week 8 - nervous system Flashcards

(170 cards)

1
Q

functions of frontal lobe

A

responsible for motor control and is involved with retention of long term memories
involved in determining mood and emotions

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2
Q

functions of parietal lobe

A

The parietal lobes can be divided into two functional regions. One involves sensation and perception and the other is concerned with integrating sensory input, primarily with the visual system. The first function integrates sensory information to form a single perception (cognition)

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3
Q

what separates the frontal and parietal lobes

A

central sulcus

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4
Q

functions of occipital lobe

A

it is the main visual cortex and is where dreams are developed and processed

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5
Q

functions of temporal lobe

A

responsible for hearing and interpretation of speech and hearing

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6
Q

functions of cerebellum

A

controls movement specifically coordinating movements

involved with maintenance of posture in space and maintenance of muscle tone

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7
Q

components of the brainstem

A

midbrain
pons
medulla oblongara

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8
Q

functions of brainstem

A

relay tract for motor and sensory systems
also where cranial nerves arise to supply motor and sensory innervation to face and neck
involved in controlling the cardio-respiratory systems

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9
Q

how many of each vertebrae do we have

A
cervical - 7
thoracic - 12
lumbar - 5
sacral - 5 fused 
coccyx - 3 to 5
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10
Q

what information passes through the dorsal root

A

sensory afferent fibres of spinal nerves

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11
Q

what information passes through the ventral root

A

motor efferent fibres leaving from the ventral gray horn

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12
Q

what is white matter primarily composed of

A

myelinated axons

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13
Q

what is grey matter primarily composed of

A

neurons (cell body, axons, dendrites) and supporting cells (glia)

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14
Q

what does the dorsal root ganglion contain

A

composed of the cell bodies of afferent neurons

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15
Q

what is a nerve plexus

A

a collection of nerves that supply specific body regions

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16
Q

what does the brachial plexus supply

A

goes on to provide motor and sensory innervation to the upper limb

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17
Q

spinal origin of brachial plexus

A

comes from C5 through to T1

sometimes there is a contribution from C4 and T2

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18
Q

what is a dermatome

A

area of skin innervated by the sensory fibres of a single spinal nerve

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19
Q

how many spinal nerves

A

31 pairs

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20
Q

clinical significance of dermatomes

A

can give an indication of the level of the spinal cord where damage may be
a lesion of just a single spinal nerve however would rarely give numbness over that area due to overlap of innervation

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21
Q

how many cranial nerves

A

12 pairs

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22
Q

name the cranial nerves and their functions

A
  1. Olfactory - smell
  2. Optic - vision
  3. Oculomotor – eye movements
  4. Trochlear – eye movements
  5. Trigeminal – motor to muscles of mastication and general sensory to the face
  6. Abducens – eye movements
  7. Facial – muscles of facial expression
  8. Vestibulocochlear – hearing and balance
  9. Glossopharyngeal – swallowing, taste
  10. Vagus – wandering nerve supplying heart, lungs, gut – reduces heart rate, reduces breathing, increases gut motility – nerve of rest and digest
  11. Spinal accessory – neck muscles
  12. Hypoglossal– muscles of the tongue
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23
Q

