Western Science Flashcards
1
Q
Which pituitary gland hormone has the principle action of stimulating uterine contractions and stimulating the ejection of milk into the mammary ducts?
a. Prolactin
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Oxytocin
A
D
2
Q
How many bones are in the human skeleton?
a. 206
b. 198
c. 229
d. 232
e. 218
A
A
3
Q
Goiter is a condition that results from changes in the thyroid gland due to a deficiency of:
a. Calcium
b. Thyroxine
c. Calcitonin
d. Iodine
A
D
4
Q
An overdose of which vitamin can result liver damage?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B 12
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin A
A
D
5
Q
Hypersecretion of growth hormone during adulthood causes:
a. Acromegaly
b. Goiter
c. Diabetes
d. Edema
A
A
6
Q
A deficiency of which vitamin can cause pernicious anemia?
a. Vitamin B 6
b. Vitamin B 1
c. Vitamin B 2
d. Vitamin B 12
e. Vitamin E
A
D
7
Q
Norepinephrine is produced by the:
a. Adrenal medulla
b. Adrenal cortex
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Thyroid
A
A
8
Q
The possibility of toxicity is greater with fat soluble vitamins than with water soluble vitamins because:
a. Food source contain so much
b. The requirements are so small
c. They are included in all vitamin preparations
d. The body can store them
A
D
9
Q
The predominant type of cells in an allergic reaction are:
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils
A
D
10
Q
GH, ACTH and FSH are produced by the
a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Adrenal cortex
d. Adrenal Medulla
A
A
11
Q
Which of the following cranial nerves is sensory only?
a. Oculomotor
b. Trochlear
c. Trigeminal
d. Optic
e. Spinal accessory
A
D
12
Q
What is the largest endocrine gland in the body?
a. Parathyroid
b. Thyroid
c. Pancreas
d. Pituitary
e. Adrenal
A
B
13
Q
Which of the following elements is regulated by parathyroid hormone?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
A
B
14
Q
The role of the inflammatory response is to:
a. Localized and isolate injured areas
b. Neutralize and inactivates toxic substance
c. Destroy or limit the growth of infecting microorganisms
d. Clean the injured area of damaged tissue
e. All the above
A
E
15
Q
The provitamin form of vitamin A that is found in plant pigments is:
a. Beta – carotene
b. Chlorophyll
c. Retinoid
d. Calciferol
A
A
16
Q
Vitamin C deficiency is associated with the disease called:
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Rickets
c. Beriberi
d. Scurvy
A
D
17
Q
A high blood cholesterol level appears to be associated with the condition of:
a. Obesity
b. Hypertension
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Diabetes
e. All of the above
A
E
18
Q
An essential fatty acid is one that :
a. Comes from an animal source
b. Comes from a plant source
c. The body cannot manufacture for itself
d. The body can manufacture for itself
A
C
19
Q
The vitamin deficiency associated with pernicious anemia and neurological degeneration is:
a. C
b. B 1
c. B12
d. Folic acid
A
C
20
Q
The vitamin most likely to be deficient in an alcoholic is:
a. Folic acid
b. Thiamin B 1
c. Pyridoxine B6
d. Cobalamin B 12
A
B
21
Q
What is not a function of the hypothalamus?
a. Wake and sleep regulation
b. Thirst center
c. Hunger center
d. Stimulate the thalamus gland
e. Association with the rage and aggression
A
D
22
Q
Hyposecretion of insulin causes:
a. Blood calcium levels to rise
b. Blood calcium levels to decrease
c. Blood sugar levels to rise
d. Blood sugar levels to decrease
A
C
23
Q
In which part of the body are varicose veins most likely to occur?
a. Legs
b. Arms
c. Feet
d. None of the above
A
A
24
Q
Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
a. Secretion of bile
b. Detoxification of drugs and poisons
c. Storage of iron and certain vitamins
d. Absorption of sodium
A
D
25
What valve connects the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart?
