Week 3/4 Flashcards
(112 cards)
1
Q
What does the term diploid mean?
A
46 chromosomes. 2 complete sets of chromosomes (1 from each parent)
2
Q
What does 4n refer to in genetics?
A
4 copies of a gene (2 copies from each parent)
3
Q
Which phase of mitosis contains the checkpoint?
A
metaphase
4
Q
How many total checkpoints are in the cell cycle?
A
3 (in G1 phase, end of G2 phase, and metaphase of mitosis)
5
Q
Gametes are haploid which means ____.
A
there are 23 chromosomes in each.
6
Q
How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis in males?
A
4 daughter cells (1n)
7
Q
What does 1n refer to in genetics?
A
there is 1 copy of a gene
8
Q
When does crossing over occur in meosis?
A
prophase I
9
Q
At the end of meiosis I the gametes are __ploid and __n.
A
haploid, 2n
10
Q
What is the yield product of meiosis in females?
A
1 egg and 2 polar bodies
11
Q
This immunosuppressive factor appears in the mom’s plasma within hours of fertilization:
A
Early pregnancy factor
12
Q
The earliest attachment between the embryo and the endometrium typically corresponds to
A
shedding of the zona pellucida
13
Q
The first sign of differentiation of embryo into different cell groups occurs at the stage of
A
blastocyst
14
Q
The first mitotic cell division in the zygote occurs ________ after fertilization
A
30 hours
15
Q
This is the most common site for fertilization
A
ampulla of the fallopian tube
16
Q
____ is an isomer with the same chemical formula except for different configuration at one asymmetric carbon.
A
Epimer
17
Q
____ is an isomer which is a mirror image of one another.
A
Enantiomer
18
Q
____ are cyclic monosaccharides/glycosides that differ in configuration at the hemiacetal or acetal carbon.
A
Anomers
19
Q
Lactose is
A
Galactose B(1-4) glucose
20
Q
Sucrose is
A
glucose a(1-2) fructose
21
Q
Maltose is
A
glucose a(1-4) glucose
22
Q
Isomaltose is
A
glucose a(1-6) glucose
23
Q
Glycogen is linked by ___ bonds and __ bonds connect branches.
A
a(1-4), a(1-6)
24
Q
What type of GLUT transporter is found in RBCs and the brain?
A
GLUT1
25
GLUT1 transporters are ___-affinity
high
26
GLUT2 transporters are ___-affinity and ____-capacity.
low, high
27
Which GLUT transporter is known as the glucose sensor?
GLUT2
28
Which tissues contain GLUT2 transporters?
hepatocytes, pancreatic B-cells
29
GLUT3 transporters are ___-affinity
high
30
This type of GLUT transporter is insulin-dependent and has a high-affinity.
GLUT4
31
GLUT4 transporters are found in
skeletal muscle and adipocytes
32
What is the key and regulated step of glycolysis?
Fructose 6-phosphate --> Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (catalyzed by PFK-1)
33
What are the regulated rxns of glycolysis?
Fructose 6-phosphate --> Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (catalyzed by PFK-1)
Glucose --> glucose 6-phosphate (catalyzed by hexokinase)
PEP --> pyruvate (catalyzed by pyruvate kinase)
34
In which tissues is glucokinase found?
liver and pancreatic beta cells
35
Hexokinase has a ___ Km and ___ Vmax.
low, low
36
Glucokinase has a ___ Km and a ___ Vmax.
high, high
37
Which one is induced by insulin, glucokinase or hexokinase?
glucokinase
38
In glycolysis, fructose 1,6-bisphosphate ___ the enzyme pyruvate kinase.
activates (it ensures glycolysis proceeds efficiently)
39
Name one of allosteric inhibitor of PKA.
ATP
40
What are the 3 main precursors of gluconeogenesis?
glucogenic AAs, lactate, glycerol
41
How do glucogenic AAs enter gluconeogenesis?
converted to pyruvate or OAA
42
How does lactate enter gluconeogenesis?
converted to pyruvate
43
How does glycerol enter gluconeogenesis?
its phosphorylated to G3P by glycerol kinase (ONLY FOUND IN THE LIVER) and further oxidized to DHAP by G3P dehydrogenase
44
What is the first bypass rxn of gluconeogenesis?
pyruvate converts to OAA by pyruvate carboxykinase. OAA then converts to PEP by PEP carboxykinase.
45
NAD+/NADP+ are the biologically active form of _____
niacin/nicotinic acid (Vitamin B3)
46
FAD is the biologically active form of
riboflavin
47
The 5 coenzymes required for PDH cycle include
CoA, TPP, NAD+, FAD, lipoic acid
48
What are the substrates and products of PDH cycle?
Substrates: pyruvate, CoA, NAD+
Products: Acetyl-CoA, NADH, CO2
49
Explain the allosteric inhibition of PDH cycle.
Allosteric inhibition (product inhibition). The products Acetyl-CoA and NADH inhibit the catalytic activity of PDH.
50
If PDH kinase is ON, then is PDH activity ON or OFF?
OFF
51
If PDH kinase is OFF, then is PDH ON or OFF?
ON
52
What regulates PDH kinase activity?
High energy (ATP and NADH) and product accumulation (Acetyl-CoA) will turn ON its activity
53
What regulates PDH phosphatase activity?
insulin and Ca2+ are STRONG STIMULATORS of PDH phosphatase; PDH is ON
54
What is the net yield of one turn of the TCA cycle?
2 CO2, 1 GTP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2
55
How is citrate synthase inhibited in the TCA cycle?
it is competitively inhibited by its product citrate
56
How is isocitrate dehydrogenase regulated in the TCA cycle?