what do the cranial nerves supply

A

head and neck structures as well as the gut, heart and respiratory system

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24
Q

three meninges in order of deep to superficial

A

pia mater
arachnoid mater
dura mater

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25
function of meninges
They provide a supportive and structural framework for the vasculature, and also protect the CNS from mechanical damage, aided by the cerebrospinal fluid
26
what is contained in the lateral ventricles
cerebrospinal fluid
27
where does venous blood from the brain drain to
dural venous sinuses and ultimately to the internal jugular veins
28
from what vertebral levels does the sympathetic nervous system arise
T1-L2
29
origins of the parasympathetic nervous system
cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X and S2-4
30
where does the spinal cord terminate in an adult
L2 approximately
31
what is the clinical relevance of the termination of the spinal cord at a higher vertebral level
A sample of cerebrospinal fluid can be taken (to examine for infection eg meningitis) after the spinal cord terminates. Generally, this is taken from the space between L3/4 or L4/5 to ensure no damage is done to the spinal cord
32
function of corpus callosum
responsible for communication between the two cerebral hemispheres
33
hypothalamus function
responsible for homeostasis
34
thalamus function
primarily functions as a relay centre for fibres passing up to the brain and down to the rest of the body regulation of consciousness and alertness
35
components of the peripheral NS
spinal and cranial nerves
36
what separates the 2 brain hemispheres
groove called the longitudinal fissure
37
what are the wrinkles on the brain
Brain is folded into gyri (ridges) and sulci (grooves in between) – helps increase surface area in the space limiting skull
38
what is the telencephalon
cerebrum
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diencephalon components
thalamus and hypothalamus
40
mesencephalon
midbrain
41
what do the telencephalon and diencephalon make up
the forebrain
42
glial cells and their functions
astrocytes - involved in nutrient supply to neurons in CNS microglia - defence role; phagocytic ependymal cells - involved in production of CSF oligodendrocytes - neuronal support and myelin formation in the CNS schwann cells - neuronal support and myelin formation in the PNS
43
dendrite function
specialised to receive chemical signals from the axon termini of other neurons Dendrites convert these signals into small electric impulses and transmit them inward, in the direction of the cell body
44
describe myelin
the layers of fatty tissue around an axon | protects, insulates and allows faster propagation of nerve impulse
45
describe the nodes of ranvier
gaps found within myelinated axons- they speed up propagation of action potentials along the axon
46
describe the central canal of the spinal cord
it is a hole in the middle of spinal cord and is surrounded by ependymal cells
47
what are denticulate ligaments
paired ribbon-like extensions of pia mater that attach to dura mater
48
what is the filum terminale
pia mater extensions that stabilise spinal cord
49
describe the point where the spinal cord ends
Conus medullaris is where the spinal cord ends – surrounded by lumbosacral roots collectively referred to as cauda equina – L1-L2
50
describe the cauda equina
Nerve rootlets comprised of L2-5 cauda equina sits in a space called the lumbar cistern which is a space formed by the subarachnoid space. It extends from the conus medullaris to S2
51
two layers of dura mater
periosteal and meningeal
52
which spinal nerve does not have a dermatome and why
C1 does not have a dorsal sensory root and so has no dermatome associated with it it has a motor root which supplies neck and muscles
53
3 classifications of PNS nerves
pseudounipolar neuron multipolar neuron autonomic multi-polar neuron
54
describe a pseudounipolar neuron
has one extension from its cell body and it splits into 2 branches - one goes peripherally and the other centrally
55
describe a multipolar neuron
single axon and has many dendrites - typically motor neurons
56
describe an autonomic multi-polar neuron
there is a synapse between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neuron comes from the lateral horn
57
variations of neuron
unipolar, bipolar and multipolar
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what kind if neuron is a sensory neuron
unipolar
59
difference between grey and white matter
grey has more cell bodies, dendrites, axon termini, astrocytes and blood vessels white has more axons (myelinated), glial cells (oligodendrocytes), blood vessels
60
name of a group of neurons
called a nucleus in the CNS and a ganglion in the PNS
61
what is a cortex
neurons that are organised into layers and are usually found on the surface of the CNS
62
functions of the dorsal and ventral horn
Within the gray matter the dorsal horn receives and processes sensory information from the dorsal roots, whereas the ventral horn is primarily a motor structure and contains the motor neurons whose axons project out via the ventral roots
63
location of CSF
it fills the ventricular system, a series of interconnected spaces within the brain, and the subarachnoid space directly surrounding the brain
64
what are subarachnoid cisterns
CSF circulates through the subarachnoid space surrounding brain and spinal cord. Regions where these spaces are expanded are called subarachnoid cisterns.
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describe spinal cord tracts
bundles of nerve fibres that run up/down and can contain autonomic, sensory and motor fibres
66
types of spinal cord tracts
``` spinothalamic = ascending and sensory corticospinal = descending and motor ```
67
what are dural venous sinuses
spaces between the endosteal and meningeal layers of the dura they contain venous blood that originates for the most part from the brain or cranial cavity the sinuses contain an endothelial lining that is continuous into the veins that are connected to them
68
function of CSF
cushions brain against impact/movement and against its own weight provides a stale chemical environment for the brain allows nutrient and waste exchange between nervous tissue and blood
