Extra cellular matrix (ground substance)
*proportion of these contributes to classification
111
In connective tissue, the extracellular substance (ground substance) serves to:
The ground substance helps:
1. Hold cells together
2. Support cells in CT
3. Give strength and elasticity to tissues
112
Three major groups of connective tissue classification
1. Embryonic conn. tissue
2. Adult conn. tissue
3. Special conn. tissue (ex:adipose, cartilage, bone, hematopoietic)
113
Embryonic connective tissue has two major origins:
Both from mesoderm
1. Hematopoietic stem cell
2. Mesenchyme & Mucous
Mesenchyme = all CT arrises from this tissue. Cells are fuse form and stellate
Mucous (Wharton’s jelly) = supports wall of umbilical cord. Contains stromal mesenchymal cells and hematopoietic stem cells.
114
Mesenchyme is undifferentiated embryonic ________ connective tissue that can migrate and give rise to all other kinds of connective tissue.
It is found within an early developing embryo and consists of irregularly shaped cells lying in a _________, jelly-like matrix.
1. mesodermal
| 2. homogenous
115
Umbilical cords can be a source of _______
Stem cells
Contains Wharton’s jelly (mucous conn. tissue)
116
_______ are the most common cells in connective tissue and maintain most of the tissue’s extra cellular matrix
Fibroblasts
117
Fibroblasts synthesize and ________ extra cellular matrix components:
- Fibers (collagens and elastins
- Ground substance (___, ___, ____)
*Usually somewhat flattened cells
1.Secrete
2. Ground substances
a. Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
b. Proteoglycans
c. Glycoproteins
118
Regeneration of connective tissue can occur due to _______ responding to growth factors.
Fibroblasts
119
After injury, fibroblasts help ‘fill in’ the spaces forming ?
Dense, irregular scar tissue
120
________ are present in wounds that close fast, containing increased amounts of _____ and _____ (like smooth muscle cells)
1. Myofibroblasts
2. Actin
3. Myosin
121
Myofibroblasts are responsible for wound ______
1. Myofibroblasts
| 2. Wound contraction
122
What are three main types of protein fibers?
Collagen
Reticular
Elastic
123
Collagen and reticular fibers are made from proteins of the ____ family.
Elastic fibers are mostly made of ______
1. Collagen family
| 2. Elastin
124
Collagenous fiber is ____ protein found in the body
Most abundant
125
Elastic fibers allow skin, blood vessels, and lungs to ______
Stretch
126
Reticular fibers form ______ for organs
Framework
127
Collagen is a family of proteins that are all ____ and ______ to normal shearing and tearing
Strong and resistant
128
Collagen is a key element in all connective tissue and is found in epithelial ________ membranes and external _______ of muscles and nerve cells.
1. Basement
| 2. Laminae
129
Collagen is most abundant protein, representing _____% of dry weight in humans
30%
130
Collagen is made mostly by ______, with 4 major categories
Fibroblasts
131
4 collagen categories are?
```
Fibrillar collagens (tendons, dermis)
Linking collagens
Anchoring collagens (anchors basal lamina to reticular)
Sheet collagen (major structural protein in laminae)
```
132
There are four categories of collagen. The fibrillar collagen (types 1-3) ______ to form large fibrils. Type ___ is most common forming ____, organ capsules, and _____.
1. Aggregates
2. Type 1 is most common
3. Tendons
4. Dermis
133
There are four categories of collagen. The linking collagen (Type 9, 12, 14) are short and link ______ collagens to each other* and to other parts of extra cellular matrix ECM
Linking collagens link *fibrillar collagens to each other
134
There are four categories of collagen. The anchoring collagen (type 7) binds to _____ collagen.
It anchors the ____ lamina to the underlying reticular lamina in the basement membrane
1. Sheet (type 4)
| 2. Basal
135
There are four categories of collagen. The Sheet collagens (type 4) have subunits produced by epithelial cells and are major _____ proteins of external _____ and ______ laminae of epithelia.
1. Structural
2. Laminae
3. Basal
136
A ____ is a type of scar that is composed of abnormally large amounts of collagen (mostly type__)
Keloid
| Type 1
137
Keloids are more prevalent in which group?
15% more prevalent in highly pigmented ethnic groups
138
_____ is cause due to a lack of vitamin C, which is a required cofactor for ____ and ____ hydrolysis to produce hydroxylproline and hydroxylysine.
