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SK298 - Brain, the mind & mental health > Week 4 - The biology of the developing nervous system > Flashcards

Week 4 - The biology of the developing nervous system Flashcards

1
Q

At fertilisation what is the name of the cell that is formed by the fusing of the egg and sperm?

A

Zygote

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2
Q

What is a zygote?

A

The single cell created by the fusion of sperm and egg where genetic material from each is combined

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3
Q

What does diploid mean?

A

A cell that carries two complete paired sets of chromosomes

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4
Q

What term do we use to refer to two complete paired sets of chromosomes?

A

Diploid

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5
Q

What is the term for reproductive cells?

A

Gametes

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6
Q

How many sets of chromosomes do gametes have?

A

One

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7
Q

What is the name given to a cell which only carries one set of unpaired chromosomes?

A

Haploid

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8
Q

What does haploid mean?

A

A cell that only has one set of unpaired chromosomes

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9
Q

When the genetic material of a cell is replicated and the cell has divided, what is the name for the two n ew cells that are formed?

A

Daughter cells

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10
Q

What are daughter cells?

A

The two new cells which are created as a result of the process of cell division

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11
Q

What is the term for any cell other than reproductive cells?

A

Somatic cells

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12
Q

What are somatic cells?

A

All cells other than gametes?

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13
Q

What are the two main phases of the cell cycle?

A
  • Interphase
  • Mitotic phase
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14
Q

What is the name for the sequence of events which occurs leading and up to somatic cell division?

A

Cell cycle

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15
Q

What happens during the interphase part of the cell cycle?

A

The cell prepares to divide

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16
Q

What happens during the mitotic phase of the cell cycle?

A

Division occurs

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17
Q

What are the three subphases of interphase called?

A
  • G1
  • S
  • G2
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18
Q

What happens during the G1 stage of the cell cycle?

A

The cell becomes highly active and prepares for division by replicating many of its organelles and synthesising proteins

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19
Q

What is the name for the stage of the cell cycle where the cell replicates its DNA so that there are two complete copies available?

A

The S phase

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20
Q

What happens during the G2 stage of the cell cycle?

A

Division occurs

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21
Q

What is the name for the final stage of the interphase part of the cell cycle?

A

G2

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22
Q

What part of the cell cycle occurs after the G2 stage?

A

The mitotic phase

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23
Q

What are the names of the two processes of the mitotic phase of the cell cycle?

A
  • Mitosis
  • Cytokinesis
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24
Q

What is mitosis?

A

The part of the cell cycle where the nucleus divides

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25
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

The part of the cell cycle where the cytoplasm divides

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26
Q

What are the four stages of mitosis?

A
  • Prophase
  • Metaphase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
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27
Q

What is the order of the four stages of mitosis?

A
  • Prophase
  • Metaphase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
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28
Q

At the end of the mitotic stage of cell division, the cell has divided and two new cells are formed. What is the name for those new cells?

A

Daughter cells

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29
Q

After dividing, what two things may the cell do?

A

It may either re-enter G1 and divide again, or pause

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30
Q

What is the G0 stage of cell division also known as?

A

The quiescent phase

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31
Q

What happens to the cell during the quiescent phase of the cell cycle?

A

Nothing, it has paused dividing

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32
Q

Is there a limit to how long a cell may remain in the G0 or quiescent phase of the cell cycle?

A

No

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33
Q

DNA is replicated in which phase of the cell cycle?

A

S phase

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34
Q

During the mitotic phase of cell division, what two things occur?

A
  • Mitosis
  • Cytokinesis
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35
Q

What happens during the prophase part of mitosis?

A

Chromatin fibres shorten and condense in order to form chromosomes

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36
Q

What are chromatids?

A

Two identical copies of a chromosome, joined at the centromere, that are involved in cell division

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37
Q

What is the name for the specialised region on a chromosome which serves as the attachment point for spindle fibres during cell division?

A

A centromere

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38
Q

What is the name for the protein complex which surrounds the centromere?

A

The kinetochore

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39
Q

What happens during the prophase stage of mitosis?

A

The copied DNA condenses into chromosomes, which are made up of two identical sister chromatids

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40
Q

What are sister chromatids?

A

Two identical copies of a chromosome, joined at the centromere, which are produced during DNA replication and separated during cell division

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41
Q

What is the name for the two identical copies of a chromosome which are produced during DNA replication?

A

Sister chromatids

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42
Q

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope begin to break down?

A

Prophase

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43
Q

What happens to the chromosomes during the metaphase stage?

A

They line up along the centre of the cell

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44
Q

Why do chromosomes line up along the centre of the cell during the metaphase stage of mitosis?

A

To ensure that when they split, each daughter cell receives an equal and complete set of genetic information

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45
Q

In the anaphase stage of mitosis, what occurs?