Stimulates: low energy (ADP)
Inhibits: high energy (ATP, NADH)
57
How is alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase regulated in the TCA cycle?
Stimulates: Ca2+
Inhibits: NADH, Succinyl-CoA (its product)
58
What are the anaplerotic rxns of the TCA cycle?
*4 and 5C acids are replenished by degradation of amino acids
*Oxaloacetate is replenished by pyruvate by pyruvate carboxylase
59
Thiamine deficiency is linked to a deficiency in what complex?
PDH complex
60
Coenzyme A is synthesized from which vitamin?
Pantothenate (Vitamin B5)
61
Which complexes in the ETC help establish proton gradient?
Complexes I, III, IV
62
Which complex of ETC is the final e- acceptor?
Complex IV
63
How many protons are pumped across per molecule of NADH and how much ATP is produced as a result?
10 H+; 3 ATP
64
How many protons are pumped across per molecule of FADH2 and how much ATP is produced as a result?
6 H+; 2 ATP
65
What is the total energy yield per oxidation of one glucose molecule?
36-38
66
An inhibitor of the ETC will ____ carriers before and ____ carriers after.
reduce; oxidize
67
What is the effect of uncouplers on ETC?
H+ leak across intermembrane
68
How does oligomycin affect ETC?
inhibits ATP Synthase (Complex V)
69
What does OS stand for?
oculus sinister (left eye)
70
What is right eye in latin?
oculus dextrus (OD)
71
What does OU stand for?
oculus uterque (both eyes)
72
Describe what 20/40 vision is.
20 is the distance the pt is from the chart. 40 is the distance at which a normal eye can read the same line of letters.
73
What are the auscultation spots for the CV exam?
APT M 2245
*2nd intercostal space - aortic valve
*2nd intercostal space - pulmonic valve
*4th intercostal space - triscuspid valve
*5th intercostal space - mitral valve
74
Name the lobes of the lungs.
RUL, RML, RLL, LUL, LLL
75
Grading reflexes
*4+ = very brisk w/ clonus
*3+ = brisker than average
*2+ = normal
*1+ = low normal
*0 = no response
76
A unilateral conductive hearing loss will lateralize to the ____ side.
affected
77
A unilateral sensorineural hearing loss will lateralize to the ____ side.
normal
78
What are the direct products of the TCA cycle?
1 GTP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2 CO2
79
The Na+/K+ pump is always located on the ____ side of the cell.
basolateral
80
Na-K-2Cl cotransporter (NKCC2) is an example of a ____.
symporter
81
Lipids in the stomach are broken down into diglycerides and fatty acids by the enzyme ____.
gastric lipase
82
Emulsification by a bile helps to
increase the surface area of the hydrophobic lipid droplets
83
Bile is produced by the ___ and stored in the ____.
liver; gallbladder
84
Which enzymes help remove fatty acids from lipids in the small intestine?
pancreatic lipase, cholesteryl esterase, phospholipase
85
After micelles are absorbed by enterocytes, the contents are reassembled into ___, ____, ____, and ____.
TAGs, CEs, Phospholipids, and fat-soluble vitamins
86
In the enterocyte, the reassembled TAGs, CEs, PLs are packaged into ____.
chylomicrons
87
Chylomicrons are ___-rich.
TAG
88
The unique lipoprotein present on surface of chylomicron is called ____.
Apo B48
89
The other two lipoproteins along with Apo48 are called ___ and ___, which come from HDL.
ApoE, and ApoCII
90
LPL breaks down TAG in chylomicron into ___ and ____.
fatty acids; glycerol
91
Chylomicron remnant is rich in ____.
cholesterol
92
The surface receptors on hepatocytes recognize which lipoprotein on chylomicron remnant?
ApoE
93
CKK (Cholecystokinin) ____ gastric motility and ____ the gallbladder and pancreas.
decreases; stimulates
94
_____ stimulates pancreas and liver to secrete bicarbonate which will neutralize pH of chyme
secretin
95
Acetyl-CoA from mitochondria needs to convert to ____ in order to cross the membrane into the cytosol where FA synthesis can occur.
citrate
96
In the 1st step of FA synthesis, acetyl-CoA converts to ____ by the enzyme _____.
malonyl-CoA; Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase (ACC)
97
____ catalyzes the addition of malonyl-CoA to the growing fatty acid chain.
fatty acid synthase (FAS)
98
In a fasted state, glucagon ____ AMPK which turns ____ ACC.
stimulate; off
99
In a fed state, insulin will ___ fatty acid synthesis.
stimulate
100
In a fed state, insulin will _____ AMPK which turns ____ ACC.
dephosphorylate; on
101
___ and ___ are needed to make TAG.
glycerol and fatty acids
102
In the liver, glycerol comes from ___ or ____.
glycolysis; direct phosphorylation
103
In the liver, fatty acids come from ____ or ____.
lipogenesis; released lipids from adipose
104
In adipose tissue, glycerol can only come from ____.
glycolysis
105
TAGs are synthesized in the ____ (fed state) and ____ (fed and fasted state).
adipose; liver
106
The liver secretes TAGs in a particle called ____.
VLDL
107
VLDL has a special lipoprotein on its surface called ____.
Apo B-100
108
This idea's goal is to improve medical outcomes of a group of individuals.
population health
109
The idea's goal is to improve the health of the community
public health
110
____ activities include health promotion, early detection, disease management.
population health
111
____ activities include assessment, creating policy and enforcing laws.
public health
112