These modified amino acids crosslink and stabilize collagens
1. Scurvy
2. Prolyl
3. Lysyl
139
In scurvy, ______ deteriorate and bleed, with loss of teeth. The skin becomes _______. And wounds ______
1. Gums
2. Discolored
3. Don’t heal
140
This disease is known as brittle bone or Lobstein disease.
Osteogenesis imperfecta
141
Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a ______ in the gene for type 1 collagen
Mutation
8 different types
142
Symptoms of Osteogenesis imperfecta include:
Bones fracture easily, brittle teeth, loose ligaments, easy bruising, short stature, postural deviations
*can present with blue scelera, barrel chests, and bowing of long bones**
143
______ syndrome is caused by the defect in the structure, production, or processing of collagen
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
144
Symptoms of Ehlers Danlos syndrome include:
Hyperflexible/ unstable joints, tearing of muscles & tendons, elastic skin or easy bruising, arterial or intestinal rupture, pregnancy complications, pain
145
Reticular fibers (reticulin) consists of ______ collagen type 3 and form a network around adipocytes, smooth muscle, ____ cells, and blood vessels.
Glycosylated
| Nerve cells
146
_______ fibers form the stroma* for soft organs like the liver or spleen.
It can ____ forces applied in different directions
1. Reticular fibers (reticulin)
| 2. Resist
147
_____ is the least specialized type of connective tissue, which is capable of differentiating into several cell types.
Fibroblasts
148
A _____ is the inactive form of fibroblasts
Fibrocyte
149
Reticular fibers are said to be _______ since they are easily stained during silver nitrate processes
Argyrophilic (silver loving)
Fibers appear black after staining
150
Elastic fibers are thinner than type 1 (fibrillar) collagen and form _____ networks interspersed with collagen ________. Branching strands of elastin (protein) and fibrillin (glycoprotein) both made by fibroblasts, ____ and smooth muscle cells
Sparse
Bundles
chondroblasts
151
Branching strands of the _____ protein and the _______ glycoprotein, are both made by:
fibroblasts, chomdroblasts, and smooth muscle cells
1. Elastin
| 2. Fibrillin
152
___ fibers are found in the Mesentary, the dermis and between smooth muscle cells
Elastic fibers
153
_______ (the precursor of elastin), is cleaved and secreted
Proelastin
154
In the extracellular space, _____ tracts with ______ to organize elastic fibers, which aggregate to form bundles of elastic fibers
1. Elastin
| 2. Fibrillins
155
Elastic fibers contain a characteristic but uncommon amino acid __________
Desmosine
156
Two lysine residues are oxidized by _____ _____ to form a desmosine ring* that cross-links two elastin molecules
Lysyl oxidase
157
The cross-linking of elastin fibers enables ______ and _____ of elastin, like rubber bands
Stretching and recoil
158
Elastic fibers are produced during ?
Embryonic and adolescent development
| Not so much in adults
159
Many tissues decrease elasticity with age, particularly in skin causing _________
Wrinkles
160
_______ syndrome is a genetic mutation that causes production of dysfunctional fibrillin, which is a component of _______ fibers
```
Marfan syndrome
Elastic fibers (along with elastin) helps cross-link elastic fibers.
```
161
Marfan syndrome is characterized by a lack of ______ in tissues rich in elastic fibers
Resistance
*multiple signs primarily affecting musculoskeletal and cardiovascular systems
162
4 major parts of the body affected by Marfan syndrome are?
Eyesight - myopic, ocular lense dislocation, retinal detachment
Lungs - pneumothorax (spontaneous collapse)
Cardiovascular - wide aorta, aneurism, aortic valve prolapse/leakage
Skeleton - scoliosis, pectus deformity, tall stature, loose joints
163
Becoming myopic is a symptom of Marfan syndrome. What does myopic mean?
Near sighted
164
Marfan syndrome Can cause what kind of pectus deformities?
Pigeon or funnel chest
165
Ground substance of extracellular matrix:
1. Proteoglycans composed of core proteins and glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) or mucopolysaccarides
2. Glycoproteins
166
The role of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) is to ___ water, help with diffusion, lubricate organs/joints.
1. Trap water
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->
Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate
167
Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) include:
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->
Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate
168
What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan Hyaluronic acid?