a. Aortic
b. Tricuspid
c. Mitral
d. Pulmonary
e. Cardiac
C
26
Pulmonary edema is caused by
a. Right side heart failure
b. Left side heart failure
c. Bronchitis
d. Atherosclerosis
e. Lung Cancer
B
27
The Exocrine function of the pancreas is
a. The secretion of insulin in the blood
b. The secretion of glucagon into the blood
c. The secretion of digestive enzymes in the pancreatic duct
d. The secretion of digestive enzymes in the hepatic duct
e. The secretion of insulin into the pancreatic duct
C
28
Endocrine glands have the following characteristics:
a. They are ductless
b. Their secretions contain enzymes
c. They secrete via ducts
d. They secrete directly into organs
A
29
Insulin _______ blood glucose and Glucagon ________blood glucose.
a. Increases, decreases
b. Decreases, increases
c. Increases, breaks down
d. Decreases, stores
B
30
Which gland is both endocrine and exocrine?
a. Pituitary
b. Pancreas
c. Thymus
d. Adrenal
B
31
Which hormone accelerates the conversion of glycogen into glucose?
a. Insulin
b. Potassium
c. Glucagon
d. Glucocorticoids
C
32
Diabetes mellitus is characterized by
a. rise in blood glucose
b. excessive urine production
c. deficiency in insulin
d. all the above
D
33
Diabetes insipidus is caused by
a. lack of insulin
b. eating to many carbohydrates
c. lack of ADH
d. excess amounts of ADH
C
34
Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?
a. Pituitary gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Pancreas
d. Salivary
D
35
The initial tissue reaction to injury is called:
a. Dolor
b. Acute inflammation
c. Fibrosis
d. Chronic inflammatory response
B
36
Dolor is the part of the inflammatory response characterized by:
a. Redness (rubor)
b. Heat (calor)
c. Pain (dolor)
d. Swelling (tumor)
C
37
Increased vascular permeability is a portion of the acute inflammatory response associated with:
a. Local edema and swelling
b. Local heat and redness
c. Phagocytosis
d. None of the above
A
38
The organ most responsible for the storage of vitamin A is the:
a. Heart
b. Lung
c. Liver
d. Kidney
C
39
Vitamin C deficiency is characterized by:
a. Cracked and bleeding lips
b. Fevers and infection
c. Easy bruising and pinpoint hemorrhages
d. Retarded growth
A
40
What is the descending order of the small intestine?
a. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
b. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum
c. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
d. Jejunum, duodenum, ileum
e. Ileum, duodenum, jejunum
A
41
Which IS NOT a bone in the cranium?
a. Parietal
b. Occipital
c. Maxilla
d. Sphenoid
e. All the above are bones of the skull
C
42
Which bone in the human body does not articulate with any other bones and is fixed in position by muscles and ligaments?
a. Navicular
b. Hyoid
c. Pisiform
d. Occiput
e. Triguetral
B
43
The position of the kidneys behind the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity is described by the term:
a. Retroperitoneal
b. Anterioperitoneal
c. Ptosis
d. Inferioperotoneal
A
44
Which gland regulates metabolism, growth, and nervous system activity?
a. Adrenal
b. Thyroid
c. Parathyroid
d. Gonads
B
45
Insulin deficiency will cause:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Cretinism
d. Addison’s disease
B
46
Which hormone mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system?
a. Epinephrine
b. Growth hormone
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Thyroxine
A
47
Parathyroid glands are:
a. Four pairs in all, located adjacent to the thyroid
b. Associated with diabetes mellitus
c. Two pairs in all, located adjacent to the thyroid
d. Conic (resembling a cone) in morphology
C
48
A deficiency of vitamin A in the body may result in:
a. Renal problems
b. Bile obstruction
c. Color blindness
d. Night blindness
D
49
The function of all B complex vitamin is:
a. Regulate fluid balance
b. Functions as coenzymes
c. Provide calories for energy
d. None of the above
B
50
The primary function of vitamin D is to regulate the absorption and metabolism of the minerals:
a. Sodium and potassium
b. Iron and phosphorus
c. Calcium and phosphorus
d. Iodine and calcium
C
51
Patient with hypothyroidism suffers from:
a. Anorexia
b. Tachycardia
c. Low metabolism
d. Increased perspiration
C
52
Which of the following best describes the function of the Thalamus?
a. It serves as a relay station for all sensory impulses except smell to the cerebral cortex
b. It relays motor impulses from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord
c. It controls and integrates the autonomic nervous system
d. It controls subconscious skeletal muscles contraction required for coordination, posture, and balance
e. A & B
E
53
What is not true about the adenohypophysis (Anterior lobe) of the pituitary gland?
a. It secretes Growth Hormone
b. It secretes Prolactin
c. It secretes Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone(TSH)
d. It secretes Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
e. It secretes Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
D
54
A sample of Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF) reveals a cloudy appearance. What does this indicate?
a. Meningitis
b. A blockage of CSF flow
c. A cerebral hemorrhage
d. A cerebral tumor
e. The CSF is normal
A
55
Which of the following is the main risk factor for Atherosclerosis?
a. Menopause
b. Hypertension
c. Old age
d. Being male
e. Obesity (High cholesterol, hypertension, smoking, diabetes)
B
56
All of the following are causes of the left-sided heart failure EXCEPT:
a. Valvular disease involving the Tricuspid or pulmonary valves
b. Congenital Heart disease
c. Myocardial Ischemia
d. Hypertension
A
57
Which cranial nerve is responsible for deviation of the eye outward and double vision?
a. Cranial Nerve IV, Trochlear
b. Cranial Nerve V, Trigemial
c. Cranial Nerve VI, Abducens
d. Cranial Nerve VII, Facial
e. Cranial Nerve VIII, Acoustic
A
58
Which Cranial Nerve has the motor function of swallowing and secretion of saliva?
a. Cranial Nerve V-Trigeminal
b. Cranial Nerve VII-Facial
c. Cranial Nerve IX-Glossopharyngeal
d. Cranial Nerve XI-Accessory
C
59
A Babinski test that is positive could indicate?
a. sciatic pain
b. pulmonary tuberculosis
c. carpal tunnel syndrome
d. brain damage after trauma or expanding brain tumor
D
60
Systolic pressure is due to?
a. contraction of the atrium
b. contraction of the ventricle
c. relaxation of the ventricle
d. relaxation of the atrium
B
61
Which of the following leukoctyes increase in parasitic disease?
a. neutrophils
b. basophils
c. eosinophils
d. lymphocytes
C
62
Which muscle is not a rotator cuff muscle?
a. Teres major
b. Infraspinatus
c. Subscapularis
d. Supraspinatus
A
63
Which is the strongest leg muscle?
a. Vastus medialis
b. Anterior tibialis
c. Soleus
d. Gastrocnemus
C
64
Right sided heart failure will have all these symptoms EXCEPT
a. pulmonary edema
b. ascites
c. liver congestion
d. splenomegaly
A
65
There are how many pairs of cranial nerves
a. 7
b. 6
c. 12
d. 14
C
66
Elevated TSH indicates
a. hyperthyroidism
b. hypothyroidism
c. dysfunctional pituitary gland
d. dysfunctional thalamus
B
67
Largest buffer system in the human body
a. bicarbonates
b. plasma proteins
c. exhaling CO2
d. digestive enzymes
B
68
Normal blood pH
a. 7.0-7.1
b. 7.25-7.35
c. 7.45- 7.50
d. 7.35- 7.45
D
69
What is the pulse pressure of a patient having BP 120/70 mm HG
a. 50 mm Hg
b. 60 mm Hg
c. 70 mm Hg
d. 80 mm Hg
A
70
In order to develop orthostatic hypotension the systolic pressure on standing position must be lower than the systolic pressure on supine position by at least
a. 10 mm Hg
b. 20 mm Hg
c. 30 mm Hg
d. 40 mm Hg
B
71
Fibrocartilage is found in
a. knee joint
b. elbow joint
c. intervertebral joint
d. costal rib joint
C
72
The foramen magnum is a feature in which bone
a. ethmoid
b. sphenoid
c. occipital
d. temporal
C
73
Cartilage is slow in healing because
a. lack of direct blood supply
b. cartilage is surrounded by fluid
c. cartilage cannot reproduce
d. cartilage is semisolid
A
74
The presence of an epiphyseal disk indicates
a. the diameter is increasing
b. osteoporosis
c. bone length is increasing
d. the bone is done growing
C
75
A hypertonic solution
a. would cause cells in the solution to lose water
b. has greater concentration of solute in the solution than in the cells
c. has a greater osmotic pressure than the cells in the solution
d. all of the above
D
76
Connective tissue are made by
a. macrophages
b. mast cells
c. fibroblasts
d. osteoclasts
C
77
The pituitary gland is located in the
a. sella turnica
b. glenoid fossa
c. sphenoidal sinus
d. cribiform plate
A
78
What determines the color of skin?
