weird beans Flashcards
(264 cards)
1
Q
which type of arrhythmia is high risk for associated abnormalities
A
bradycardia (<100bpm)
2
Q
microcalcification in the __ is an EICF
A
papillary muscle
- LV most common
3
Q
EICF increased risk of trisomy __
A
13
if mother >35y also slight risk of 21
4
Q
what is the most common of all congenital malformations
A
congenital heart disease
5
Q
congenital heart disease associated with trisomy __
A
18 (99%)
13 (90%)
21 (50%)
6
Q
levocardia aka
A
situs solitus
normal heart position and axis
7
Q
mediastinal shift
A
heart displaced
normal axis
8
Q
dextroposition
A
heart displaced to the right
normal axis
9
Q
dextrocardia
A
apex to the right
heart in right chest
10
Q
which view is helpful for assessing transposition of great vessels
A
long axis outflow tracts
11
Q
cardiac anomalies seen in 4CH view
A
atrial septal defect
ventricular septal defect
atrioventricular defect
small left ventricle
enlarged right atrium
intracardiac masses
12
Q
what is the most common form of ASD
A
ostium secundum (near the foramen ovale)
13
Q
an ostium __ is located inferior to the foramen ovale
A
ostium primum
14
Q
where is the sinus venosus ASD located
A
near the SVC
15
Q
VSD associated with __
A
chromosomal anomalies
DM
16
Q
atrioventricular septal defect aka
A
endocardial cushion defect
atrioventricular canal malformation
17
Q
associated anomaly with AVSD
A
trisomy 21 (40%)
18
Q
small left ventricle aka
A
hypoplastic left heart
19
Q
hypoplastic left heart associated with __
A
coarctation of aorta
- stenosis, atresia, mitral valve atresia
20
Q
which cardiac anomaly will you see hypertrophied LV wall
A
hypoplastic left heart
21
Q
coarctation of the aorta high association with which chromosomal anomaly
A
Turner syndrome
22
Q
Ebstein anomaly aka
A
enlarge right atrium
23
Q
what causes ebstein anomaly
A
downward displacement of the tricuspid valve leaflets (can be near the moderator band)
50% have other heart defects
24
Q
benign tumour of striated muscle; although can be extra cardiac, this is the most common cardiac mass
A
rhabdomyoma
25
sono appearance of rhabdomyoma
hyperechoic
usually multiple
can be intra or extra cardiac
26
rhabdomyomas often associated with __
tuberou sclerosis (angiofibroma, epilepsy, intellectual disability)
27
causes of rhabdomyoma
congestive heart failure
pericardial effusion
hydrops
fetal demise
28
cardiac anomalies seen in outflow tract views
overriding aorta
tetralogy of Fallot
truncus arteriosus
complete transposition of great vessels
double outlet right ventricle
29
aorta positioned over a VSD instead of over the LV
overriding aorta
30
with an overriding aorta, the aorta is displaced to the __
right
31
overriding aorta associated with __
tetralogy of Fallot
32
tetralogy of Fallot
overriding aorta
VSD
RVOT/pulmonary stenosis (small PA)
RV hypertrophy
33
if the PA looks smaller than the Ao in the 3vv, what is the likely concern
pulmonary stenosis
* tetralogy of Fallot
34
single arterial trunk arising from the heart
truncus arteriosus
35
truncus arteriosus can be difficult to differentiate from a severe __
tetralogy of Fallot
36
if you only see 2 vessels in the 3vv what might you be dealing with
truncus arteriosus
37
if the great vessels do not cross, but run parallel in the outflow tract views, what might be the problem
complete transposition of the great vessels
* Ao arises from RV and PA from LV
* normal atrioventricular connections
38
when the PA and most of the Ao arise from the RV
double outlet right ventricle
***VSD present
*great vessels may run parallel to each other
*similar to overriding aorta but with stenosis to the PA
39
failure of fetal heart to adequately pump blood throughout fetus
fetal congestive heart failure
40
end stage cardiac failure results in __
hydrops
41
causes of fetal congestive heart failure