Hyluronic acid lubricates joints*
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->
Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate
169
What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan Chondroitin sulfates?
Chondroitin Sulfates offer support in cartilage
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->
Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate
170
What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan Heparan Sulfate?
Heparin Sulfate help with blood coagulation and angiogenesis
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->
Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate
171
What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan Dermatan sulfate?
Dermatan Sulfate is found in skin tendons, heart valves
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->
Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate
172
What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan keratan sulfate?
Keratan sulfate is found in bones and cornea of eye,
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->
Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate
173
Several ______ storage disorders like (Hurler, ____, San Filipino, and ______ syndromes) are due to genetic mutations affecting ______ enzymes that degrade Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs).
1. Lysosomal
2. Hunter
3. Morquio
4. Lysosomal
174
In lysosomal storage disorders, Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) accumulate in tissues causing progressive __________ of different tissues, including ______ _________
1. Deterioration
| 2. Mental retardation
175
______ are core proteins 5at various numbers and combinations of sulfates GAGs are attached.
Diversity is due to differential processing in _______
1. Proteoglycans
2. Golgi apparatus
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
176
Aside from holding water (due to GAGs), _______ also bind and sequester cell signaling proteins, like ______
1. Proteoglycans
2. Growth factors
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
177
________ are degraded during the early phase of tissue repair and release these _____ ______ to stimulate new cell growth and ECM synthesis
1. Proteoglycans
| 2. Growth factors
178
___________ have binding sites for cell surface receptors (example: _______)
1. Glycoproteins
2. Integrins
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->
Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin
179
Glycoproteins play important roles in ________ of cells for substrates.
1. Adhesion
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->
Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin
180
The glycoprotein, ______ , provides adhesion for epithelial cells and binds ________, type IV collagen, and specific proteoglycans
1. Laminin
2. Integrins
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->
Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin
181
The glycoprotein, ______ , provides binding sites for collagens and certain GAGs; important for cell _______ and _______.
1. Fibronectin
2. Adhesion
3. Migration
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->
Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin
182
_______ bind laminin, fibronectin, some collagens, and other components of ECM.
With their intracellular connections to membrane and cytoskeletal proteins, ______ allow cells to monitor their microenvironment (like orientation of cells and fibers)
1. Integrins
2. Integrins
Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->
Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin
183
______ ______ are the external lamina of muscle and nerve cells
Basement membranes
184
________ separate epithelia from connective tissue
Basement membrane
185
The basement membrane is composed of what two layers?
Basal lamina and reticular lamina
*the basal lamina is split into lamina lúcida and lamina densa
186
The basal lamina of the basement membrane is split into two: the lamina _____ and the lamina ______
The former has the glycoprotein _______
The latter has mostly collagen type ______
1. Lúcida
2. Densa
3. Laminin
4. Type 4
Lúcida - laminin
Densa - collagen type 4
187
The reticular lamina has mostly _____ fibers and the glycoprotein ________
1. Reticular
| 2. Fibronectin
188
Basement membranes vary in thickness. The trachea, H&E have _______ basement membranes while the interstitial glands, PAS have _______ basement membranes
1. Thick
| 2. Thin
189
PAS reacts with carbohydrate rich molecules such as perlecan, ______, and type ____ collagen associated with the basement membrane.
1. Laminin
| 2. Type 3 collagen
190
There are 4 key components to the basement membrane:
1. Type 4 collagen —> forms a mesh network
2. Laminin —> binds type 4 collagen and links to receptors
3. Fibronectins —> binds reticular fibers to integrins
4. Heparan sulfates —> angiogenesis
191
Type 4 collagen is a key component of the basement membrane. What is it’s role?
Type 4 collagen forms a mesh network
192
Laminin is a key component of the basement membrane. What is it’s role?
Laminin binds type 4 collagen and links to receptors (like integrins) in the basal plasma membranes of epithelia.
This allows the cell to monitor extracellular environment (signal transduction)
193
Fibronectins are a key component of the basement membrane. What is it’s role?
Fibronectins bind reticular fibers to integrins in the basal plasma membrane of epithelia
194
Heparan Sulfate is a key component of the basement membrane. What is it’s role?
