Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

APA I > Week 2 Pre-op Assessment And Airway Mgmt > Flashcards

Week 2 Pre-op Assessment And Airway Mgmt Flashcards

(46 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is anesthesia?

A

Reversible, drug, induced depression of the central nervous system resulting in loss of response and perception of all external stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What types of anesthesia are there?

A
  • General
  • Regional
  • MAC

*multiple different methods to accomplish similar goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the components of the anesthetic state

A
  • unconsciousness
  • amnesia
  • analgesia
  • immobility

*regional anesthesia breaks this definition slightly, but most components still apply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the common inhaled anesthetics?

A
  • Isoflurane
  • sevoflurane
  • desflurane
  • nitrous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is inhaled anesthesia measured?

A

MAC: MInimun Alveolar Concentration

  • stands for alveolar parietal pressures of a gas in 50% of humans do not respond to surgical stimulus
  • dosing for inhaled anesthesia
  • typically want at least 1 full MAC prior to incision
  • measured at end-tidal concentration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What affects MAC values?

A
  • will change depending on the pt
  • infants will have the highest MAC requirement (even more than neonates)
  • as people get older, MAC values decreases
  • hair color is a factor (females with red hair have a higher MAC value)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what part of the nervous system do inhaled anesthestics work?

A

CNS

  • spinal cord
  • brain stem
    • reticular activating system
  • cerebral cortex
  • GABA receptors subtype - A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the Meyer-Everton Rule?

A

-because inhalation agents act through the lipid-rich CNS cells, anesthetic potency increases with lipid solubility

Higher lipid content for inhaled anesthetic = higher potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the MAC values of main inhaled anesthetics

A

Isoflurane: 1.2% is about 1 MAC

Sevoflurane: 2.0% is about 1 MAC

Desflurane: 6.6% is about 1 MAC

Nitrous: can’t get to 104%, can’t actually get to a full MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the purpose of the pre-op evaluation?

A
  • Standard 1 from AANA
    • CRNA is obligated to complete evaluation
  • you are looking for pt factors that could alter your anesthetic plan and management
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the purpose of the PAC clinic?

A
  • Preanesthetic Assessment Clinic
  • obtain medical history and physical exam
  • promote patient teaching
  • organize and coordinate meeting with other physician appointments relevant to surgery
  • complete any other pre-op diagnostics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some key items to be looked at during chart review pre-op?

A
  • med/surgical history
  • social history
  • anesthesia history (pt and family)
    • MH, PONV
  • medications/herbals
  • labs
  • tests
    • stress test, echos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is acceptable H & H in healthy pt without systemic disease?

A
  • HGB: 7g/dL
  • HCT: 25-30%
  • evaluate and treat each pt individually for the etiology and duration of their anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When are some examples that a coagulation screen is indicated?

A

-pt on anticoagulation, signs of bleeding, esp with doing a spinal or epidural*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are key points in patient interview?

A
  • Name, bday, procedure, allergies, airway, NPO time
  • quick head to toe run through of medical problems
  • establish CRNA-patient relationship
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the purpose of the pre-op assessment?

A
  • establish trusting relationship

- modify parts of your plan to account for the pt risks associated with their co-morbidities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When does an airway assessment need to be done?

A

It needs to be done on every patient, for every procedure, regardless of the anesthetic plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why do we assess the airway?

A

-want to identify patients we may have trouble securing the airway ahead of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are you looking for during an upper airway assessment?

Study These Flashcards
A
  • Mallampati
  • size of mouth opening/able to under bite
  • condition of teeth and surrounding tissue
  • size of mandible and neck
    • thyromental distance
20
Q

What is Cormack view?

Study These Flashcards
A

Grading system commonly used to describe laryngeal view during direct laryngoscopy.

-most glottic opening can be see with grade 1

21
Q

What are oral indicators that a pt may be a difficult airway?

Study These Flashcards
A
  • length of upper incisors: 2 front teeth long with be more difficult
  • relation of maxillary and mandibular incisors during normal jaw closure: over bite/underbite
  • relation of maxillary and mandibular incisors during voluntary protrusion of mandible: can’t do, limited mobility
  • interincisor distance: less than 4cm or 2 finger widths will be more difficult
  • visibility of uvula: difficult if not visible while pt sitting
  • shape of palate: high, narrow=less room. Want to see flat and open
  • compliance of mandibular space
22
Q

What are neck indicators that a pt may be a difficult airway?

Study These Flashcards
A
  • thyromental distance: less than 3 fingerbreadths = difficult
  • length/thickness of neck: short and thick will be difficult
  • ROM of head and neck: pt cannot touch tip of chin to chest or unable to extend neck
23
Q

What is Three Axis Theory/2 Curve Theory?