arrhythmia
anemia
CHD
cystic hygroma
42
sono features of fetal congestive heart failure
hydrops
cardiomegaly
abnormal myocardial function
Doppler findings in umb v and artery
43
decreased AC:HeartC ratio
cardiomegaly
44
why is the abnormal closure of ductus arteriosus before birth NOT a catastrophic event
foramen ovale still open
still causes strain on baby
45
why might the ductus arteriosus close prematurely
certain drugs
*indomethacin (rx for premature labour)
*NSAIDS
46
causes for fetal hepatomegaly
isoimmunization
TORCH infection
47
causes for fetal liver calcification
most idiopathic
also
- tumours
- TORCH infections
- vascular accidents
48
cause for fetal splenomegaly
isoimmunization
infections
overgrowth disorders (Beckwith-Wiedemann)
49
hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly, visceromegaly, macrosomia, macroglossia, omhalocele
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
50
cariosplenic syndromes
asplenia
polysplenia
51
does non-visualization of the GB indicate anomalies
not necessarily
52
treatment for cholelithiasis or sludge seen in fetal gb
none, may resolve
expectant after birth
53
ddx of choledochal cyst
duodenal atresia
54
most common malignant tumour in fetus
neuroblastoma of adrenal
55
a persistent right umbilical vein typically __ the left UV
replaces
* though may coexist
56
which way does a persistent right UV course in relation to the in SAX
'poking' the stom
*curves toward stom
*GB seen to the left of the UV
57
persistent right UV connects with the __ and curves __ the stomach
connects with the right portal vein
curves TOWARD the stomach
58
what are likely causes of echoes seen within fetal stomach
blood in amniotic fluid (swallowed)
third trimester (prominent rugae, venix caseosa)
59
stomach dilatation could suggest __
gastric outlet obstruction
* duodenal atresia
* pyloric/gastric atresia
60
what is the prognosis of isolated situs inversus
good if isolated
* complete transposition of thoracic and abdominal organs and great vessels
61
what is frequently associated with partial situs inversus
cardiac and splenic anomalies
62
causes for small bowel obstruction
atresia
midgut volvulus (malrotation)
intussusception
cystic fibrosis (meconium ileus)
** may result in bowel perforation
63
1/3 of small bowel obstructions occur in the __
jejunum or ileum
64
sono appearance of small bowel obstruction
dilated fluid-filled loops of bowel >7mm
enlarged stomach
(with high level obstructions)
increased peristalsis
polyhydramnios
(with high level obstructions)
65
what is the most common form of intestinal atresia and is highest resulting in obstruction
duodenal atresia
66
duodenal atresia associated with ___
trisomy 21
67
sono features of duodenal atresia
'double bubble' sign
+/- polyhydramnios
* usually > 24w GA
68
if the bubbles do not connect in the 'double bubble' sign, what is the dx
NOT duodenal atresia
69
distal ileum obstructed with muconium, associated with cystic fibrosis
meconium ileus
70
sono features of meconium ileus
dilated, ECHOGENIC, fluid filled loops of bowel
+/- polyhydramnios
71
reactive, sterile chemical peritonitis secondary to small bowel perforation
meconium peritonitis
72
sono feautres of meconium peritonitis
intraperitoneal calcifications
ascites (usually echogenic)
+/- polyhydramnios
73
termination (closure) of the anal canal
anorectal atresia
74
anorectal atresia associated with __
VACTERL syndrome
**any 3 of:
Vertebral anomalies
Anal atresia
Cardiac anomalies
Traceo-Esophageal abnormalities
Renal/urinary anomalies
Limb defect
75
what is VACTERL syndrome
any 3 of:
Vertebral anomalies
Anal atresia
Cardiac anomalies
Traceo-Esophageal abnormalities
Renal/urinary anomalies
Limb defect
76
dilated rectosigmoid colon (tubular cystic structure in posterior pelvis) and some VACTERL anomalies -- likely dx?