Heparan sulfate promotes angiogenesis
195
The main functions of the basement membrane are:
1. _____/support for epithelial cells
2. Restrict _____ growth of epithelium (can occur with malignant transformation into cancer)
3. Provide ___ and remove ____ (epithelial cells do not have blood vessels)
4. Regulate _____ of molecules b/w compartments (b/w vessels and tissues) especially in kidneys for blood filtration
1. Attachment
2. Inward
3. Nutrients; waste
4. Passage
196
Basement membrane disorder:
- Abnormal growth of mutated epithelial cells (cancer) causes _________
- In people with diabetes mellitus, the basement membrane of the _____ ____ cells thicken, increasing protein permeability (and protein loss in ______)
1. Invasion of local tissue
| 2. Kidney glomerular; urine
197
Basement membrane disorders:
- Alport disease in _________
- _____ ______ distrophy in muscles
- _______ epidermolysis ______ appears blistery in skin
1. Kidneys
2. Congenital muscular
3. Junctional epidermolysis bullosa
198
_________ syndrome is an autoimmune disease attacking the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs, resulting in organ failure
Goodpasture
199
Loose areolar connective tissue can be found in _____ layer of the skin. Scattered ____ are the most common cell. Mostly _______ fibers, but elastic and reticular present too.
Flexible, yet delicate
1. Subcutaneous
2. Fibroblasts
3. Collagen
Connective tissue -> adult CT -> Loose CT
200
Dense regular connective tissue are tightly packed bundles of ______ in parallel arrangement. _______ in rows in between _______ bundles. Tendons are poorly ________ and heal slowly when damaged
Very strong!
1. Collagen
2. Fibroblasts
3. Collagen
4. Vascularized
Connective tissue -> adult CT -> Dense CT -> dense regular
201
Dense irregular connective tissue contain fibers without regular orientation. Located where _____ are exerted in a number of different directions
Ex: ______ region of dermis in skin.
Ex:_______ of bone
Ex:_______ of cartilage
1. Tensions
2. Reticular
3. Periosteum
4. Perichondrium
Quiz Q - Dense reg. CT = tendons
Connective tissue -> adult CT -> Dense CT -> dense irregular
202
The reticular CT contain reticular cells that produce ______ networks. Reticular cells are modified _____. Interlacing reticular fibers form the _____ of lymphoid organs, like: ______ and _____ ____
* leukocytes are commonly seen
* reticular fibers of type 3 collagen shown on slide
1. Fibrous
2. Fibroblasts
3. Stroma
4. Spleen and lymph nodes
Connective tissue -> Adult CT -> Reticular CT
203
________ are specialized cells for fat storage; connective tissue with mostly these cells is ________. Lipid is a cell ________. A signet class ring shape is formed when the _______ and the nucleus are pushed to the periphery of the cell
1. Adipocytes
2. Adipose tissue
3. Inclusion
4. cytoplasm
Connective tissue -> special CT -> adipose tissue
204
The function of adipocytes are storage of neutral fats (_______ and ___ chain fatty acyl esters of _____).
Also acts as shock absorbers, mainly in ______
1. Triglycerides
2. Long
3. Glycerol
4. Soles and palms
205
Adipocytes release hormones, making it an _____ gland. Most adipocytes are part of _____ fat used for insulation.
1. Endocrine
| 2. White
206
3 main hormones affect adipocytes:
- ______ (made by beta cells of pancreatic islets) stimulate uptake of glucose, accelerate synthesis of fatty acids from glucose, increase lipoprotein lipase synthesis, and inhibits hormone sensitive lipase to reduce fatty acid release
- _______ (made by alpha cells of pancreatic islets) promote triglyceride breakdown and release of fatty acids and growth hormone
- _______ (made my adipocytes) is a satiety factor that normally regulates hunger
1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Leptin
207
______ results from excessive adipose tissue formation. Occurs when energy intake ____ energy expenditure.
1. Obesity
| 2. Exceeds
208
Most adult onset obesity involves increased size of existing cells. This type of obesity is called _____
Hypertrophic obesity
209
Childhood obesity involves both increases in adipocyte size and numbers
Hyperplastic obesity
210
Mesenchymal cells produce fibroblasts and preadipocyte cells. Differentiation of peradipocytes lead to _______ adipocytes and _____ adipocytes
1. Multilocular (brown fat)
| 2. Unilocular
211
Brown adipose tissue (multilocular) occurs for the production of heat (thermogenesis). It’s color is due to ____ and _____.
The biggest differences from white fat:
-smaller cells w/ smaller lipid droplets
-mostly found b/w __________ in mediastinum and inguinal regions
-widespread in fetus and infants
1. Rich blood supply
2. Many mitochondria
3. Shoulder blades
212
Patient with multiple fractures of long bones and blueish tint in the sclera of eyes is due to which mutation?
Collagen type 1 molecule mutation
213
Scurvy (bleeding gums, improper wound healing, discolored skin) is caused by mutation in production of?
Hydroxyproline from lack of vitamin C
214
______ fibers can be represented with a black stains from a silver staining
Reticular fibers
215
Scoliosis, funnel chest, elongated appendages, is caused by disfunctional ....?
Fibrillin -> Marfan syndrome
216
Tendon is a ______ connective tissue
Dense regular CT
217
Mesenchymal cells give rise to _______
fibroblasts
218
What are main differences in mitosis when comparing it to meiosis?
Mitosis:
Somatic cell division
Results in formations of 2 daughter cells
Contains a full compliment of chromosomes (diploid) in homologous pairs
219
Meiosis occurs in ______ cells. It involves 2 cell division processes called __________. It results in the formation of ____ haploid daughter cells called _____ (n=23).
A ______ is formed by the fusion of 2 specialized male and female gametes in ______ (n=46)
1. Germ cells
2. Gametogenesis
3. 4 haploid daughter cells
4. Gametes
5. Zygote
6. Fertilization
220
A particular cell has half as much DNA as some of the other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell is most likely in which phase?
G1
221
When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis it results in?
Cells with more than one nucleus
222
During gamete formation, germ cells undergo a special kind of division called _______. It reduces the number of __________ by half
1. Meiosis
| 2. Chromosomes
223
Meiosis is a type of nuclear division found only in _____ cell production in the ____ of sexually reproducing animals
1. Germ cell
| 2. Gonads
224
Meiosis involves how many cellular divisions?
2
Meiosis 1 and 2
225
Meiosis 1 is a _____ in division. The _____ number is halved.
Meiosis 2: when ___ cells divide, they produce _ new cells
Each cell contains a haploid number of ____ stranded chromosomes
1. Reduction; chromosome
| 2. Haploid; 2; single
226
Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces ___ in females and ____ in males
The number of chromosomes doubles during ______ from 46 to 92
By the end of meiosis, there are __ chromosomes and 4 daughter cells
1. Eggs
2. Sperm
3. Interphase
4. 23
227
________ are identical copies of a chromosome joined at the centromere.
______ chromosomes are 2 different copies of the same chromosome
1. Sister chromatids
| 2. Homologous
228
In meiosis 1, the _____ chromosomes separate. It produces two _______ daughter cells with chromosomes.
1. Homologous
| 2. Haploid
229
In meiosis 2, the ______ separate. Producing ____ haploid cells with chromosomes
Sister chromatins separate producing 4 haploid cells
230
Meiosis reduces the number of ______ sets from diploid to ______. Like mitosis, meiosis is preceded by the ____ of chromosomes.
1. Chromosome
2. Haploid
3. Replication
231
Meiosis takes place in two sets of cell division called meiosis 1 and meiosis 2, resulting in ?
Four daughter cells
232
In interphase there are __ number of chromosomes.
In prophase there are ___ number of chromosomes
In Prometaphase the ____ dissolves and microtubules attach to centromeres
1. 46
2. 92
3. Nucleus
233
In metaphase 1, the chromosomes align at the ____
In anaphase 1, separated chromosomes are ____
In telophase 1, ____ disappear and division begins
1. Middle of the cell
2. Pulled apart
3. Microtubules
234
During interphase 2, two cells formed with ____
In metaphase 2, _____ attach at the centromere
In anaphase 2, chromosomes pulled apart to ____
In telophase 2, microtubules disappear and ___ begins
Cytokinesis begins in ____ resulting in _____
1. 46 chromosomes each
2. Microtubules
3. 23 chromosomes
4. Cell division
5. Late telophase
6. 4 cells formed each with 23 chromosomes
235
In males, meiosis produces ___ gametes (sperm)
| In females, meiosis produces ____ (ovum)
```
Males = 4 gametes
Females = 1 gamete
```
236
In prophase, as chromosomes condense and link, _____ occurs.