69
production of CSF
Most produced by choroid plexus in lateral and fourth ventricles Resorbed into venous system via arachnoid granulations
70
structural features of the blood-brain barrier
restriction is at least partly due to the barrier action of the capillary endothelial cells of the CNS and the tight junctions between them Astrocytes may also help limit the movement of certain substances
71
two parts of the human nervous system
somatic (we have active control over) and autonomic (we do not control)
72
which cortex's does the frontal lobe contain
motor cortex - involved in planning and coordinating movement prefrontal cortex - responsible for higher-level cognitive functioning
73
describe brocas area
region in the frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere, usually the left, of the brain with functions linked to speech production
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two parts of the ANS
central and peripheral
75
two parts to the peripheral NS
sympathetic and parasympathetic
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function of the parasympathetic NS
responsible for the body's rest and digestion response when the body is relaxed, resting, or feeding it decreases respiration and heart rate and increases digestion
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function of the sympathetic NS
it directs the body's rapid involuntary response to dangerous or stressful situations
78
where do preganglionic neurons arise from (SNS)
lumbar and thoracic regions of spinal cord
79
describe the SNS process
preganglionic fibres go to sympathetic ganglia chain - some fibres synapse immediately, some travel up or down ganglia first and some pass through the chain without synapsing (synapse at collateral ganglia instead) from ganglia, the postganglionic fibres run to target organs
80
where do preganglionic neurons arise from (parasympathetic NS)
brainstem and sacral region of spinal cord
81
describe the process of the PSNS
preganglionic neurons exit from cranial nerves and spinal cord
82
neurotransmitters in SNS
preganglionic neurons use acetylcholine | postganglionic neurons use noradrenaline except in sweat glands and deep muscle veins when it uses acetylcholine
83
types of receptors in the SNS and their functions
alpha 1 - causes arteriole constriction alpha 2 - causes venous and coronary vasoconstriction beta 1 - increases heart rate and increases contractility beta 2 - causes smooth muscle relaxation
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agonist
mimics the action of a recptor
85
antagonist
these oppose the action of a receptor
86
examples of alpha 1 agonist drugs
metaraminol pseudoephedrine phenylephrine
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alpha 1 antagonist drug
doxazosin
88
alpha 2 agonist drugs
anti-erectile dysfunction drugs
89
b1 agonist drug
isoprenaline
90
b2 agonist drug
salbutamol
91
when are b2 antagonist drugs used
only in lab - no clinical use
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actions of the PSNS
Pupillary constriction – improves near vision Nasal engorgement – maximises sensory absorption Excess salvation – aids digestion Increased gastric secretions and blood flow Slow heart rate down Bronchoconstriction Micturate, defecate and ejaculate
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origin of SNS
thoracolumbar except for cervical ganglia
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origin of PSNS
origin has two parts - cranial and sacral Cranial is made of the 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th nerves Sacral is 2, 3, 4
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neurotransmitter for PSNS
acetylcholine
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3 ganglia associated with the vagus nerve
cervical, thoracic and coeliac ganglia
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muscarinic receptors
G-coupled protein receptors involved in the parasympathetic nervous system
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functions of the muscarinic receptors
M1 - affects arousal attention and emotional response M2 - cardiac inhibition M3 - lacrimal, salivary M4 - direct regulatory action on K and Ca ion channels M5 - may regulate dopamine release at terminals within the straitum
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M1 agonist drug
xanomeline - potential treatment of alzheimers and schizophrenia
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receptors of the PSNS
muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
101
describe nicotinic receptors
receptors that respond to acetylcholine | also respond to nicotine
102
B1 antagonist drugs
these bind to receptors and block it (beta blockers) | atenolol - lowers bp and heart rate
103
what does brainstem death lead to
paralysis and unconsciousness apnoea loss of cranial nerve function
104
coning of the brain process
pressure build up and causes a decrease in the blood flow swelling of brain forces the brain through small opening at the base of skull where it meets the spinal cord restricted blood supply to brainstem
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brainstem blood supply
single blood vessel called basal artery
106
what condition is a result of damage to the basal artery
locked-in syndrome - can think and move eyes but cannot speak or move
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brainstem death example tests
9th – spatula at back of throat and patient should gag for 5th nerve – brush cotton wool against cornea – should cause blinking test for oculomotor cranial nerve – opening eyes, shining light and looking for consensual reflexes
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guided therapy
used in mild infections when you can wait a few days before treatment allows best antibiotic to be selected
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empirical therapy
used when a delay in therapy results in worsening of condition
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prophylactic therapy
used when healthy people are exposed to surgery, injury or infected material used in immunocompromised patients preventing infection before it begins
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types of antibiotic
bactericidal - directly kills bacteria and sterilises area | bacteriostatic - bacteria remain in medium but are dormant
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example of bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics
bactericidal - penicillin | bacteriostatic - clarithromycin
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which classes of antibiotics target cell walls
penicillins and glycopeptides
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classes of antibiotics that target ribosomes
macrolides | aminoglycosides
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classes of antibiotics that target DNA
quinolones
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classes of antibiotics that target metabolism
trimethoprim
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what group of antibiotics do penicillins belong to
beta-lactum group | these drugs are chemically produced derivatives of naturally occurring beta-lactums
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how do penicillins work
they target penicillin binding proteins which are present in or around peptidoglycan cell wall - penicillin inserts into binding site of penicillin binding proteins and prevents peptidoglycan synthesis
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3 principal mechanisms of antibiotic resistance
mutation/modification of target site inactivating enzymes limit access eg. reduced permeability
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how is resistance passed on in bacteria
genes mediating resistance can often easily be transferred – often found on plasmids which bacteria pass onto each other
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what is adrenaline
a hormone produced by the adrenal glands in situations of acute stress
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when is adrenaline produced
stimulation of SNS causes adrenal medulla to produce adrenaline
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effects of adrenaline
increases heart rate and respiration | mobilises blood glucose stores
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where is adrenal medulla derived from
embryonic neural crest cells | rest of adrenal gland is derived from mesoderm
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adrenaline signalling process
adrenaline binds to and activates a g-protein coupled receptor
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how do g-proteins work
g-proteins only active when bound to GTP g-protein-coupled receptors use large heterotrimeric g-proteins an activated g-protein activates downstream effector proteins GTPase activating protein and regulators of g-protein signalling cause hydrolysis of GTP to GDP
127
effects of g-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) activation
alpha subunits in particular (but also beta and gamma) can target multiple different effector proteins when activated - can activate or inhibit targets directly or indirectly some GPCRs work through producing second messenger molecules
128
describe adrenaline signalling and glucose release in muscle and liver cells
adrenaline binds to GPCR triggering activation of g-protein alpha subunit which activates adenylyl cyclase which produces cAMP cAMP activates protein kinase A this leads to glucose production and inhibition of glycogen synthesis
129
what 2 things does activated protein kinase A do
PKA phosphorylates and activates phosphorylase kinase which phosphorylates and activates the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase which catalyses breakdown of storage molecule glycogen, to produce glucose PKA also phosphorylates and inhibits the enzyme glycogen synthase so glycogen synthesis cannot occur
130
switching the signal off (adrenaline signalling)
when adrenaline is no longer present, signalling process must be switched off g-protein alpha subunit hydrolyses GTP to inactive GDP (cannot activate adenylyl cyclase so no new cAMP produced) cAMP removed by phosphodiesterases calcium ions acting as second messengers can be actively removed by using ion channel pumps
131
what is a nerve impulse
wave of altered charge across nerve cell membrane that sweeps along axon aka. Depolarisation or action potential
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direction of travel for Na and K ions in a cell
sodium is the main EXTRAcellular ion - can diffuse into cell potassium is the main INTRAcellular ion - can diffuse out of cell sodium potassium pump actively pumps out 3 Na ions and takes in 2 K ions
133
refractory period
time following action potential when no new AP can be initiated in same area of the membrane - blocks action potential travelling backwards
134
two segments of the refractory period
absolute RF - sodium channels that caused initial depolarisation are closed and cannot be activated relative RF - sodium channels can work but because it would be starting from a hyperpolarised -90mV, it is hard to reach the threshold voltage for an AP
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when do the different channels open
voltage-gated – changes in membrane potential ligand-gated – specific ligand binding to receptor mechanically-gated – tension in membrane leakage – opens randomly – only channels open at rest
136
why is the resting potential of a neuron negative (less positive)
more Na+ ions outside the cell than K+ ions in cell sodium/potassium pump uses energy from hydrolysis of ATP to pump 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ into cell ions can pass through membrane through leakage channels - membrane is more permeable to K+ than Na+
137
describe myelin (on a neuron)
fatty substance that insulates a neuron, blocking depolarisation current travels through the myelinated stretches of a neuron and depolarises the membrane only at the nodes of ranvier – myelin increases the speed of transmission
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how can an action potential be triggered in a neuron
some stimuli can directly activate the nerve cell or a neurotransmitter from a nearby neuron can bind to a receptor on the nerve cell - receptor activation causes ion movement that triggers an AP in first neuron
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excitatory pre-synaptic potenitals
inputs that increase plasma membrane potential making it more likely that the threshold voltage will be met and an action potential generated
140
inhibitory pre-synaptic potentials
decrease plasma membrane potential making it less likely that the threshold voltage will be met and an action potential generated
141
describe the two types of summation
spatial - summation of inputs from different areas such as from different dendrites temporal - same input occurs multiple times within a short time period - not enough time for the change in potential that was caused by first wave to fall/rise bacl to resting potential before second wave of input hits - with an excitory input, threshold voltage for AP can be reached quicker
142
what are synapses made of
a presyntaptic nerve axon terminus and a postsynaptic nerve dendrite with a gap (synaptic cleft) between
143
neurotransmitters
(bio)chemical signals that neurons use to cross the synaptic cleft
144
describe signalling across the synapse with a neurotransmitter
released when AP reaches presynaptic neuron termini, then it diffuses across the synaptic gap binds to receptors on dendrites of postsynaptic neuron different NTs associated with different nervous system functions NT can be excitatory or inhibitory
145
chemical classifications of NTs
amino-acids and derivatives - e.g. glutamate and GABA catecholamine (monoamines) - derived from Tyr eg. dopamine, serotonin acetylcholine - derived from choline peptides eg. substance P, endorphins
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where is glutamate found
main excitatory NT in CNS
147
where is GABA found
main inhibitory NT in CNS
148
GABA signalling process
GABA binds to GABA-A receptor which is an ion channel - binding causes conformational change that opens chloride ion channel ions move through channel along conc. gradient GABA released from presynaptic neuron into synapse - diffuses across cleft and binds to GABA-A receptor in post-synaptic neuron membrane Neurotransmitters can be removed from synapse: Reuptake of neurotransmitter through specific reuptake transporters Presence of specific enzymes which chemically degrade the NTs
149
signalling pathway for acetylcholine at NMJ
AP travels down axon, Ach released from axon termini and diffuses across gap, binds to the nicotinic Ach receptor (sodium ion channel receptor) on postsynaptic muscle cell membrane (motor end plate)
150
difference between introns and exons
exons – kept when coding for proteins | introns – do not take part in translation
151
why is the protein coding region smaller than the RNA coding regio
some of the RNA is not translated and instead can be either a cap addition site (adds a protective nucleotide on the end of mRNA) or a polyA addition site which adds lots of nucleotides to protect the end of the mRNA
152
describe the 3 steps of transcription
Initiation: RNA polymerase II comes to the start of gene, DNA strands pulled apart Elongation: RNA gets longer and it forms a transcription bubble Termination: RNA synthesis stops
153
processing of primary mRNA
Primary RNA transcript includes introns Processing occurs in nucleus RNA splicing is the removal of introns by spliceosome mRNA has a cap and polyA tail – exported to cytoplasm for translation
154
what are transcription factors and what do they do
proteins that bind very tightly to short and very specific sequences of DNA to affect the rate of transcription (positively or negatively) determine how much protein is made from each gene
155
examples of transcription factors
p53 and E2F in cell cycle nuclear hormone receptors (ligand dependant transcription factors) - glucocorticoid receptor, oestrogen receptor, testosterone receptor, retinoic acid receptors
156
how is transcription initiated
a transcription initiation complex (TIC) needed RNA II polymerase cannot bind directly to DNA so general or basal transcription factors act as bridge - these TFs bind to sequences of DNA called the TATA box and are usually found slightly before the start sites for transcription promoters are sequences of DNA that proteins initiating transcription bind to TFs on upstream enhancer elements further stabilise TIC
157
disease from mutation CCR5 promoter
affects rate that HIV progresses to AIDS
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mutations in factor IX promoter lead to
haemophilia B
159
what regulates transcription
enhancers and silencers these are DNA sequences where transcription factors bind to affect rate of transcription enhancers make it more likely that promoter will be activated, silencers make it less likely
160
example of activators in gene expression
p53 - activator of transcription of p21 causing cell cycle arrest and DNA repair E2F - activator of transcription of genes needed for S phase
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examples of repressors in gene expression
p53 - repressor of transcription of survivin causing apoptosis Oct-1 - repressor of transcription of thyroid stimulating hormone in all cells apart from thyrotrophs in the pituitary
162
how does DNA being closed regulate gene expression
nucleosomes keep DNA closed meaning the DNA is not accessible to TFs super enhancers called locus regions can open chromatin spanning several genes
163
examples of constitutive genes
beta-actin (microfilaments) ribosomal proteins general/basal TFs
164
what are constitutive genes
Constitutive genes = housekeeping genes | have a constitutive promoter
165
what are inducible genes
genes which are only expressed in certain tissues or cells and are only expressed at certain times
166
examples of inducible genes
cell specific -CD4, CD8, collagen 1 and 2, globin, myelin | time specific - cyclins, melatonin, inflammatory cytokines
167
describe alternative splicing
Exons stay in the same order but different exons are used to make different mRNAs and proteins from same gene
168
clinical relevance of the genome
can look at genome and check whether they are expressing a normal protein or a mutated version
169
clinical relevance of the transcriptome
can identify signalling pathways acting in the cell/tissue | can differentiate between different diseases
170
clinical relevance of the proteome
can be profiled and used for diagnosis, prognosis and treatment selection