a. the number of melanocytes
b. the amount of melanin made by the melanocytes
c. the thickness of the epidermis
d. exposure to light
B
79
What is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body?
a. hip joint
b. shoulder joint
c. elbow joint
d. knee joint
D
80
Bones of a synovial joint are held together by
a. meniscus
b. bursa
c. joint capsule
d. synovial membrane
C
81
The atlas is a feature of the
a. lumbar vertebrae
b. thoracic vertebrae
c. cervical vertebrae
d. all of the above
C
82
The radial collateral ligament is located in the
a. knee
b. wrist
c. shoulder
d. elbow
D
83
The skull bones are tightly joined along lines called
a. sutures
b. disks
c. sinuses
d. marrow
A
84
The sternal angle is a clinical landmark used to locate
a. the aorta
b. the larynx
c. a particular rib
d. the diaphragm
C
85
Which type of membrane is found in tissues that have an opening to the exterior?
a. transitional
b. mucous
c. serous
d. cutaneous
B
86
The tissue that lines the respiratory tract is
a. mucus-secreting
b. ciliated
c. pseudostratified
d. all of the above
D
87
Two examples of sesamoid bones are
a. femur and humerous
b. patella and pisiform
c. ulna and fibula
d. sphenoid and ethmoid
B
88
The most lateral prominence of the scapula is the
a. greater tubercle
b. acromium
c. coracoid process
d. supraspinous fossa
B
89
The most lateral prominence of the femur is the
a. greater trochanter
b. linea aspera
c. lesser trochanter
d. olecranon
A
90
Which type of membrane lines a closed body cavity?
a. mucous
b. serous
c. synovial
d. cutaneous
B
91
The lateral malleolus is a feature of the
a. tibia
b. talus
c. fibula
d. calcaneous
C
92
Apocrine are most abundantly found in the
a. forehead
b. neck
c. axilla
d. soles of feet
C
93
Collagen is a major component of
a. ligament
b. bone
c. tendon
d. all of the above
D
94
Which is not a synovial joint?
a. the saddle
b. the condyloid
c. the ball and socket
d. the symphysis pubis
D
95
Which structure is not located in the femur?
a. greater trochanter
b. linea aspera
c. gluteal tuberosity
d. intertubercular groove
D
96
Which process requires specific carrier molecules?
a. osmosis
b. phagocytosis
c. active transport
d. diffusion
C
97
At which age are most of the bones calcified?
a. 6 months
b. 13 years
c. 17 years
d. 25 years
D
98
Which is correct about the female pelvis in relation to the male pelvis?
a. female iliac bones are less flared
b. the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller
c. the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less
d. the distance between the female ischial spines is greater
D
99
The zygomatic arch is composed of
a. zygomatic and temporal bones
b. zygomatic and maxilla bones
c. maxilla and temporal bones
d. temporal and parietal bones
A
100
Threshold stimulus is defined as the
a. maximum stimulus required to cause a muscle contract
b. the minimum stimulus required to cause a muscle to contract
c. amount of acetycholine required to cause a muscle to contract
d. the minimum amount of energy required to cause a muscle to contract
D
101
A muscle cramp is most likely due to a lack of
a. ATP
b. ADP
c. cAMP
d. myosin
A
102
The brief moment following stimulation in which a muscle is unresponsive to additional stimulus is the
a. latent period
b. refractory period
c. contraction period
d. relaxation period
B
103
A motor unit is defined as
a. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers connected to it
b. the functional unit of a muscle fiber
c. many motor and plates within a neuromuscular junction
d. many myofibrils within a sarcolemma
A
104
Myofibrils are mainly composed of
a. actin and myosin
b. ATP and ADP
c. tropymyosin
d. troponin
A
105
Characteristics of hormones EXCEPT
a. they are produced in response to a stimulus
b. they are present in the body fluid all the time
c. they initiate chemical reactions
d. they travel via the blood stream
C
106
The range of human hearing is about
a. 2,000-200,000 vibrations per second
b. 2,000-3,000 vibrations per second
c. 2-2,000 vibrations per second
d. 20-20,000 vibrations per second
D
107
Pain receptors
a. tend to adapt rapidly
b. are generally stimulated by factors that can cause tissue damage
c. are widely distributed in the nerve tissues of the brain
d. are among the most specialized of the receptors
D
108
Anosmia is a condition in which there is a loss of
a. touch
b. hearing
c. vision
d. smell
D
109
The area of the skin supplied by sensory nerve fibers from a particular dorsal root is called a
a. microtome
b. sensory body
c. nerve body
d. dermatome
D
110
The olfactory receptors are examples of
a. proprioceptors
b. chemoreceptors
c. thermoreceptors
d. mechanoreceptors
B
111
Night blindness is most commonly caused by
a. damage to the optic nerve
b. damage to the cornea
c. a toxic effect of vitamin A
d. an improper diet
D
112
The cranial nerve associated with Bell’s palsy is the
a. Facial
b. trigeminal
c. glossopharyngeal
d. hypoglossal
A
113
The cranial nerve associated with the gag reflex is the
a. facial
b. olfactory
c. glossopharyngeal
d. hypoglossal
C
114
Which of the following are generally adrenergic fibers?
a. sympathetic preganglionic fibers
b. parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
c. sympathetic postganglionic fibers
d. parasympathetic preganglionic fibers
C
115
Rhodopsin is found in
a. rod cells
b. olfactory receptor cells
c. cone cells
d. hair cells
A
116
If you enter a room and smell a strong odor but the odor soon seems to fade away, you have experienced
a. damage to you sensory receptors
b. a change in the room temperature
c. sensory adaptaion
d. a change in the concentration of the substance you smelled
C
117
If the retina becomes detached, there is a danger that the receptor cells will die because of
a. pressure from the vitreous humor
b. lack of oxygen and nutrients
c. lack of nerve connections
d. pressure from the aqueous humor
B
118
Which of the following is part of the inner tunic of the eye?
a. the sclera
b. the choroids coat
c. the ciliary body
d. the retina
D
119
Sensory adaptation occurs when
a. the sensory areas of the brain are so saturated with impulses that they do not respond to stimuli
b. none of these
c. continuous stimulation of a receptor results in it completely failing to send signals to the brain
d. the sensory area of the brain projects impulses back to the receptors so rapidly that they cannot be stimulated
C
120
Which vertebra would mark the end of the spinal cord?
a. T10
b. L4
c. L1
d. S2
C
121
Pain receptors differ from other somatic receptors by
a. adapting very little, if at all
b. all of these
c. being stimulated only when pain is occurring in skeletal muscles
d. not being able to project impulses back to their origin
A
122
The pressure of cerebrospinal fluid is usually measured by introducing a hollow needle into the subarachnoid space between
a. lumbar vertebrae
b. cervical vertebrae
c. none of these
d. thoracic vertebrae
A
123
The somatic nervous system consists of nerve fibers that connect the CNS to the ___________, whereas the autonomic nervous system consists of fibers that connect the ___________.
a. visceral organs; CNS to the skin and skeletal muscles
b. heart and intestines; CNS to the cardiac and smooth muscles
c. skin and skeletal muscles; CNS to the visceral organs
d. skin and skeletal muscles; brain to the spinal cord
C
124
Blowing the nose improperly may cause an infection within the auditory tube to spread into the
a. inner ear
b. cochlea
c. outer ear
d. middle ear
D
125
The branch of the trigeminal nerve most commonly associated with trigeminal neuralgia is
a. opthalmic
b. maxillary
c. mandibular
B
126
The condition called farsightedness of age is caused by
a. loss of lens capsule elasticity
b. changes in curvature of the cornea
c. shortening of the eyeball
d. lengthening of the eyeball
A
127
Which of the following cranial nerves conducts sensory impulses from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
a. Vagus
b. Glossopharyngeal
c. Trigeminal
d. Facial
D
128
Muscle spindle receptors are stimulated more when
a. muscles are metabolically active and produce oxygen
b. muscle tension increases
c. muscle tension stays the same
d. muscles become relaxed and stretched
D
129
The Golgi tendon organ is stimulated more when
a. muscle tension decreases
b. muscles are metabolically active and produce oxygen
c. muscle tension increases
d. muscle tension stays the same
C
130
Sensory impulses are stimulated at receptors by
a. changes in membrane permeability
b. decreasing permeability of nerve membranes
c. neurotransmitters
d. changes in action potentials
D
131
Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?
a. Pungent
b. salty
c. sweet
d. bitter
A
132
The corticospinal tracts function in the control of
a. voluntary muscle movements
b. spinal reflexes
c. sweat glands
d. posture
A
133
The normal pacemaker of the heart is the
a. bundle of His
b. sinoatrial node
c. atrioventricular node
d. Purkinje fibers
B
134
The ejection fraction in a normal heart is approximately
a. 15%
b. 85%
c. 58%
d. 36%
C
135
CO2 is transported in the blood mostly under the form of
a. dissolved CO2
b. bicarbonate
c. carbaminohemoglobin
d. bound to albumin
B
136
During an asthma attack, a patient usually finds it more difficult to
a. inhale
b. exhale
c. expand the lungs
d. contract the respiratory muscles
B
137
Which is the correct sequence when blood moves from the vena cava to the lungs?
a. right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve
b. right atrium, mitral valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve
c. right ventricle, tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary valve
d. pulmonary valve, right atrium, right ventricle, tricuspid valve
A
138
Which feature is least important in returning blood to the heart?
a. valves in the veins
b. contraction of skeletal muscles
c. negative intrathoracic pressure
d. the pushing of the blood by the atrial system
D
139
The pain associated with angina pectoris is usually due to an obstruction in the artery that supplies the
a. neck and jaw
b. left arm and shoulder
c. heart
d. sternum
C
140
The amount of oxygen releases from oxyhemoglobin is increased when
a. carbon dioxide concentration increases
b. temperature increases
c. blood becomes more alkaline
d. carbon dioxide concentration decreases
A
141
Hyperventilation is most likely to be accompanied by
a. increase in blood carbon dioxide concentration and drop in pH
b. decrease in blood carbon dioxide concentration and rise in pH
c. increase in blood carbon dioxide concentration and rise in pH
d. decrease in blood carbon dioxide concentration and drop in pH
B
142
Which is not a normal result of training for an endurance event?
a. enlargement of the heart
b. increase in heart rate
c. thickening of myocardium
d. increase in stroke volume
B
143
Respiratory distress syndrome in newborns is most likely due to
a. lack of surfactant
b. high oxygen concentration
c. low oxygen concentration
d. lack of hyaline membrane
A
144
Blood from the face and scalp is drained by the
a. inferior vena cava
b. external jugular vein
c. subclavian vein
d. cephalic vein
B
145
Swelling in the lower extremities is most likely a result of insufficiency in the
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle
C
146
Which type of blood vessel holds the largest volume of blood?
