Week 1 Buzzwords Flashcards

Don't impress mad, you'll regret it :/ (83 cards)

1
Q

What stimulates the production of Thrombopoietin?

A

Liver and Stromal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name two TPO agonists.

A
  • Romiplostim
  • Eltrombopag
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What increases in the kidney due to hypoxia?

A

HIF and thus EPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do Sideroblast granules stain with?

A

Prussian Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do ribosomes in reticulocytes stain with?

A

Methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What stimulates myelopoiesis?

A
  • GM-CSF
  • G-CSF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the first cell in the granulocyte lineage?

A

Myeloblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What platelet count increases the risk of bleeding?

A

<10K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is found in dense granules of platelets?

A
  • ADP
  • Ca
  • Serotonin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is found in alpha granules of platelets?

A
  • vWF
  • Fibrinogen
  • Factor V
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the term for increased reticulocyte count?

A

Polychromasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does RBC entrapment occur in the spleen?

A

Red Pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What abnormality is seen in PBS after splenectomy?

A

Howell-Jolly Bodies

Sickle Cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a characteristic of spherocytes?

A

Lack Central Pallor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does Dacrocytes refer to?

A

Tear Drops

extramedullary hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a codocyte also known as?

A

Target cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are fragmented RBCs called?

A

Schistocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are Burr Cells also known as?

A

Echinocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What condition is associated with Acanthocytes?

A

Abetalipoproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do Heinz Bodies indicate?

A

G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What cell abnormality is seen in both Thalassemia and Sideroblastic anemia?

A

Basophilic stippling

This stippling is due to ribosomal RNA remnants in RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the types of myeloid leukocytes?

A
  • Neutrophil
  • Eosinophil
  • Basophil
  • Monocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is released as a band?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which leukocyte is primarily involved in Type 1 Hypersensitivity?