*this is the first important source of genetic variation
Crossing over
237
In Metaphase, microtubules move homologous chromosomes to the _______ plate. _______ begins to occur
*this is the second important source of genetic variation
1. Metaphase
| 2. Independent assortment
238
_______ precedes meiosis 1, but not meiosis 2. During this, DNA is replicated and condensed to form _______. The single centrosomes replicates forming _______
1. Interphase
2. Sister chromatids
3. Two centrosomes
239
_________ typically occupies more than 90% of the time required for meiosis. In this phase, homologous chromosomes loosely pair up, aligned ____.
Nonsister chromatids exchange DNA segments, this is called _______.
1. Prophase 1
2. Gene by gene
3. Crossing over*
240
_______ is the exchange of regions of non-sister chromatids. This is the first important source of genetic variation.
Crossing over
241
In Metaphase 1, microtubules from each pole are attached to the _______ of one chromosome. **Independent assortment occurs**
kinetochore
242
_______ the random distribution of chromosomes into new daughter cells occurs in metaphase 1 and 2.
Independent assortment
243
In anaphase 1, one chromosome moves toward each pole, guided by the ______. Sister chromatids stay attached at the ______, moving as a unit towards pole.
1. Spindle apparatus
2. Centromere
*microtubukes separate homologous chromosomes (moms chromosome 1 from dads chromosome 1), sister chromatids remain together*****
244
At the onset of _____, each half of the cell has a haploid set of chromosomes; each chromosome consists of sister chromatids.
_____ occurs, forming two haploid daughter cells.
1. Telophase1
2. Cytokinesis
*No chromosome replication or DNA condensing/deco sensing occurs between meiosis 1 and 2
245
In prophase 2 the _______ forms. Chromosomes move towards the _______
1. Spindle apparatus
| 2. Metaphase plate
246
In metaphase 2, sister chromatids are arranged at the ______. Due to _____ in meiosis 1, the sister chromatids of each chromosome are no longer ______
1. Metaphase plate
2. Crossing over
3. Genetically identical
247
In metaphase 2, the _______ of sister chromatids attach to microtubules extending from oposite poles
Kinetochores
248
In _____ 2, sister chromatids separate and move as individual chromosomes to opposite poles
Anaphase 2
249
In ____ chromosomes arrive at opposite poles, nuclei form, and chromosomes decondense*
____ separates cytoplasm.
1. Telophase 2*
| 2. Cytokinesis
250
At the end of meiosis, there are ______ daughter cells, each with a haploid set of _______ chromosomes. Each daughter cell is ____________ from the others and from the parent cell
1. Four
2. Unreplicated
3. Genetically distinct
251
In meiosis cell division, 4 haploid gametes are formed. In males, these each develop into a _______. In females, the ______ in unequally divided so that only one gametes has the cytoplasm from the mother cell. This one gamete cell develops into an ________. The other 3 degenerate and are called ______.
1. Spermatozoon
2. Cytoplasm
3. Ovum
4. Polar bodies
252
In females, germ cells enter prophase 1 during the _____ month of fetal life. They remain suspended until some time after sexual maturity. The 1st meiosis division can be suspended for ___ years!
1. 5th month
| 2. 50 years
253
After _____ of ovum, groups of cells differentiate. Cell division and cell differentiation are balanced by cell death and programmed cell death (_____)
1. Fertilization
| 2. Apoptosis
254
The area inside of the nucleus is called the _______
Nucleoplasm
255
These three organelles are involved in manufacturing protein..
1. Endoplasmic reticulum - surface of rough ER
2. Ribosomes
3. The golgi complex - packages for EC use
256
The endoplasmic reticulum is associated with chemical production and shipping through the ___. Rough ER is also associated with ___ modification or maturation
Smooth ER is associated with ____ synthesis
1. Cytoplasm
2. Protein
3. Lipids
257
________ is a process by which cells absorb metabolites, hormones, other proteins by inward budding of plasma membrane vesicles containing proteins with receptor sites specific to the molecules being absorbed
Clathrin-dependent endocytosis
258
A major function of _____ is the breakdown of long chain fatty acids through beta-oxidation.