Study These Flashcards
A

*need to look up

24
Q

What is the ASA definition of “difficult to ventilate”?

Study These Flashcards
A

When signs of inadequate ventilation can not be reversed by mask ventilation or the patient oxygen saturation can not be maintained about 90% with mask ventilation.

25
What is the ASA definition of “difficult to intubate”?
A trained anesthesia provider, using conventional largyoscopy, requires more than 3 attempts or more than 10 minutes to complete tracheal intubation.
26
What percentage of difficult intubation are picked up even with proper evaluation?
Only 15-50%
27
What are some causes of unknown difficult intubation?
- pre-op assessment inadequate - not as skilled anesthetist - malfunctioning equipment - inexperienced assistance
28
What is the “Lemon Law”?
- Look externally - Evaluate the 3-3-2 rule - Mallampati - Obstruction?/Obesity - blood - vomit - teeth - epiglottis - dentures - tumors - impacted objects - Neck mobility - measurement of Atlanta-occipital angle
29
What this the 3-3-2 rule?
3: minimum distance the mouth should open 3: distance from the tip of mandible to the laryngeal cartilage 2: distance from the floor of the mouth to the prominence of the laryngeal cartilage * all distances are measured in fingers
30
What is the thyro-mental distance?
-measure from upper edge of throid cartilage to chin with the head fully extended - a short thyromental distance = an anterior larynx - >7cm is usually = easy intubation - <6cm = difficult airway
31
What are signs a mask ventilation is going to be difficult?
*BONES* - Beard - Obesity - No teeth - Elderly - Snoring
32
What are signs laryngeal visualization is going to be difficult?
Defined by 4 D’s - Disproportion (of facial structure) - Distortion: - Dismobility - Dentition
33
What are the 3 possible options for intubation?
- awake intubation - quick look: bolus of propofol and look - induction and paralysis
34
When would an awake intubation be indicated?
If there is significant risk of complication if sedatives and/or muscle relaxants are administered prior to airway control
35
What are the 2 common techniques of pre-oxygenation?
1. Tidal Volume Breathing (TVB): 100% FiO2 3-5 minutes | 2. Deep Breaths (DB): 4 times within 0.5 minutes. (4 vital capacity breaths at 100%FiO2)
36
Why do we pre-oxygenate?
-removes nitrogen stores in blood and replaces with oxygen. Body can only use O2 attached to hemoglobin. Bc O2 dissolved in blood, hemoglobin can pick up more O2 even though apnic. Pre-oxygenation extends our ability for apnic times
37
When does intubation become an emergency situation?
When you are unable to ventilate or ventilation not adequate
38
What are some tools to assist with difficult intubation?
- LMA - different blades - fiber optic intubation - incubating stylet - tube changer - light wand - blind oral/nasal intubation - invasive airway access - jet ventilation - percutaneous intubation - retrograde intubation - surgical airway
39
What are subglottic interventions and emergency invasive airway access examples?
- needle cricothyrotomy with transtracheal jet ventilation - retrograde intubation - surgical cricothyrotomy - tracheotomy
40
What are some challenges with the unexpected difficult airway?
- experienced help may not be immediately available - special equipment may not be immediately available - a general anesthetic has usually been administered - a long acting relaxant may have been given - backup airway management plans may be poorly thought out
41
What is the purpose of the difficult airway cart?
For unknown/unplanned difficult airway. Have everything you would need (ie: bronchoscope,different tubes, stylets....)
42
What are requirements for tracheal extubation?
- acceptable hemodynamic status - normothermia - ability to maintain a patent airway - adequate muscle strength - adequate respiratory muscles - ability to maintain adequate oxygenation
43
What is STOP-BANG?
Snoring Tired Observed apnea Blood pressure BMI: >35 Age: >50 Neck circumference >40cm Gender: male High risk >3
44
What is ASA class?
*classification system for assessing the fitness of a pt before surgery - class I: healthy pt - class II: mild to moderate systemic disturbance - class III: severe systemic disease that limits activity - Class IV: severe disease that is constantly life threatening - class V: moribund pt, undergoing surgery as a resuscitate effort despite minimal chance of survival - class VI: declared brain dead pt whose organs are being recovered - emergency operation (E): emergency surgery required
45
What is the CRNA role in informed consent?
● The CRNA shall obtain or verify that an informed | consent has been obtained by a qualified provider
46
What are the first 3 standards outlined by AANA?
1. Pre-op assessment 2. Informed consent 3. Constructing a pt specific anesthesia care plan

APA I (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions