WOMENS HEALTH 2 - Breast, Gynae, Sexual Health Flashcards

1
Q

What are some risk factors for breast cancer

A

alcohol,
Obesity
Not breastfeeding
HRT, and the pill
Not having kids younger

Genetics

Exercise in protective

1 in 8 women will get breast cancer - (12%) most common !

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2
Q

Name some genes that increase your risk for breast cancer

A

BRAC - 1 - 80% chance of breast cancer, and 40% of ovarian cancer
BRAC - 2 - Around 60% will develop breast cancer by aged 80
Around 20% will develop ovarian cancer

There are other rarer genetic abnormalities associated with breast cancer (e.g., TP53 and PTEN genes).

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3
Q

between what ages to we screen for breast cancer?

A

The NHS breast cancer screening program offers a mammogram every 3 years to women aged 50 – 70 years.

Screening aims to detect breast cancer early, which improves outcomes. Roughly 1 in 100 women are diagnosed with breast cancer after going for a mammogram.

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4
Q

What are some downsides to screening

A

Anxiety and stress
Exposure to radiation, with a very small risk of causing breast cancer
Missing cancer, leading to false reassurance
Unnecessary further tests or treatment where findings would not have otherwise caused harm

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5
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of breast cancer

A

Lumps that are hard, irregular, painless or fixed in place
Lumps may be tethered to the skin or the chest wall
Nipple retraction
Skin dimpling or oedema (peau d’orange)
Lymphadenopathy, particularly in the axilla
Deformed/change in breast shape

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6
Q

What things are included in an assessment for breast cancer?

A

Triple assessment

1 is normal, 5 is clearly malignant

Clinical score ((from examination) 1-5
imaging score 1-5
Biopsy score 1-5

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7
Q

What imaging is used in breast cancer investigations?

A

Ultrasound scans are typically used to assess lumps in younger women (e.g., under 30 years). They are helpful in distinguishing solid lumps (e.g., fibroadenoma or cancer) from cystic (fluid-filled) lumps.

+

Mammograms are generally more effective in older women. They can pick up calcifications missed by ultrasound.

MRI scans may be used:

For screening in women at higher risk of developing breast cancer (e.g., strong family history)
To further assess the size and features of a tumour

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8
Q

What is a DCIS? Does it require treatment?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), is a pre-cancerous or non-invasive cancerous lesion of the breast.

In DCIS, abnormal cells are found in the lining of one or more milk ducts in the breast.

the abnormal cells have not moved out of the mammary duct and into any of the surrounding tissues in the breast - its not yet become an invasive cancer

It does require treatment

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9
Q

What is the treatment options for a ductal carcinoma in situ?

A

. Treatment primarily involves wide excision and radiotherapy
or mastectomy if the disease is more extensive. Just to complicate matters, 1% of
high grade DCIS will have axillary node metastases from areas of micro-invasion
within the DCIS. It can be a difficult concept to explain to patients, especially those
with widespread disease who need mastectomy, that they need a mastectomy but
they don’t have invasive breast cancer. Below is a mammogram showing a large
area of typical DCIS associated microcalcification. This case would require a
mandatory mastectomy.

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10
Q

Surgery for breast cancer - what are the two options

A

Breast-conserving surgery (e.g., wide local excision), usually coupled with radiotherapy

Mastectomy (removal of the whole breast), potentially with immediate or delayed breast reconstruction

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11
Q

What are the options and what factors can influence Mastectomy vs breast conservation look at page 30 on breast cancer handbook

A

Needs masectomy if

Large tumour relative to breast size
more than ome cancer

breast cancer in different quadrants
Psychological [atinet choice

if they cba for teh radiotherapy needed with breast conserving therapy

can have breast conserving therapy if the tumour is small compared to the size of the breast

Radiotherapy can scar and shrink breasts

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12
Q

When is axillary clearnace offered in breast cancer treatment?