anorectal atresia
77
the higher the atresia in the bowel, the greater the risk of __
polyhydramnios
(altered swallowing)
78
tracheoesophageal fistula and VACTERL syndrome are associated findings of __
esophageal atresia
79
sono findings of isolated esophageal atresia
stomach not visualized
polyhydramnios
blind ended, fluid filled pouch in the neck
**often not seen until >28w GA
80
sono features of esophageal atresia WITH tracheoesophageal fistula
stomach usually seen
polyhydramnios in 1/3
pouch sign (cystic structure in pharynx area)
81
82
83
echogenic bowel pitfalls
high frequency transducer
can be normal in 3rd trimester (meconium)
84
common causes/associations of echogenic bowel
trisomy 21 (also 13, 18, Turner)
intra amniotic bleeding
abnormal bowel
cystic fibrosis
CMV (TORCH infection)
IUGR
85
abnormal ascites within the peritoneal cavity (if seen) will be __ to the abdominal muscles and ribs
deep
86
herniation of abdominal organs into base of umbilical cord after 12w GA
omphalocele
87
lab findings with omphalocele
increased MSAFP
* covered with membranes; considered OPEN because not covered with skin
88
trisomy 18 and cardiac abnormalities are most prevalent associations of __
omphalocele
89
omphalocele that only contains bowel is considered __ risk
higher
90
sono appearance of bowel alongside omphalocele
normal; not thickened
91
IUGR, clenched hands, cardiac anomalies, CPC, NTD, hydrocephalus, CDH, omphalocele
trisomy 18
92
trisomy 18 markers
IUGR, clenched hands, cardiac anomalies, CPC, NTD, hydrocephalus, CDH, omphalocele
93
contents of a 'giant' omphalocele
liver and bowel
increased risk of dystocia so csec required
94
associated sundromes with omphalocele
trisomy 18
beckwith wiedmann
cloacal exstrophy
pentalogy of Cantrell
meckel-gruber
trisomy 13
trisomy 21
polyploidy
95
normal cord insertion, cleft defect with extrusion of bowel to the RIGHT
gastroschisis
96
lab findings with gastroscisis
increased MSAFP
no covering membrane
97
appearance of bowel with gastroschisis
free floating in amniotic fluid
may be thickened
common for bowel obstruction
98
sono features of gastroschisis
no limiting (covering) membrane
sometimes includes liver (rare)
50% of fetuses small for dates
99
associations with gastroschisis
rare association with other anomalies or syndromes
often isolated finding
100
syndromes associated with anterior andominal wall defects
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
Pentalogy of Cantrell
101
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
placental endocrine dysfunction with
omphalocele
macroglossia
macrosomia (hepatosplenic visceromegaly)
microcephaly
102
Petalogy of Cantrell
** very rare
ectopia cordis (heart outside chest)
abdominal wall defect (most commonly omphalocele)
disruption of distal sternum
disruption of anterior diaphragm
disruption of diaphragmatic pericardium
103
sono features of pentalogy of Cantrell
mid-anterior abd wall defect
ectopic heart
PE and PCE
craniofascial anomalies
ascites
2VC
may be associated with chromosomal anomalies
104
bladder exstrophy
bladder and related structures are turned INSIDE OUT
skin ABSENT in lower abd wall
105
inside of bladder exposed to amniotic fluid
bladder exstrophy
106
mass inferior to CI; bladder not visualized
bladder exstrophy
107
failure of development of primitive cloaca -- results in convergence of GI and GU tracts
cloacal exstrophy
108
cloacal exstrophy aka
omphalocele-extrophy-imperforate anus-spinal defect
OEIS
109
single opening on peritoneum inferior to CI; non visualization of lower GI or GU tracts
cloacal exstrophy
110
what is a cloaca generally
a single opening
111
body stalk anomaly aka
limb-body wall complex
112
absence of umb cord and gross externalization of abd and thoracic contents
body stalk anomaly
speculated cause - early alteration of blood flow and/or amnion rupture
113