A

Eosinophil

Eosinophils are key players in allergic reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which leukocyte leaves circulation to become Mast Cells?
Basophil ## Footnote Basophils differentiate into mast cells in tissues.
26
What facilitates unloading oxygen at tissues?
2,3-BPG ## Footnote 2,3-BPG decreases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen.
27
What happens to oxygen release with increased pH?
Decreases oxygen release | An increase in pH shifts hemoglobin to the R-state. ## Footnote An increase in pH shifts hemoglobin to the R-state.
28
Which hemoglobin has the highest oxygen affinity?
HbF
29
What is the backup of 1,3 BPG indicative of?
Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency
30
What is the result of G6PD deficiency?
Buildup of oxidized glutathione ## Footnote This leads to hemolysis under oxidative stress.
31
What does Fe3+ refer to?
Methemoglobin | (cannot bind oxygen) ## Footnote Methemoglobin results from the oxidation of iron in hemoglobin.
32
What is the effect of Methylene blue on Methemoglobin?
It reduces Methemoglobin, not G6PD
33
What condition is associated with backup of succinyl-CoA?
Sideroblastic anemia | (ALA synthase)
34
What is reduced porphobilinogen indicative of?
Loss of ALA dehydratase | (lead poisoning)
35
Why does the buildup of protoporphyrin IX occur?
Ferrochelatase loss
36
What is the urine change in Acute Intermittent Porphyria?
Port-wine urine ## Footnote This coloration is due to porphyrin excretion.
37
What laboratory findings indicate increased iron?
* Increased Ferritin * Decreased Transferrin ## Footnote This pattern is seen in conditions like hemochromatosis.
38
What does IRE-BP bind with high affinity?
mRNA with decreased iron ## Footnote This binding regulates iron metabolism at the translational level.
39
What condition is characterized by growth retardation and severe anemia due to UMP synthase defect?
Hereditary orotic aciduria | leads to orotic acid buildup and affects pyrimidine synthesis
40
What protein brings hemoglobin to macrophages?
Haptoglobin
41
What is best for rare disease confirmation or abnormal cells?
Manual Smear Analysis
42
What is the precursor to heme?
Protoporphyrin
43
What are the laboratory findings in Anemia of Chronic Disease?
* Low TBIC * High Ferritin ## Footnote These findings reflect iron sequestration and reduced availability.
44
What condition involves cell death prior to maturation?
Megaloblastic anemia ## Footnote This anemia is often due to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.
45
What are the characteristics of Aplastic Anemia?
Pancytopenia, normochromic, normocytic -- can be macrocytic ## Footnote Aplastic anemia results from bone marrow failure.
46
What is associated with hypersegmented neutrophils?
Megaloblastic anemia (low B12)
47
What syndrome is characterized by Pure Red Cell Aplasia?
Diamond-Blackfan syndrome
48
What is associated with fibrosis and immature cell release?
Myelophthisic anemia ## Footnote This type of anemia is due to replacement of bone marrow by fibrous tissue.
49
What is Cooley’s Anemia also known as?
B-Thalassemia Major
50
What is the leukoerythroblastic reaction associated with?
Myelophthisic anemia ## Footnote This reaction indicates bone marrow infiltration or failure.
51
Which chromosome is associated with alpha chain Thalassemia?
Chromosome 16
52
What is characteristic of B-Thalassemia Major?
Lots of HbF ## Footnote Patients produce high levels of fetal hemoglobin as a compensatory mechanism.
53
What are the characteristics of B-Thalassemia Intermedia?
Microcytic, hypochromic with HbA2
54
What genetic change leads to alpha Thalassemia?
Gene Deletion
55
What mutation is associated with Sickle Cell Disease?
Chromosome 11 Beta chain point mutation
56
What is seen in B-Thalassemia Minor?
Increased RBC with normal RDW
57
What condition is associated with decreased albumin in alpha Thalassemia?
Hb Barts
58
What is characteristic of HbH Thalassemia?
Crystal violet staining
59
What is Acute Chest Syndrome associated with?
Sickle Cell
60
What is the Sickle Cell Trait ratio?
HbA-HbS
61
What is used for a Sickle Screen?
Metabisulfite ## Footnote This reagent causes sickling in red blood cells containing HbS.
62
What do rectangular crystals indicate?
HbC
63
What is associated with iron accumulation in mitochondria?
Sideroblastic anemia
64
What inheritance pattern does Hereditary Spherocytosis follow?
Autosomal Dominant | Northern European
65
What is Coombs positive and autoimmune related?
WAIHA | Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
66
What is associated with elderly patients, high MCHC, blood stasis, and IgM?
Cold Agglutinin Disease ## Footnote This condition leads to hemolysis at lower temperatures.
67
What can cause Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?
* Burns * Trauma * Marching * DIC
68
What unique finding is in Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria?
Donath-Landsteiner antibody ## Footnote This antibody causes hemolysis upon exposure to cold.
69
What is the causative agent of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria?
Aquired X chromosome mutation ## Footnote This mutation affects GPI anchor proteins, leading to complement-mediated hemolysis.
70
What inheritance pattern is G6PD deficiency?
X Linked Recessive
71
What are the characteristics of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria?
* Loss GPI protein * Macrocytic * Pancytopenia
72
What findings indicate Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency?
High Reticulocyte and neonatal jaundice
73
What is the only blood component collected through apheresis?
Granulocytes ## Footnote Apheresis is a process that selectively collects specific blood components.
74
How much does 1 Unit pRBC raise Hb?
1g/dL ## Footnote This is a general estimate for the effect of transfusion on hemoglobin levels.
75
What is associated with giving the 'least incompatible' transfusion?
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia ## Footnote This condition requires careful matching due to antibody presence.
76
What is a common reaction occurring within four hours of transfusion?
Fever | Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions
77
What the ratio of platets to whole blood unit?
6-pack Platelets | Need more whole blood to get the same amount of platelets (1:6 ratio) ## Footnote Whole blood contains red cells, plasma, and platelets.
78
What conditions are associated with TACO?
CHF or Renal Issue | Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload
79
What type of transfusion reaction occurs with an IgA deficient donor?
Anaphylactic Allergic Transfusion Reactions
80
What prevents allergic reactions in transfusions?
Washed RBCs | Washing removes plasma proteins that may trigger allergies
81
What causes intravascular hemolysis due to clerical error?
Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction | This reaction is often due to ABO incompatibility.
82
What condition is associated with sensitization to HLA?
Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury | This serious complication is linked to donor leukocyte antibodies.
83
What is the term for anamnestic response to previous exposure in transfusions?
Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction | Reaction occurs days - weeks after transfusion d/t 2ndry ab response.