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week 1 revisiom Flashcards

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1
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

A

immediate, IgE mediated

anaphylaxis

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2
Q

immediate IgE mediated hypersensitivity

A

type I

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3
Q

what hypersensitivity type is anaphyaxis

A

type I

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4
Q

what is a type II hypersensitivity reaction

A

IgG or IgM mediated cytotoxic reaction

occurs in hrs to days

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5
Q

IgG or IgM mediated cytotoxic reaction is what hypersensitivity type

A

type II

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6
Q

type III hypersensitivity

A

antigen-antibody complex mediated

takes hrs to weeks

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7
Q

what sort of hypersensitivity is antigen-antibody complex mediated

A

type III

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8
Q

type IV hypersensitivity

A

delayed reaction (24-72hrs)

T cell mediated

e.g. contact dermatitis

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9
Q

whta sort of hypersensitivity is contact dermatitis

A

type IV

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10
Q

delayed T cell mediated reaction

A

type IV hypersensitivity

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11
Q

test for acromegaly

A

serum insulin like growth factor 1

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12
Q

preventitive medication for gout

A

xanthadine oxide inhibitor - allopurinol

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13
Q

CN III palsy + pupilliary signs

A

assume aneurysm of ipsilateral posterior communicating artery

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14
Q

buzzword for scarlet fever rash

A

sandpapery

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15
Q

what is acitinic keratosis

A

benign but precedor to SCC

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16
Q

polymyalgia rheumatica CK result

A

normal

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17
Q

pheochromocytoma + thyroid lump

A

medullary thyroid cancer

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18
Q

what can antihypertensives cause dermatologically

A

lichoid eruption

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19
Q

what are gottrons papules a sign of

A

dermatomyositis

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20
Q

bechets disease triad

A

oral ulcers, genital ulcers, anterior uveitis

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21
Q

what do crystals look like in gout

A

negatively bifrigient needle shaped

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22
Q

what do crystals look like in pseudogout

A

positively bifringient rhomboid shaped

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23
Q

what is deficient in haemophilia A

A

factor VIII

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24
Q

what is deficient in haemophilia B

A

factor IX

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25
diabetic in a hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state. what medication are they on?
a meglinitide
26
treatment of sjogrens
tear and saliva replacement, hypromellose
27
common deficiency in the middle east
iodine
28
do you replace B12 or folate first
B12
29
what does aldosterone do
increase Na+/H2O reabsorption and K+ secretion water follows salt. increases BP as water reabsorption
30
granulomatosis with polyangiitis presentation
lungs, sinuses, kidneys late onset asthma, sinusitis, peeing blood
31
eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis presentation
lungs, sinuses, eosinophils late onset asthma, sinusitis, eosinophilia
32
antibiotic for MRSA
vancomycin
33
claw hand following a medial epicondyle fracture
ulnar nerve
34
wrist drop following humeral shaft fracture
radial nerve
35
where does the scaphoid get its blood supply
distal end
36
what sort of bone is the patella
sesamoid bone - small rounded bone imbedded within a tendon
37
nerve supply of superior oblique
CN IV
38
nerve supply of lateral rectus
CN VI
39
most common thyroid cancer
papillary
40
what is interigo
rash under breasts found in diabetes
41
what is acanthosis nigricans
rash in diabetes
42
where does dermatitis herpetiformis occur
buttocks and lower limbs
43
sore throat and deranged LFTs - whats the dx
EBV
44
enzyme + cofactor =
holoenzyme
45
enzyme - cofactor =
apoenzyme
46
order of primary haemostasis
vasoconstriction, platelet adhesion, platelet activation, platelet aggregation
47
antibody in Graves
IgG
48
what sort of fracture damages axilliary nerve
surgical neck of humerus
49
surgical neck of humerus fracture what can be damaged
axilliary nerve
50
what sort of fracture damages radial nerve
humeral midshaft
51
what sort of fracture damages ulnar nerve
medial epicondyle
52
medial epicondyle fracture what can be damaged
ulnar nerve
53
humeral midshaft fractire what can be damaged
radial nerve
54
what ligament attaches radial head and radial notch of ulna
annular ligament
55
annular ligament
attached radial head and radial notch of ulna
56
what sort of arthritis do you get in IBD
enteropathic
57
where are clotting factors made
liver
58
what ENT sign can be a sign of liver diease
recurrent epistaxis
59
what factors does PT investigate
vit k dependant - 2, 7,9,10
60
whatfactors does appt investigate
intrinsic pathway -(1,2,5,7,9,10,11,12)
61
what percentage is a preserved ejection fraction
>50%
62
what is important to give an actively bleeding pt
FFP
63
what is bilateral vestibular schawannoma a sign of
NF2
64
important investigation in a pneumonia pt and why
u+e - curb 65 score
65
suffix for ARB
-sartan
66
what muscle is paralysed in cubital tunnel
adductor pollicis
67
what is a penicil in cup deformity a sign of
psoriatic arthritis
68
rash on extensors
psoriasis
69
rash on flexors
eczema
70
haem disease scandanavia
hereditary spherocytosis
71
gastrectomy. what deficiency do they have
b12
72
what type of septic arthritis do pwids get
pseudomonas
73
test for bechets
pathergy test
74
test for addisons 1
morning serum cortisol
75
hypocalcaemia causes...
prolonged qt interval chvoteks sign positive trosseau sign positive
76
mx of itp
steroids
77
mx of anati-phospholipid syndrome
warfarin with an inr of 2-3
78
squaring of thumbs on xr
oa
79
what is the commonest secondary cause of hypertension
primary hyperaldosteronism
80
features of MEN1
tumours of the parathyroid glands, endocrine gastroenteropancreatic tract and anterior pituitary
81
features of MEN2a
medullary thyroid cancer, phaeochromocytoma and parathyroid tumour
82
features of MEN2b
marfans, mucosal neuroma
83
epistaxis anatomy
littles area - kiesselbachs plexus
84
what conditions have a positive JAK2 mutation
polycythaemia rubra vera, essential thrombocythaemia, myelofibrosis

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