large ventral wall defect of chest and abd, usually to LEFT side; short/absent umb cord, marked scoliosis, craniofascial anomalies, limb defects, amniotic bands
body stalk anomaly
114
which ventral wall defect site is superior to umbilicus
pentalogy of Cantrell
115
AFP screening aka
MSAFP
maternal serum alphafetoprotein
** a normal protein produced in fetal liver and found in maternal blood
116
MSAFP levels are elevated with __ defects
OPEN
highest concentration with placental abnormalities
most commonly seen with NTD and abd wall defects
117
lab values with defects covered by membranes
MSAFP elevated because membranes are not skin
considered OPEN defect
ie. omphalocele, myelomeningocele, encephalocele
118
lab values of defects not covered by membranes
highest MSAFP
SEVERE OPEN defect
ie. gastroschisis, myeloschisis
119
what is the membrane that covers an omphalocele
amnion
120
amniotic band syndrome
bands that stick, entangle, and disrupt fetal parts
range of congenital malformations including abd wall defects
121
indications for prenatal diagnosis
advanced maternal age
abnormal MSAFP or triple/quad/five screen test
previous child with chromosomal defect
previous child or family hx of NTD
family hx of genetic disease
122
how are fetal cells obtained for karyotyping
chorionic villus sampling
amniocentesis
cordocentesis (PUBS)
123
what is the distribution of the AFP screening
fetal serum (FSAFP)
maternal serum (MSAFP)
amniotic fluid (AFAFP)
124
when is the optimum time for MSAFP screening
16w GA
reporting standard: multiple of the median (MoM)
125
what is the MoM of MSAFP
0.5-2.4 MoM
126
causes of elevated MSAFP
unexplained (normal fetus)
*most common
incorrect dates
multiples
placental anomaly
fetal anomaly (open defect, teratoma, Turner syndrome)
127
neural-specific enzyme in amniotic fluid seen with open NTD
acetylcholinesterase
*if elevated alongside AFAFP, risk of NTD close to 100%
128
AFP is no longer sensitive screening tool after __ GA
20w
129
what is the triple screen and what does it test for
concentration of MSAFP, beta-hCG and estriol
tests for trisomy 21, 18, and NTD
130
triple screen results -> low MSAFP, low estriol, elevated betas
risk of trisomy 21
131
triple screen results -> low MSAFP, low estriol, low betas
risk for trisomy 13
132
triple screen results -> elevated MSAFP, normal estriol, normal betas
risk of NTD
133
what is triple screen PLUS and what does it test for
aka quad screen, five screen
tests MSAFP, beta-hCG, estrol, and dimeric inhibin A and PAPP-A
abnormal triple screen plus most commonly associated with trisomy 21
134
triple screen results suggesting risk for trisomy 21 -> low MSAFP, low estriol, elevated betas, __ dimeric inhibin A, __ PAPP-A
elevated dimeric inhibin A
low PAPP-A
135
purpose of amniocentesis and best timing for it
for karyotyping, lung maturity, decrease of AFV (therapeutic)
best between 15-20w GA
136
purpose and best timing for chorionic villus sampling
RAPID karyotyping
best performed between 10-12w GA
* increased risk of complications if performed earlier
137
cordocentesis method, purpose and timing
percutaneous umb blood sampling (PUBS)
from the umb vein
purpose for IMMEDIATE karyotyping and for detecting/treating blood disorders
best performed between 18-21w GA
138
endoscope inserted cia cervix between amnion and chorion under sterile conditions with u/s guidance
embryoscopy
purpose to visualize embryo for dx of structural anomalies
up to 12w GA
139
direct laparoscopic visualization of fetus with u/s guidance through maternal abdominal incision
fetoscopy
purpose is direct visualization of specific fetal anomalies
best done between 16-20w GA
3-5% fetal loss; highest rate of all screenings
140
what is the fetal loss rate of u/s or MRI for fetal screening
0%
141
aneuploidy
abnormal no. of chromosomes
142
polyploidy
cells containing more than two sets of chromosomes
normal haploid number 2n
triploidy = 3n (69 chromosomes)
tetraploidy = 4n (92 c)
143
chromosome no. of trisomy 21
47
presence of all or part of a third 21st chromosome
144
chromosome no. of trisomy 18
47
presence of all or part of a third 18th chromosome
145
chromosome no. of trisomy 13
47
presence of a third 13th chromosome
146
chromosome no. of 45, X0
45
affects only females
part of all of one X chromosome is absent
147
chromosome no. of triploidy
69
148
trisomy 21 aka
down syndrome
149
trisomy 18 aka
edwards syndrome
150
trisomy 13 aka
patau syndrome
151
45, X0 aka
turner syndrome
affects only females
part of all of one X chromosome is absent
152
which is the least common aneuploidy manifestation
trisomy 13
153
1st trimester sonographic marker for trisomy 21
increased nuchal translucense
>/=2.5 mm
measured from 11-14w GA
154
MOST COMMON 2nd trimester sonographic markers of trisomy 21
nuchal fold thickening
absent/hypoplastic NB
short femur
echogenic bowel
EICF
pyelectasis
cardiac defects
155
most common STRUCTURAL markers for trisomy 21
cardiac anomalies (septal defects)
duodenal atresia
mild ventriculomegaly
hydrops
156
soft markers routinely evaluated for trisomy 21
choroid plexus cysts
EICF
pyelectasis
echogenic bowel
* higher risk when associated with additional findings (not isolated)
157
soft markers not routinely evaluated regarding trisomy 21
short humerus
shortened, absent NB
fifth finger clinodactyly
increased iliac angle
small ear length
sandal gap toes
158
survival rate of trisomy 18 baby
few live past their first year
159
most common sonographic markers for trisomy 18
IUGR
clenched hands
cardiac anomalies
choroid plexus cysts
NTD
hydrocephalus
omphalocele
diaphragmatic hernia
2VC
clubfeet
spina bifida
esophageal atresia
strawberry head
160
which trisomy is associated with clenched hands
18
161
which trisomy is associated with 5th digit clinodactyly
21
162
most common sonographic markers associated with trisomy 13
cardiac anomalies
* EICF
* hypoplastic left heart
central nervous system anomalies
* holoprosencephaly +/- facial defects
* ventriculomegaly
* microcephaly
IUGR
abnormal hands/feet
* polydactyly
* clubfeet
2VC
163
which trisomy is associated with polydactyly
13
164
which trisomy is associated with holoprosencephaly
13
165
which trisomy is associated with hydrocephalus
18
triploidy
166
which trisomy is associated with esophageal atresia
18
167
which trisomy is associated with spina bifida
18
168
which trisomy is associated with clubfeet
18
169
which trisomy is associated with strawberry shaped head
18
170
turner syndrome characteristics
affects females
short statues
lymphadenopathy
low set ears
webbed neck
broad chest
low hairline
streak ovaries
98% abort spontaneously
171
which aneuploidy is associated with webbed neck
turner syndrome
172
which aneuploidy is associated with streak ovaries
turner syndrome
173
most common sono markers for turner syndrome
cystic hygroma
non immune hydrops
* edema, PE, ascites
cardiac anomalies
horseshoe kidney
174
which aneuploidy is associated with cystic hygroma
turner syndrome
175
which aneuploidy is associated with horseshoe kidney
turner syndrome
176
which aneuploidy is completely incompatible with life
triploidy
total of 69 chromosomes (rather than 46)
survivors to birth have severe IUGR and defects
177
triploidy results from maternal or paternal source
paternal
partial mole continues to duplicate
178
most common sonographic markers of triploidy
molar placenta (<20wGA)
severe asymmetric IUGR
abnormal hands and feet
heart anomalies
2VC
syndactyly
hydrocephalus
renal anomalies/hypoplasia
179
which aneuploidy is associated with cleft palate/lip
13
180
which aneuploidy is associated with micrognathia
18
13
181
which aneuploidy is associated with talipes (clubfoot)
18
13
182
which aneuploidy is associated with meningomyelocele
13
183
which aneuploidy is associated with cerebellar hyperplasia
18
184
which aneuploidy is associated with hydatidiform placental degeneration
triploidy
185
which aneuploidy's risk factor is not affected by increased maternal age
turner syndrome
186
MSAFP lab values for trisomy 21 and 18
decreased
187
estriol lab values for trisomy 21 and 18
decreased
188
beta-hCG lab values for trisomy 21 and 18
increased for 21
decreased for 18
189
dimeric inhibin A lab values for trisomy 21
double normal value (increased)
190
PAPP-A lab values for trisomy 21
decreased
191
which aneuploidy is associated with Dandy Walker malformation
18
192
a normale u/s __ the likelihood of aneuploidy
reduces
193
trisomy associated with alobar holoprosencephaly
13
only slight risk if isolated
194
abnormal head shape that is too circular
brachycephaly
associated with trisomy 21
195
which aneuploidy is associated with duodenal atresia
trisomy 21
196
MCDK associated with which trisomy
18
197
which aneuploidy associated with rocker bottom feet
18
198
which aneuploidy presents with polyhydramnios and IUGR
18
199
cause of unilateral renal agenesis
failure of one ureteric bud to develop and/or interact with the metanephrogenic blastema
**ipsilateral ureter may be absent
200
"lying down adrenal" sign
unilateral renal agenesis
201
bilateral renal agenesis aka
potter syndrome
caused by failure of both ureteric buds to develop and/or interact with metanephrogenic blastema
* ureters may also be absent
202
potter syndrome is lethal due to __
severe pulmonary hypoplasia
203
state of amniotic fluid volume with bilat renal agenesis
severe oligohydramnios
* by 20w GA
204
what is potter facies
mild hypertelorism
flattening of nose
low-set ears
receding chin
205
associated findings with bilat renal agenesis
potter facies
* mild hypertelorism
* flattening of nose
* low ears
* receding chin
dolichocephaly
*oblong
limb contractures
* clubfoot
206
state of AFV with horseshoe kidney
normal bladder and AFV
207
renal pyelectasis more common with __
males
208
most common cause of abnormal renal pyelectasis
UPV obstruction
209
renal pyelectasis aka
pelviectasis
210
renal pyelectasis vs. hydronephrosis
pelviectasis - dilated renal pelvis only
pelviecaliectasis (hydro) - dilated pelvis AND CALYCES
211
abnormal values of renal pyelectasis
< 20w = >4mm
> 20w = >5-10mm
3rd trimester = >10mm
212
why might renal pyelectasis normalize after birth
progesterone levels decrease causing the muscular walls in ureters to relax and kidneys empty
213
state of AFV with UNILATERAL UPJ obstruction
resulting hydro/pyelectasis
normal to mild POLYhydramnios
214
state of AFV with BILAT UPJ obstruction
OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS
* mild to severe
bilat pyelectasis/ hydro
nonvisual of bladder
215
renal cystic disease aka
potter SEQUENCE
216
classifications of potter sequence
multicystic dysplastic kidney
MCDK
= potter type II
obstructive cystic renal dysplasia
CRD
= potter type IV
polycystic kidney disease
PKD
= potter types I & III
217
potter type II aka
MCDK
renal cortex replaced by numerous cysts with absence of collecting system
malrotation
little, if any, parenchyma
218
cause of MCDK
very early onset renal obstruction
219
MCDK resembles
bunch of grapes
220
what variation of potter type II is incompatible with life
bilateral MCDK
221
state of ureter, bladder and AFV with MCDK
normal ureter
normal bladder
normal AFV if unilateral
* oligohydramnios if bilat
222
ddx of MCDK
severe hydro
* try to demonstrate if communicating or not
223
which potter sequence is often associated with urethral obstruction
potter type IV
obstructive cystic renal dysplasia
CRD
224
renal parenchymal response to obstruction
cortical thinning
increased echogenicity
cysts
small size
225
sono features of CRD
(potter type IV)
pelviectasis/ hydro
+/- hyperechoic parenchyma
+/- noncommunicating cysts in cortex
contour usually normal (unlike MCDK)
226
types of PKD
autosomal recessive
ARPKD
= potter type I
autosomal dominant
ADPKD