A

The sister chromatids are pulled apart, towards opposite ends of the cell

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46
Q

How are the sister chromatids pulled apart during the anaphase stage of mitosis?

A

By spindle fibres that attach to the centromere of each chromatid

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47
Q

What is the name for the stage of mitosis where the nuclear envelope reforms

A

Telophase

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48
Q

What is a nuclear envelope?

A

A double membrane that encloses the cell’s nucleus, regulating material flow in and out of the nucleus

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49
Q

What do we call it when a cell physically divides into two separate daughter cells?

A

Cytokinesis

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50
Q

When a cell divides and two identical copies of the cell are produced, what do we call this?

A

Symmetrical division

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51
Q

What does the term cytokinesis refer to?

A

The cell membrane pinching in around the middle of the cell and the cell splitting in to two daughter cells

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52
Q

Which is the most important type of cell division?

A

Asymmetrical

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53
Q

What is the zygote called when it reaches the 16-cell stage of development at around day 4?

A

A morula

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54
Q

What is a morula?

A

The ball of cells that reaches the uterus at around day 3-4 post-fertilisation

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55
Q

What is the name for the ball of cells at the stage that it implants into the wall of the uterus?

A

A blastocyst

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56
Q

What is a blastocyst?

A

The ball of cells which implants into the uterine wall

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57
Q

What is it that makes the blastocyst different from a morula?

A

It has two different types of cells within it

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58
Q

What is the name of the outer layer of the blastocyst?

A

The zona pellucida

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59
Q

What type of cells make up the outer layer of the blastocyst?

A

Trophoblast cells

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60
Q

What do trophoblast cells go on to become after the blastocyst implants into the uterus?

A

The placenta

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61
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

The formation of three distinct tissue source layers via cell diversification

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62
Q

Which type of cell division is necessary for cell diversification?

A

Asymmetrical

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63
Q

What do ectoderm cells go on to become?

A
  • Skin
  • Hair
  • The lining of structures such as the nose and mouth
  • The nervous system
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64
Q

What do mesoderm cells go on to become?

A
  • Muscles
  • Skeleton
  • Blood
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65
Q

What do endoderm cells go on to become?

A

The lining of the digestive tract, respiratory tract and bladder

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66
Q

What type of cells do each of the three layers formed during gastrulation go on to form?

A
  • Ectoderm cells
  • Mesoderm cells
  • Endoderm cells
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67
Q

Around roughly how many days post-fertilisation does the nervous system start to develop?

A

18 days

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68
Q

The development of the nervous system begins shortly after which other process has occurred?

A

Gastrulation and the generation of the ectoderm layer

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69
Q

The developing nervous system arises from a layer of ectoderm known as the what?

A

The neural plate

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70
Q

What is the first step of the developing nervous system?

A

The formation of the neural groove

71
Q

What is the structure which lies underneath the lower surface of the neural tube?

A

The notochord

72
Q

What structure plays a key role in aiding diversifying and migrating cells finding their way around the body?

A

The notochord

73
Q

How does the notochord help diversifying and migrating cells find their way around the body?

A

By signalling the midline

74
Q

What is the position of the notochord?

A

Underneath the neural tube

75
Q

The backbone of the developing embryo is formed from which structure?

A

The notochord

76
Q

What does the notochord provide?

A

Signalling molecules that cause cells to diversify into motor neurons

77
Q

Where in the neural tube do motor neurons form?

A

In the ventral region, via development of an area called the floor plate

78
Q

What orientation does ventral refer to?

A

Bottom or lower

79
Q

In humans, where in the body is the ventral part of the spinal cord?

A

Towards the front of the body

80
Q

What is the Sonic hedgehog gene?

A

The gene that encodes one signal used by the notochord to help cells orient themselves during development

81
Q

What are neural tube defects (NTDs)?

A

Congenital conditions that occur when the neural tube does not close which leaves the neural tissue exposed to the amniotic fluid

82
Q

What is the name for the congenital conditions that occur when the neural tube does not close, leaving neural tissue exposed to amniotic fluid?

A

Neural tube defects

83
Q

If the neural tube fails to close properly and neural tissue is exposed to amniotic fluid, what happens to the neural tissue?

A

It eventually dies

84
Q

Around how many babies per year are estimated to be born with neural-tube defects?

A

Around 300,000

85
Q

What are two conditions that can be caused by failure of the neural tube to close properly?

A
  • Anencephaly
  • Spina bifida
86
Q

What is anencephaly?

A

A severe congenital condition in which a large part of the skull is absent, along with the cerebral hemispheres of the brain

87
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

A congenital condition in which part of the spinal cord and its meninges are exposed through a gap in the backbone, caused by the neural tube failing to close properly

88
Q

How many types of spina bifida are there?