a. arteriole
b. vein
c. artery
d. capillary
B
147
Which is not a branch of the aorta?
a. right coronary artery
b. left subclavian vein
c. pulmonary artery
d. brachiocephalic artery
C
148
Ascites is an accumulation of fluid in which cavity?
a. pleural
b. pelvic
c. pericardial
d. peritoneal
D
149
The force that causes air to move into the lungs during inhalation is
a. atmospheric pressure
b. contraction of diaphragm
c. contraction of external intercostal muscles
d. contraction of rectus abdominus
A
150
When taking a pulse at someone’s wrist, which artery is being felt?
a. ulnar artery
b. radial artery
c. brachial artery
d. carotid artery
B
151
Severe demands are placed on a person’s ability to regulate body temperature if water loss exceeds
a. 1%
b. 0.5%
c. 2%
d. 1.5%
C
152
Which is not a function of the kidneys?
a. regulation of body fluid concentration
b. regulation of body fluid volume
c. removal of waste products from the body
d. formation of plasma proteins
D
153
Urinary tract infections are more common in women than in men because
a. female urethral pathway is shorter
b. female bladder is larger
c. male is more resistant to infections
d. males wash their hands more
A
154
Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to
a. enlarged heart
b. increase risk of stroke
c. development of atherosclerosis
d. all of the above
D
155
Following ovulation, a human egg cell survives a maximum of
a. 12 hours
b. 1 hour
c. 72 hours
d. 24 hours
D
156
Drinking alcohol produces a diuretic effect by
a. inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium
b. inhibiting the release of ADH
c. promoting the release of ADH
d. promoting the retention of sodium
B
157
Prolonged vomiting in which only stomach contents are lost can lead to
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
D
158
Obstruction of the airway leads to
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
A
159
159. Low potassium concentration is associated with
a. water intoxication
b. deficiency of aldosterone
c. muscular weakness, respiratory difficulty, and ventricular arrhythmias
d. all the above
C
160
The acid-base buffer system includes
a. protein buffer system
b. phosphate buffer system
c. bicarbonate buffer system
d. all the above
D
161
Osmotic pressure is primarily controlled by
a. blood glucose levels
b. plasma protein concentration
c. plasma sodium concentration
d. potassium ion concentration
B
162
Edema is
a. caused by a depressed venous system
b. an abnormal accumulation of extracellular fluid within the interstitial spaces
c. caused by dehydration
d. an increase in blood volume
B
163
Which is the closest percentage of water in an adult male?
a. 35%
b. 80%
c. 65%
d. 55%
C
164
164. Aldosterone functions to promote
a. retention of potassium
b. retention of sodium
c. excretion of sodium
d. excretion of calcium
B
165
The hormone used to detect if a woman is pregnant
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. HCG
d. ADH
C
166
When nutrients are ingested but not taken in by the intestines, it is called
a. food allergy
b. malnutrition
c. food intolerance
d. malabsorption
D
167
The fat soluble vitamins include
a. B vitamins
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin A & D
d. biotin
C
168
Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of
a. B12
b. B6
c. folate
d. pantothenic acid
A
169
169. As an energy source, the body cells prefer
a. fat
b. protein
c. carbohydrates
d. ketones
C
170
Which is not a monosaccharide?
a. glucose
b. fructose
c. sucrose
d. galactose
C
171
Osteomalacia is due to a deficiency of
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin E
B
172
Treatment with antibiotics is sometimes followed by a deficiency in
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin B3
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin K
D
173
In the US, the population most likely to develop beri-beri are
a. children
b. alcoholics
c. obese
d. none of the above
B
174
Lactose intolerance is due to
a. deficiency of lactose
b. deficiency of lactase
c. too much milk in the diet
d. lack of vitamin D
B
175
The source of energy stored in the muscles and liver is called
a. glucose
b. glucagon
c. glycogen
d. glycerol
C
176
The salivary enzyme amylase functions to digest
a. fats
b. proteins
c. carbohydrates
d. all the above
C
177
Celiac disease is an intestinal reaction to the presence of
a. dairy products
b. gluten
c. cellulose from vegetables
d. fatty acids
B
178
Vitamin K is required for
a. bone formation
b. keratin
c. clot formation
d. night vision
C
179
What are a good source of essential fatty acids?