A

Removal of the axillary lymph nodes is offered to patients where cancer cells are found in the nodes. Usually, the majority or all lymph nodes are removed from the axilla. This increases the risk of chronic lymphoedema in that arm

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13
Q

Outline what is meant by grading in breast cancer

A

Tumour grade varies from grade 1, where the cells are well differentiated with a
low mitotic rate (and look very similar to normal breast glands down the
microscope) to grade 3 where the reverse is true, and the cells look very abnormal
and have many more mutations in the genes. Tumour grade is an important
prognostic marker used to decide about whether a patient should be offered
chemotherapy or not.

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14
Q

Outline what is meant by staging in breast canc er

A

Simplistically , stage 1 is cancer confined to the breast, stage 2 is cancer where
there is axillary nodal spread which is operable, stage 3 is where there is locally advanced
disease, either as a result of breast or axillary extent and stage 4 is where there is
metastatic disease.

Stage is anatomical!!

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15
Q

Outline what having the osterogen and progresterone recpetor means

A

The oestrogen receptor is expressed on about 70% of all breast cancers,

It denotes that the cancer is sensitive to oestrogen which stimulates tumour growth and also that anti-oestrogen therapy will help to control the disease.

==> marker of good prognosis because the women can be treated with anti-oestrogens and the cancers
tend to be less biologically aggressive.

The Progesterone receptor is also an indicator of sensitivity to anti-oestrogens (the ER and PgR are linked).

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16
Q

What are some immunophentupes that have a worse prognositc marker

A

The Her-2 receptor is over expressed in 15% of all breast cancers and is a poor prognostic marker. if this receptor is up regulated, (i.e. there are more copies on the cell surface,)
the growth pathway is up-regulated and the cells behave in a very aggressive manner.

Ki 67.
More recently, a proliferation marker called Ki 67 has entered clinical practice for cases of borderline aggression

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17
Q

Immunophenotypes with a poor prognostic marker (Her -2 and Ki67) - what is the common treatment of them both?

A

Her-2
Fortunately this can be combated by use of the new drug trastuzumab (Herceptin) which improves the prognosis substantially for this group
of women.

Ki 67
A high score is a poor prognostic marker - Likely that chemotherapy will be needed

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18
Q

What are the two main types of breast cancer?

A

Invasive Ductal Carcinoma – NST
NST means no special/specific type, where it is not more specifically classified (e.g., medullary or mucinous)
Originate in cells from the breast ducts
80% of invasive breast cancers fall into this category

Invasive Lobular Carcinomas (ILC)
Around 10% of invasive breast cancers
Originate in cells from the breast lobules
Not always visible on mammograms

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19
Q

What are some horomonal therapies for treating breast cancer?

A

Pre-menopausal women:
1st line therapy is Tamoxifen which is associated with an approximate 30% increase in
survival rate. It is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

In the breast it has an inhibitory effect and causes tumours cells to stop proliferating and die.

Post menopausal Women:
Aromatase Inhibitors, (Exemestane, Letrozole and Anastrozole). These prevent the
peripheral conversion of adrenal androgens to oestrogens by the aromatase enzyme in
fatty tissues.

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20
Q

What are some side effects of Tamoxifen and aromatase inhibitors?

A

Side effects include : - - - - -
GI disturbance e.g. nausea, vomiting, usually mild
Hormonal disturbances e.g. hot flushes
Headache, rash (occasional)
Visual disturbances
Promotes thromboembolic disease-DVT, PE
can v rarely cause endometrial cacner

Side effects
include:
* Hot flushes
* Joint pain
* Bone density changes
* Vaginal dryness

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21
Q

What are some immunotherapies and other drugs that can be used in teh treatmet of cancer

A

TRASTUZUMAB AND OTHER HER2 TARGETING THERAPIES.
This drug binds to the Her-2 receptor which is over expressed in one third of all breast
cancers. Her-2 expressing cancers have the worst prognosis of any breast cancer subtype
and the use of trastuzumab helps to improve their survival substantially, to the extent that
use of this drug neutralises the adverse effect of Her-2 expression.

Bisphosphonates use

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22
Q

What three ways can chemotherapy be used in breast cancer treatment

A

Oncologists will guide chemotherapy. Chemotherapy is used in one of three scenarios:

Neoadjuvant therapy – intended to shrink the tumour before surgery
Adjuvant chemotherapy – given after surgery to reduce recurrence
Treatment of metastatic or recurrent breast cancer

Chemotherapy - can cause infertility

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23
Q

What options for reconstructing breasts after mastcetomy are there

A

Implants

Flap reconstruction

The breast can be reconstructed using a portion of the latissimus dorsi and the associated skin and fat tissue.

Transverse Rectus Abdominis Flap (TRAM Flap)

Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforator Flap (DIEP Flap)

The breast can be reconstructed using skin and subcutaneous fat from the abdomen (no muscle) as a free flap. The deep inferior epigastric artery, with the associated fat, skin and veins, is transplanted from the abdomen to the breast.

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24
Q

Name some plances that breast cancers can commonly metastise to.

A

You can remember the notable locations that breast cancer metastasis occur using 2 Ls and 2 Bs:

L – Lungs
L – Liver
B – Bones
B – Brain

TOM TIP: Breast cancer can spread to any region of the body. In patients with a metastatic tumour, regardless of where it is, the primary could be breast cancer. This is worth remembering, as you may be asked “where might this metastasis have originated” in an exam or OSCE scenario. If the patient is female, answering “breast cancer” will be a good answer. The other cancer that can spread practically anywhere, and may be less obvious, is melanoma (a type of skin cancer).

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25
Q

name a key complication of breast cancer surgery.

A

Lymphoedema is a chronic condition caused by impaired lymphatic drainage of an area.

The tissues in areas affected by an impaired lymphatic system become swollen with excess, protein-rich fluid (lymphoedema).

The lymphatic system also plays an important role in the immune system. Areas of lymphoedema are prone to infection.

It is important to remember that you should avoid taking blood or putting a cannula in the arm on the side of previous breast cancer removal surgery. This is because there is a higher risk of complications and infection due to the impaired lymphatic drainage on that side.

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26
Q

What are some ways to manage lymphoedema?

A

There are specialist lymphoedema services that can help manage patients. Non-surgical treatment options include:

Massage techniques to manually drain the lymphatic system (manual lymphatic drainage)
Compression bandages
Specific lymphoedema exercises to improve lymph drainage
Weight loss if overweight
Good skin care

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27
Q

Name some causes of benign breast lumps

A

Fibroadenoma
Fibrocystic Breast Changes
Breast Cysts
General variation in nodularity, often premenstrual

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28
Q

What are Fibroadenomas? In who are they more common in and why?

A

Fibroadenomas are common benign tumours of stromal/epithelial breast duct tissue.

They are more common in younger women, aged between 20 and 40 years. They respond to the female hormones (oestrogen and progesterone), which is why they are more common in younger women and often regress after menopause.

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29
Q

What are fibroademonas like on examination?

A

They are sometimes called a “breast mouse”, as they move around within the breast tissue.

Painless
Smooth
Round
Well circumscribed (well-defined borders)
Firm
Mobile (moves freely under the skin and above the chest wall)
Usually up to 3cm diameter

Women are usually reassured and only
advised to have surgical removal if they are large or prominent.

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30
Q

What are breast cysts? When do they most commonly occur?

A

Breast cysts are benign, individual, fluid-filled lumps. They are the most common cause of breast lumps and occur most often between ages 30 and 50, more so in the perimenopausal period.

They are an abnormal response of part of the breast to hormonal stimulation.

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31
Q

What is the criteria that must be fulfilled, in order for a breast cyst to be classed as bengin?

A

A breast cyst can be considered
benign if it satisfies the following criteria:
- the fluid is not blood stained
- there is no residual lump
- the same cyst does not continually refill

If any of the above is not fulfilled, an intracystic cancer should be considered and
appropriate investigation initiated.

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32
Q

How would a breast cyst fill on examination?