A

Three types

89
Q

What are the three types of spina bifida?

A
  • Spina bifida occulta
  • Meningocele spina bifida
  • Myelmeningocele
90
Q

Which is the most serious type of spina bifida?

A

Myelomeningocele

91
Q

What type of physical defect occurs due to myelomeningocele spina bifida?

A

A sac of fluid protrudes from the baby’s spine, and part of the spinal cord is present in the sac in a damaged state

92
Q

What can be a risk factor for spina bifida?

A

Low levels of the micronutrient folic acid in the diet of the mother

93
Q

By roughly how much can taking folic acid supplements reduce the risk of spina bifida?

A

About 70%

94
Q

Although spina bifida is not considered a mental health condition, some sensory and cognitive symptoms may occur. What are they?

A
  • Numbness in areas of the skin
  • Poor hand-eye coordination
  • Concentration problems
  • Short-term memory problems
95
Q

What is a genotype?

A

The genetic constitution of an individual organism

96
Q

What is the term for variation in the risk of a health condition as a result of an environmental factor?

A

A gene-environment interaction

97
Q

What does heritability refer to?

A

Population variation, rather than individual risk

98
Q

What does heritability determine?

A

The extent to which the variation of a particiular characteristic (in a population) can be determined purely by genes

99
Q

What does a heritability value of 1 mean?

A

That all of the variation in a population is determined by genes

100
Q

What does a heritability value of 0 mean?

A

That none of the variation in a pop ulation is determined by genes

101
Q

What mostly determines a condition which has a heritability value of 0.85?

A

Genes, because the value is close to 1 (or 100%)

102
Q

Which parts of the developing nervous system are most likely to be damaged by maternal alcohol consumption?

A

The brain and spinal cord cells

103
Q

In Western countries, around how many pregnancies are thought to be affected by FASD (fetal alcohol spectrum disorders)?

A

1 in 500

104
Q

Of all the possible substances of abuse that may be consumed by a pregnant woman, what substance can have the. most serious and wide-ranging consequences on a developing baby?

A

Alcohol

105
Q

What are some of the characteristic facial features that FASD may cause?

A
  • Flattened nose bridge
  • Lack of ridge that should be characteristic of the upper lip
106
Q

What condition/s can FASD be misdiagnosed as in early childhood?

A
  • Autism spectrum disorder
  • ADHD
107
Q

What are some of the cognitive and behavioural problems which children with FASD may have?

A
  • Language deficits
  • Attention problems
  • Social problems such as difficulty making friends
  • Problems with sensory integration
  • Poor reasoning
108
Q

What are neuromeres?

A

The segments in the developing nervous system

109
Q

What is segmentation?

A

The process by which distinct sections or segments within the neural tube develop

110
Q

What are the names of the three neuromeres which initially form during segmentation?

A
  • Prosencephalon
  • Mesencephalon
  • Rombencephalon
111
Q

The forebrain is formed from which neuromere?

A

Prosencephalon

112
Q

The midbrain is formed from which neuromere?

A

Mesencephalon

113
Q

The hindbrain is formed from which neuromere?

A

Rombencephalon

114
Q

How many segments are formed at the second stage of segmentation?

A

Five

115
Q

What are the names of the five secondary segments?

A
  • Telencephalon
  • Diencephalon
  • Mesencephalon
  • Metencephalon
  • Myelencephalon
116
Q

Of the first three segments which are formed, which goes on to form the midbrain?

A

Mesencephalon

117
Q

The hindbrain is formed from which of the initial three segments?

A

Rhombencephalon

118
Q

The forebrain is formed from which of the three initial segments?

A

Prosencephalon

119
Q

Which of the initial segments then forms the telencephalon?

A

Prosencephalon

120
Q

What are the three segments formed during segmentation known as?

A

Neuromeres

121
Q

What is cell fate?

A

The final identity or type of cell at the end of its cell lineage

122
Q

What is cell lineage?

A

The history of a differentiated cell traced back to the original cell from which it developed

123
Q

What does the term totipotent mean?

A

It describes a cell that is capable of becoming any type of cell within an organism, including placental cells

124
Q

At what stage during development does cell division change from symmetrical to asymmetrical?

A

Around day 5 post-fertilisation

125
Q

What are pluripotent cells?

A

Cells which are able to become almost any cell in an organism aside from placental cells

126
Q

If a cell can become any kind of cell in an organism other than a placental cell, what is it known as?

A

Pluripotent

127
Q

If a cell can become any kind of cell in an organism including a placental cell, what is that cell known as?

A

Totipotent

128
Q

What else are pluripotent cells in a developing embryo known as?

A

Embryonic stem cells

129
Q

What are embryonic stem cells?

A

Pluripotent cells found in the developing embryo

130
Q

What are the inner cells in a blastocyst known as?