Long chain fatty acids are converted to medium chains, which are subsequently shuttled to ________ where they are eventually broken down to ___ and water
1. Peroxisomes
2. Mitochondria
3. CO2
259
_____ produce peroxide, detoxifying alcohol similar to lysosomes except that _____
1. Peroxisomes
| 2. Peroxisomes do not bud from ER
260
Cellular respiration: glucose breakdown takes place mostly in ______. Energy liberated from glucose molecules is captured by _______. Cellular energy production captures ____ of energy contained in glucose. *the rest is given off as heat
1. Mitochondria
2. ATP molecules
3. 30%
261
Lipid synthesis is necessary for _____. They can be used for transportation (ex: ______). Precursor molecules for synthesis are from intermediates of _____.
1. Membrane repair
2. Chylomicrons
3. Glycolysis
262
Lipid biosynthesis: fatty acids and triglycerides cam by synthesized in ______.
Cholesterols and phospholipids are synthesized in ____
1. Cytoplasm
| 2. Smooth ER
263
Cytoskeleton components:
1. _______ dynamic structure, built from actin.
2. ________ for supporting function; determines cell shape
3. ________ dynamic except if highly specialized like in muscle or cilia.
1. Microfilaments
2. Intermediate microfilaments
3. Microtubules
264
Microtubules have rods consisting of _______. The ____ is the organizing center of microtubule. ____ is the name for 9 sets of triplet microtubules arranged in a ring
1. alpha and beta tubulin
2. Centrosome
3. Centrioles
265
____ is a process by which cells absorb matabolites, hormones, other proteins by the inward budding of plasma membrane vesicles containing proteins with receptor site specific to the molecules being absorbed
Clathrin-dependent endocytosis
266
Large molecules and cells are ingested by _____
endocytosis
| *Quiz Q
267
The recycling of cell contents and organelles is called ____
autophagy
268
A major function of ___ is the breakdown of very long chain fatty acids through beta oxidation. They produce ____ which is a detoxifying alcohol
1. Peroxisomes
| 2. hydrogen peroxide
269
cytoskeleton & cell movement:
Microfilament - _____ structure
Intermediate microfilaments - ____ function
Microtubules - ___ except where specialized as in ____
Microfilament - dynamic structure
Intermediate microfilaments - supporting function
Microtubules - dynamic except where specialized as in muscle and cilia
*Quiz Q
270
Microfilaments:
Built from molecules of ___
Part of contractile apparatus of muscle cell
___ motor proteins walk across actin filaments
Has ____ or false feet
1. actin
2. myosin
3. pseudopodia
271
Intermediate filaments:
Determines ___ of cell
Function as framework for cytoskeleton
Shape (ex: RBC)
272
Microtubules:
Rods consisting of ___ and ___.
Organizing center is called ___.
9 sets of triplet microtubules arranged in a ring that helps organize microtubule assembly is called _____
1. alpha and beta tubulin
2. centrosome
3. centrioles
273
A ____ is a cylindrical structure composed mainly of tubulin.
centriole
274
An associated pair of centrioles, surrounded by a shapeless mass of dense material (_____) makes up a centrosome
PCM pericentriole mater
275
Collagen biosynthesis:
| The synthesis of collagen starts in ____ following the typical pathway of ''synthesis for export from the cell''
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
276
Collagen biosynthesis:
| _____ is synthesized with a signal peptide and released as procollagen within the cisterna of RER
Preprocollagen
277
Collagen biosynthesis:
_____ consists of three polypeptide chains (2alpha1 and 1alpha2 type 1 collagen), lacking the signal peptide, assembled in a triple helix
Procollagen
278
Hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine are typically observed in collagen. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues occurs in the RER and requires ____ as a cofactor
Ascorbic acid -Vitamin C
| *Packaging and secretion of procollagen occurs in the golgi apparatus
279
Procollagen with clipped ends = ______
Tropocollagen
280
Elastic fiber synthesis:
____ the precursor of elastin is cleaved and secreted.
In extracellular space, elastin proteins interacts with ___ to organize elastic fibers, which aggregate to form bundles of elastic fibers
Proelastin
| fibrillins
281
Elastic fiber synthesis:
| Elastic fibers contains a characteristic but uncommon amino acid: ____
desmosine
282
Elastic fiber synthesis:
| Two lysine residues are oxidized by ___ to form a desmosine ring that cross-links two elastin molecules
lysyl oxidase