A

On examination, breast cysts are:

Smooth
Well-circumscribed
Mobile
Possibly fluctuant -Fluctuance refers to being able to move fluid around within the lump using pressure during palpation

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33
Q

What is a breast abscess? What are the two types

A

A breast abscess is a collection of pus within an area of the breast, usually caused by a bacterial infection. This may be a:

Lactational abscess (associated with breastfeeding, - usually peripheral in the breast)
Non-lactational abscess (unrelated to breastfeeding - usually associated with duct ectasia and therefore central.)

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34
Q

What is a key risk factor for a breast abscess/infection? What are some key signs and symptoms of it?

A

Smoking

The presentation of mastitis or breast abscesses is usually acute, meaning the onset is within a few days.

Mastitis with infection in the breast tissue presents with breast changes of:

Nipple changes
Purulent nipple discharge (pus from the nipple)
Localised pain
Tenderness
Warmth
Erythema (redness)
Hardening of the skin or breast tissue
Swelling

The key feature that suggests a breast abscess is a swollen, fluctuant, tender lump within the breast.

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35
Q

What is the management for lactational mastitis?

A

Lactational mastitis caused by blockage of the ducts is managed conservatively, with continued breastfeeding, expressing milk and breast massage. Heat packs, warm showers and simple analgesia can help symptoms.

Antibiotics (flucloxacillin or erythromycin/clarithromycin where there is penicillin allergy) are required where infection is suspected or symptoms do not improve.

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36
Q

What is the management for non-lactational mastitis?

A

Management of non-lactational mastitis involves:

Analgesia
Antibiotics
Treatment for the underlying cause (e.g., eczema or candidal infection)

Antibiotics for non-lactational mastitis need to be broad-spectrum. The NICE clinical knowledge summaries (last updated January 2021) recommend either:

Co-amoxiclav
Erythromycin/clarithromycin (macrolides) plus metronidazole
(to cover anaerobes)

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37
Q

What should you do if inflammation and redness hasnt improved after one anbtx course for mastitis?

A

If redness/inflammation hasn’t improved after one antbx course - refer to a breast specialist on suspicion of cancer!

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38
Q

What is Duct Ectasia?

A

dilation of the large ducts in the breasts. Ectasia means dilation. There is inflammation in the ducts, leading to intermittent discharge from the nipple. The discharge may be white, grey or green.

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39
Q

Itnwhat group does duct ectasia occur most frequently in? What are some presentations of it?

A

Mammary duct ectasia occurs most frequently in perimenopausal women. Smoking is a significant risk factor.

Presentation
Mammary duct ectasia may present with:

Nipple discharge
Tenderness or pain
Nipple retraction or inversion
A breast lump (pressure on the lump may produce nipple discharge)

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40
Q

What are some investigations of ductal ectasia?

A

The initial priority is to exclude breast cancer, as they can present in similar ways. This involves triple assessment with:

Clinical assessment (history and examination)
Imaging (ultrasound, mammography and MRI)
Histology (fine needle aspiration or core biopsy)

Ductography – contrast is injected into an abnormal duct, and mammograms are performed to visualise the duct
Nipple discharge cytology – examining the cells in a sample of the nipple discharge

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41
Q

What is the management of ductal ectasia?

A

Mammary duct ectasia may resolve without any treatment. It is not associated with an increased risk of cancer.

Management depends on the individual patient:

Reassurance after excluding cancer may be all that is required
Symptomatic management of mastalgia (supportive bra and warm compresses)
Antibiotics if infection is suspected or present
Surgical excision of the affected duct (microdochectomy) may be required in problematic cases

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42
Q

What is Pagets disease of the nipple? When should it be suspected?

A

This is an eczematous change of the nipple due to an underlying malignancy
(invasive or in-situ) and should be suspected in apparent nipple eczema that does
not resolve with two weeks of steroid/anti fungal cream

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43
Q

How is Pagets disease caused? What is the management of it?

A

It is caused by the infiltration of tumours cells through the ducts onto the nipple surface where
they infiltrate the epidermis.

Treatment is by excision either as mastectomy or
central (nipple excising) wide local excision.

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44
Q

What is a breast papilloma?

A

intraductal papillomas are benign tumours, and are warty lesion that grows within one of the ducts in the breast. It is the result of the proliferation of epithelial cells.

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45
Q

What is the presentation and diagnosis of a breast papilloma?

A

Intraductal papillomas are often asymptomatic. They may be picked up incidentally on mammograms or ultrasound.

They may present with:

Nipple discharge (clear or blood-stained)
Tenderness or pain
A palpable lump

Diagnosis
Patients require triple assessment with:

Clinical assessment (history and examination)
Imaging (ultrasound, mammography and MRI)
Histology (usually by core biopsy or vacuum-assisted biopsy)

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46
Q

What is the management of a ductal papilloma?

A

Management
Intraductal papillomas require complete surgical excision. After removal, the tissue is examined for atypical hyperplasia or cancer that may not have been picked up on the biopsy.

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47
Q

Embyrology (fuck) - What does upper vagina, cervix, uterus and fallopian tubes develop from? Why does this not occur in males?

A

upper vagina, cervix, uterus and fallopian tubes develop from the paramesonephric ducts (Mullerian ducts). These are a pair of passageways along the outside of the urogenital region that fuse and mature to become the uterus, fallopian tubes, cervix and upper third of the vagina.

In a male fetus, anti-Mullerian hormone is produced, which suppresses the growth of the paramesonephric ducts, causing them to disappear.

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48
Q

Congential malformations of the GU tract - what is a Bicronuate uterus? How do you manage it?

A

A bicornuate uterus is where there are two “horns” to the uterus, giving the uterus a heart-shaped appearance

A bicornuate uterus may be associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes. However, successful pregnancies are generally expected. In most cases, no specific management is required.

Typical complications include:

Miscarriage
Premature birth
Malpresentation

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49
Q

Congential malformations of the GU tract - what is an imperforate hymen? How may it present, and what is the management?

A

Imperforate hymen is where the hymen at the entrance of the vagina is fully formed, without an opening.

Imperforate hymen may be discovered when the girl starts to menstruate, and the menses are sealed in the vagina. This causes cyclical pelvic pain and cramping that would ordinarily be associated with menstruation, but without any vaginal bleeding.

An imperforate hymen can be diagnosed during a clinical examination. Treatment is with surgical incision to create an opening in the hymen.

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50
Q

What is Androgen insensitivity syndrome? What does it lead to?

A

A condition where cells are unable to respond to androgen hormones due to a lack of androgen receptors.

It is an X-linked recessive genetic condition, caused by a mutation in the androgen receptor gene on the X chromosome.

Extra androgens are converted into oestrogen, resulting in female secondary sexual characteristics.

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51
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome - what is the genotype of patients with it, and what sexual characteristics do they have?

A

are genetically male, with XY sex chromosomes. However, the absent response to testosterone and the conversion of additional androgens to estrogen result in a female phenotype externally.

Typical male sexual characteristics do not develop, and patients have normal female external genitalia and breast tissue.

Patients will have testes in the inguinal canal, that produce antimullerian hormone, which prevents males form developing upper vagina, uterus, cervix and fallopian tubes.

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52
Q

What is the presenation of complete androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

lack of pubic hair, facial hair and male type muscle development. Patients tend to be slightly taller than the female average. Patients are infertile, and there is an increased risk of testicular cancer unless the testes are removed.

Androgen insensitivity syndrome often presents in infancy with inguinal hernias containing testes. Alternatively, it presents at puberty with primary amenorrhoea.

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53
Q

What blood tests would you see in someone with androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Raised LH
Normal or raised FSH
Normal or raised testosterone levels (for a male)
Raised oestrogen levels (for a male)

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54
Q

What is parital androgen insensitivity syndrome, and what are some signs of it?

A

where there the cells have a partial response to androgens.

This presents with more ambiguous signs and symptoms, such as a micropenis or clitoromegaly, bifid scrotum, hypospadias and diminished male characteristics.

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55
Q

What is the management for androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Bilateral orchidectomy (removal of the testes) to avoid testicular tumours
Oestrogen therapy
Vaginal dilators or vaginal surgery can be used to create an adequate vaginal length

Generally, patients are raised as female, but this is sensitive and tailored to the individual. They are offered support and counselling to help them understand the condition and promote their psychological, social and sexual wellbeing.

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56
Q

What is menopause?

A
  • A retrospective diagnosis made after a woman has had no periods for 12 months
  • It is defined as a permanent end to menstruation
  • Menopause is the point at which menstruation stops
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57
Q

What is perimenopause, postmenopausal and premature menopause?

A
  • Perimenopause refers to the time around the menopause, where the woman may be experiencing vasomotor symptoms and irregular periods.
  • Postmenopausal describes the period from 12 months after the final menstrual period onwards.
  • Premature menopause is menopause before the age of 40 years. It is the result of premature ovarian insufficiency.
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58
Q

What causes menopause?

A
  • It is caused by a lack of ovarian follicular function, resulting in changes in the sex hormones associated with the menstrual cycle
  • Oestrogen and progesterone levels are low
  • LH and FSH levels are high in response to an absence of negative feedback from oestrogen
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59
Q

Describe how oestrogen is released during the menstrual cycle ?

A
  • In the ovaries the process of primordial follicles maturing is into primary and secondary follicles is always occurring
  • At the start of the menstrual cycle FSH stimulates the further development of secondary follicles
  • As the follicles grow the granulosa cells that surround them secrete increasing amounts of oestrogen
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60
Q

How does the menopause begin?

A
  • The menopause begins with a decline in the development of ovarian follicles
  • Without the growth and development of the follicles there is reduced production of oestrogen
  • This results in increasing levels of LH and FSH as oestrogen has a negative feedback on these hormones in the pituitary gland
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61
Q

How is the menstrual cycle affected in the menopause?

A
  • Falling follicular development means ovulation does not occur (anovulation)
  • Without oestrogen the endometrium does not develop leading to a lack of menstruation (Amenorrhoea)
  • The low levels of oestrogen lead to the perimenopausal symptoms
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62
Q

What are the perimenopausal symptoms?

A
  • Hot flushes
  • Emotional lability or low mood
  • Premenstrual syndrome
  • Irregular periods
  • Joint pains
  • Heavier or lighter periods
  • Vaginal dryness and atrophy
  • Reduced libido
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63
Q

What does a lack of oestrogen increase the risks of?

A
  • CVD
  • Osteoporosis
  • Pelvic organ collapse
  • Urinary incontinence
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64
Q

How can menopause be diagnosed?

A
  • Symptoms without blood test
  • Use FSH blood test in women under 40 or aged 40-45 with menopausal symptoms
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65
Q

How long do women need to use contraception for after the menopause?

A
  • Two years after the last menstrual period in women under 50
  • One year after the last menstrual period in women over 50
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66
Q

What is the management of perimenopausal symptoms?

A

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

Tibolone, a synthetic steroid hormone that acts as continuous combined HRT (only after 12 months of amenorrhoea)

Clonidine, which act as agonists of alpha-adrenergic and imidazoline receptors

Testosterone can be used to treat reduced libido (usually as a gel or cream)

Vaginal oestrogen cream or tablets, to help with vaginal dryness and atrophy (can be used alongside systemic HRT)

Vaginal moisturisers, such as Sylk, Replens and YES

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67
Q

What can be used to help with the vasomotor symptoms of the menopause? The hot flushses and night sweats

A

Clonidine which is a alpha-2 agonist

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68
Q

What are the indications of HRT?

A

Replacing hormones in premature ovarian insufficiency, even without symptoms

Reducing vasomotor symptoms such as hot flushes and night sweats

Improving symptoms such as low mood, decreased libido, poor sleep and joint pain

Reducing risk of osteoporosis in women under 60 years

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69
Q

What are the risks of HRT

A
  • Breast and endometrial cancer
  • Angina
  • Increased risk of VTE with oral pill
  • Women are not at increased risk under 50
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70
Q

What are some contraindications for HRT?

A

Undiagnosed abnormal bleeding
Endometrial hyperplasia or cancer
Breast cancer
Uncontrolled hypertension
Venous thromboembolism
Liver disease
Active angina or myocardial infarction
Pregnancy

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71
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A
  • When endometrial tissue (tissue that lines the uterus) grows in the Myometrium (the muscular layer of the uterus)
  • It is more common in later reproductive years and those that have had several pregnancies
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72
Q

What is the presentation of Adenomyosis?

A

Painful periods (dysmenorrhoea)
Heavy periods (menorrhagia)
Pain during intercourse (dyspareunia)

It may also present with infertility or pregnancy related complications. 1/3 of patients will be asymptomatic

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73
Q

What will an examination of Adenomyosis show?

A
  • An enlarged tender uterus that will feel mores soft than a uterus containing fibroids
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74
Q

How would you diagnose Adenomyosis?

A

transvaginal ultrasound

  • The gold standard is a histological examination of the uterus after a hysterectomy
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75
Q

What is the management of Adenomyosis when contraception is not wanted?

A
  • Tranexamic acid when there is no associated pain (antifibrinolytic so reduces bleeding)
  • Mefenamic acid where there is associated pain (NSAID reduces bleeding and pain)
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76
Q

What is the management of Adenomyosis when contraception is wanted or acceptable?

A

Mirena coil (first line)
Combined oral contraceptive pill
Cyclical oral progestogens

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77
Q

What complications can adenomyosis cause in pregnancy?

A
  • Infertility
  • Miscarriage
  • Preterm birth
  • Small for gestational age
  • Preterm premature rupture of membranes
  • Malpresentation
  • Need for caesarean section
  • Postpartum haemorrhage
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78
Q

What is Asherman’s syndrome?

A
  • It is where adhesions (sometimes called synechiae) form within the uterus following damage to the uterus

Endometrial curettage (scraping) can damage the basal layer of the endometrium

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79
Q

Give some causes of Ashermans syndrome

A

Usually Asherman’s syndrome occurs after a pregnancy-related dilatation and curettage procedure, for example in the treatment of retained products of conception (removing placental tissue left behind after birth)

can also occur after uterine surgery (e.g. myomectomy) or several pelvic infection (e.g. endometritis).

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80
Q

What happens as a result of the adhesions Asherman’s syndrome?

A
  • The damage endometrium forms scar tissue which connects areas of the uterus that are not usually connected
  • These adhesions may bind the uterine walls together or the endocervix sealing it shut
  • These adhesions form physical obstructions and distort the pelvic organs
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81
Q

What are the symptoms Asherman’s syndrome?

A
  • Secondary amenorrhoea (as the adhesion tissue does not respond to oestrogen)
  • Significantly lighter periods
  • Dysmenorrhoea
  • Infertility

Adhesions may be found incidentally during hysteroscopy. Asymptomatic adhesions are not classified as Asherman’s syndrome.

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82
Q

How would you diagnose and manage Asherman’s syndrome? What is the management?

A

Hysteroscopy is the gold standard investigation, and can involve dissection and treatment of the adhesions

Hysterosalpingography, where contrast is injected into the uterus and imaged with x-rays

Sonohysterography, where the uterus is filled with fluid and a pelvic ultrasound is performed

MRI scan

Management is dissecting the adhesions during hysteroscopy

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83
Q

What is Lichen Sclerosis? Where does it occur

A

a chronic inflammatory skin condition that presents with patches of shiny, “porcelain-white” skin.

It commonly affects the labia, perineum and perianal skin in women. Can affect foreskin and glans of the penis

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84
Q

What conditions is Lichen sclerosus assossciated with? describe the changes that occur

A

Lichen sclerosus is thought to be an autoimmune condition. It is associated with other autoimmune diseases, such as type 1 diabetes, alopecia, hypothyroid and vitiligo.