a. soy
b. beef and chicken
c. vegetable oil
d. fish oil
D
180
180. The liver uses fatty acids to make
a. triglycerides
b. lipoproteins
c. phospholipids
d. all the above
D
181
181. One major function of the large intestine is to
a. secrete digestive enzymes
b. break down hemoglobin
c. reabsorb water from chyme
d. regulate the release of bile
C
182
183. Jaundice is due to increased blood concentration of
a. hemoglobin A
b. bile pigments
c. carotene
d. cholesterol
B
183
The parietal cells of the gastric glands secrete
a. HCl
b. mucus
c. pepsin
d. amylase
A
184
Insulin causes
a. increase in blood glucose
b. decrease in blood glucose
c. increase in release of glucagon
d. decrease in permeability of cell membranes to absorb glucose
B
185
A person with abnormally high metabolism, who eats a lot but is still underweight, is likely to have
a. hyperthyroidism
b. hypothyroidism
c. hyperparathyroidism
d. hypoparathyroidism
A
186
Gallstones are primarily composed of
a. calcium
b. uric acid
c. cholesterol
d. bile pigments
C
187
Acute pancreatitis is often caused by the conversion of
a. pepsin to pepsinogen
b. trypsin to trypsinogen
c. trysinogen to trypsin
d. pepsinogen to pepsin
C
188
A hiatal hernia is due to a weakness in the
a. stomach
b. diaphragm
c. abdominal wal
d. pelvic wall
B
189
The part of the brain that coordinates muscle movement is the
a. cerebrum
b. cerebellum
c. corpus collosum
d. pons
B
190
The most rapid nerve impulses are conducted on fibers that are
a. thin and unmyelinated
b. thin and myelinated
c. thick and myelinated
d. thick and unmyelinated
C
191
The cerebrum is separated from the cerebellum by the
a. lateral sulcus
b. transverse fissure
c. longitudinal fissure
d. central sulcus
B
192
As a rule, hormone concentrations are controlled by
a. positive feedback mechanisms
b. negative feedback mechanisms
c. cellular demands
d. thermostats
B
193
193. What produces myelin in the brain and spinal cord?
a. oligodendrocytes
b. microglia
c. Schwann cells
d. astrocytes
A
194
Parkinson’s disease is due to a lack of
a. dopamine
b. acetylcholine
c. serotonin
d. norepinepherine
A
195
Steroid hormones
a. are soluble in lipids
b. act by causing the synthesis of messenger RNA molecules
c. combine with protein receptor molecules
d. all the above
D
196
196. The condition called spina bifida is characterized by an
a. abnormality in neural tube development
b. all of these
c. open vertebral column
d. exposed spinal cord
B
197
Which neurotransmitter acts to relieve pain sensation?
a. dopamine
b. epinephrine
c. beta-endorphins
d. acetylcholine
C
198
If the reticular activating system is injured, the patient may experience
a. hyperactivity
b. unconsciousness or coma
c. increased sympathetic nervous system response
d. palpitations
B
199
Brain waves are recordings of activity in the
a. cerebral cortex
b. basal ganglia
c. cerebellum
d. brain stem
A
200
Masses of myelinated nerve fibers appear
a. grey
b. black
c. clear
d. white
D
201
201. What does the P stand for in SOAP?
a. progress
b. prognosis
c. plan
d. patient
C
202
202. When listening to the lungs, how many locations on the torso do you listen to?
a. six ventral, two lateral, eight dorsal
b. six ventral, six dorsal, two lateral
c. eight ventral, eight dorsal
d. eight ventral, two lateral, eight dorsal
A