= potter type III
227
'infantile' PKD aka
ARPKD
potter type I
228
'adult' PKD aka
ADPKD
potter type III
229
which PKD is always bilat
ARPKD
both kd enlarged and more echogenic
cysts often not seen due to their small nature
230
normal kidney contour, increased echogenicity, enlarged bilat, pyramids not seen, severe oligohydramnios
ARPKD
231
which congenital kidney disease morphology has cysts often not seen due to their small nature
ARPKD
232
what is the expected state of AFV for ARPKD
severe oligohydramnios
bladder often not seen
233
ddx for trisomy 13
Meckel syndrome
aka meckel-gruber
234
syndrome associated with encephalocele, polydactyly, and some form of PKD
Meckel gruber syndrome
ddx trisomy 13
235
which is the most common inherited kidney disease
ADPKD
always bilat
often no clinical signs until 30+ y of age
236
sono features of ADPKD
similar to ARPKD; rarely seen in fetus
contour may be normal
pyramids seen within kidneys
AVF normal, bladder seen
dx requires ultraosund and DNA study
237
what do all the letters stand for in VACTERL
vertebral anomalies
anal atresia
cardiac anomalies
tracheoEsophageal abnormalities
renal/urinary abnormalities
limb defect
238
most common solid intrarenal fetal mass
mesoblastemic nephroma
239
hydroureter aka
megaureter
ureterectasis
pathologically distended ureter
240
causes for hydroureter
distal urinary obstruction
nonobstructive dilatation
reflux
241
obstruction at junction of ureter and bladder, usually bilat
UPV obstruction
242
causes for UPJ obstruction
congenital stenosis
ureterocele
243
state of AFV with hydroureter if unilateral
normal bladder
normal AFV
244
sono features of cloacal exstrophy
non visualization of bladder
soft tissue mass in lower abd anterior wall
omphalocele
spinal defects
245
abnormally large bladder that does not empty and fill properly; most common cause is posterior urethral valves
megacystitis
246
AFV expected with megacystitis
depends on severity
normal to oligo
247
association with megacystitis
prune belly syndrome
248
sono features of bladder outlet obstruction
megacystitis +/- wall thickening
bilateral hydroureters
bilateral renal pyelectasis/ hydro
oligohydramnios (severe will see pulmonary hypoplasia)
usually male
249
most common cause for bladder outlet obstruction
posterior urethral valves in males
250
AFV with severe bladder outlet obstruction
oligohydramnios
associated pulmonary hypoplasia; renal failure
251
AFV with posterior urethral valves
normal
+/- oligo
252
Eagle-Barrett syndrome aka
prune belly syndrome
253
underdeveloped abdominal muscles, bilat cryptorchidism, abnormal urinary tract
prune belly syndrome
* eagle-barrett syndrome
associated with PUV in males and causes severe megacystitis, dilated ureters and hydronephrosis
254
AFV associated with prune belly syndrome
oligohydramnios
255
prolapse and cystic dilatation of distal ureteric mucosa into bladder
ureterocele
* may block urethra
256
sacculation of terminal ureter at insertion into bladder, distal to normal insertion
ectopic ureterocele
257
bladder pathology associated with duplication of collecting system, hydroureter, and obstruction of upper pole of affected kidney
ectopic ureterocele
258
ectopic ureterocele = ureter from upper pole inserts __ forming an ectopic ureterocele
distally from normal location in trigone
259
shunt from fetal bladder to amniotic fluid for tx of fetal bladder outlet obstruction
vesicoamniotic shunt
260
non-functioning bladder, AFV is __
decreased
261
suspect __ when ascites is seen with oligohydramnios
obstruction and rupture of GU tract
* may be urinary ascites or urinoma
* rupture may be renal, ureteral, or vesicular
262
hydrocele is usually a __ finding
physiological
* resolves spontaneously in absence of other abnormalities
263
urethral meatus of penis abnormally positioned
hypospadias
* opens into VENTRAL surface of penile shaft proximal to normal location
264