A

Either embryonic stem cells or pluripotent cells

131
Q

What are progenitor cells?

A

Cells that become a specific type/s of cell

132
Q

Which have a more restricted fate, progenitor cells or multipotent cells?

A

Progenitor cells

133
Q

What are bipotential progenitor cells?

A

Cells that can become one of two types of cell

134
Q

In the nervous system, what type of cells are produced by bipotential progenitor cells?

A
  • Neurons
  • Glial cells
135
Q

What is a neuroblast?

A

An embryonic cell that will become a neuron

136
Q

What is neurogenesis?

A

The process by which new neurons are created

137
Q

What is the neurotransmitter used by the neurons that die in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dopamine

138
Q

For how many specific purposes are human embryos allowed to be created ex vivo and stored for research purposes?

A

Four

139
Q

What are the four purposes for which a human embryo is allowed to be created ex vivo and stored for research?

A
  • Improving understanding of embryonic development processes
  • Improving detection and understanding of human disease
  • Developing treatments for human disease
  • Promoting advances in understanding of miscarriage, techniques of contraception, and treatment of infertility
140
Q

What are radial glial cells?

A

A type of glial cell in the developing nervous system that provides a structural scaffold for migrating neurons to move along

141
Q

Which condition may be connected with differences in the precise patterning of cortical layers?

A

Autism spectrum disorders

142
Q

What are the names given to the ridges and grooves that create the wrinkled appearance in the cortex?

A
  • Gyri are the ridges
  • Sulci are the grooves
143
Q

How many layers can the adult cerebral cortex have?

A

Six

144
Q

What are the main differences in human cortical regions than in animals?

A

Humans have a larger number of cortical areas and a denser interconnected cortical network

145
Q

What is the outer subventricular zone (oSVZ)?

A

A developmental region of the ventricular zone in the developing nervous system that is unique to primatesq

146
Q

Which part of the developing ventricular zone is unique to primates?

A

The outer subventricular zone (oSVZ)

147
Q

What is radial migration?

A

Migration which occurs in a perpendicular direction to the ventricular surface

148
Q

If cells migrate in a perpendicular direction to the ventricular surface, what type of migration is that known as ?

A

Radial migration

149
Q

Cells in radial migration move in a perpendicular direction. What other direction may cells migrate in?

A

Tangential

150
Q

Can a cell move in more than one type of direction?

A

Yes

151
Q

What is the outer edge of the developing neural tube known as?

A

Pial surface

152
Q

What is the pial surface?

A

The outer edge of the developing neural tube

153
Q

What is the name fot the process that occurs when the nucleus of a migrating cell moves into the leading arm?

A

Nuclekinesis

154
Q

What is nucleokinesis?

A

The process by which a cell’s nucleus is actively moved within the cell

155
Q

When does nuclekinesis often occur?

A

During cell migration or neuronal development

156
Q

What is the term for the use of chemical cues as a guide during cell migration?

A

Chemotactic guidance

157
Q

What is chemotactic guidance?

A

The directed movement of cells in response to chemical gradients

158
Q

What is the name for the arm which neurons extend during neuronal migration?

A

Leading process

159
Q

What is the chemical known as semaphorin 3A used for?

A

It is used by neurons to determine how far away from the pial surface they are?

160
Q

What are neuronal processes?

A

Thin, elongated extension of neurons that transmit signals to other neurons or cells

161
Q

Dendrites do what?

A

Receive signals

162
Q

Axons do what?

A

Transmit signals

163
Q

What is a growth cone?

A

An area at the end of a leading process of a neuron that moves through the surrounding tissue during development

164
Q

What does the term neurites refer to?

A

Both axons and dendrites

165
Q

What are filopodia?

A

Small projections from growth cones of migrating cells that sense the surrounding environment

166
Q

What are the small projections around the growth cone that detect chemical signals?

A

Filopodia

167
Q

What is synaptogenisis?

A

The formation of new synaptic connections

168
Q

What is the term for the formation of new synaptic connections?

A

Synaptogenisis

169
Q

The ribosome in a cell does what?

A

Make proteins

170
Q

Proteins are made by which component of a cell?

A

The ribosome

171
Q

How does the ribosome get the instructions it needs to begin making the proteins that will be involved in neuronal communication?

A

Through mRNA, which transcodes the coded instructions from DNA and carries that to the ribosome

172
Q

What is the key molecule for signalling synaptogenisis?

A

Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)

173
Q

What is brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)?

A

A key molecule for signalling synaptogenisis and neurogenisis

174
Q

If the activity of BDNF (brain-derived neurotrophic factor) is reduced, what is the outcome?

A

The activity of neurogenisis and synaptogenisis decreases

SK298 - Brain, the mind & mental health (19 decks)

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