Changes affect the labia, perianal and perineal skin. There can be associated fissures, cracks, erosions or haemorrhages under the skin. The affected skin appears:

“Porcelain-white” in colour
Shiny
Tight
Thin
Slightly raised
There may be papules or plaques

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85
Q

Outline the presentation of Lichen sclerosus

A

The typical presentation in your exams is a woman aged 45 – 60 years complaining of vulval itching and skin changes in the vulva. The condition may be asymptomatic, or present with several symptoms:

Itching
Soreness and pain possibly worse at night
Skin tightness
Painful sex (superficial dyspareunia)
Erosions
Fissures

The Koebner phenomenon refers to when the signs and symptoms are made worse by friction to the skin. This occurs with lichen sclerosus - worsened by tight underwear, and urinary incontinence

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86
Q

What is the treatment for lichen sclerosus?

A
  • Topical potent steroids (dermovate) used long term and reduce the risk of malignancy
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87
Q

What is the main complication of lichen sclerosus?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva

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88
Q

What is atrophic vaginitis?

A

Is the dryness and atrophy of the vaginal mucosa related to a lack of oestrogen

The epithelial lining of the vagina and urinary tract responds to oestrogen by becoming thicker, more elastic and producing secretions. As women enter the menopause, oestrogen levels fall, resulting in the mucosa becoming thinner, less elastic and more dry. The tissue is more prone to inflammation. There are also changes in the vaginal pH and microbial flora that can contribute to localised infections.

can also be referred to as genitourinary syndrome of menopause

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89
Q

What can a lack of oestrogen contribute to?

A

Oestrogen also helps maintain healthy connective tissue around the pelvic organs, and a lack of oestrogen can contribute to pelvic organ prolapse and stress incontinence.

Weak or brittle bones

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90
Q

What is the presentation of atrophic vaginitis? What other conditiosn should make you consider it?

A

Itching
Dryness
Dyspareunia (discomfort or pain during sex)
Bleeding due to localised inflammation

consider it in older women presenting with recurrent urinary tract infections, stress incontinence or pelvic organ prolapse.

Specifcially ask symptoms of vaginal dryness and discomfort!!

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91
Q

What is the management of atrophic vaginitis?

A

Vaginal lubricants can help symptoms of dryness. Examples include Sylk, Replens and YES.

Topical oestrogen
- Estriol Cream or pessaries
- Estradiol Tablets or a ring

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92
Q

Give some complicaitons of topical oestrogen and outline how its use should be used, in atrophic vaginitis.

A

Topical oestrogen shares many contraindications with systemic HRT, such as breast cancer, angina and venous thromboembolism.

Women should be monitored at least annually, with a view of stopping treatment whenever possible.

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93
Q

What is the main type of vulval cancer?

What are the risk factors for it

A

Around 90% are squamous cell carcinomas.

Advanced age (particularly over 75 years)
Immunosuppression
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
Lichen sclerosus .

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94
Q

What is Vulva Intraepithelial Neoplasia? What are two main types and what are they assossicated with?

A

It’s a type of premalignant condition affecting the squamous epithelium of the skin that can precede vulval cancer

High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is a type of VIN associated with HPV infection that typically occurs in younger women aged 35 – 50 years.

Differentiated VIN is an alternative type of VIN associated with lichen sclerosus and typically occurs in older women (aged 50 – 60 years).

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95
Q

What is the presentation of vulval cancer

A

Vulval cancer may present with symptoms of:

Vulval lump
Ulceration
Bleeding
Pain
Itching
Lymphadenopathy in the groin

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96
Q

What are the investigations and management for vulval cancer?

A

Suspected vulval cancer should be referred on a 2-week-wait urgent cancer referral.

Biopsy of the lesion
Sentinel node biopsy to demonstrate lymph node spread
Further imaging for staging

Management
Wide local excision to remove the cancer
Groin lymph node dissection
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy

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97
Q

What are the types of cervical cancer?

A
  • 80% are squamous cell carcinomas
  • Adenocarcinoma
  • Rarely small cell cancer
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98
Q

What is the main risk factor for cervical cancer?

A

HPV

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99
Q

At what age are girls vaccinated against HPV?

A

12-13

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100
Q

What is HPV?

A
  • It is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause anal, vulval, vaginal, penis, mouth and throat cancers
  • HPV proteins e6 and e7 inhibit tumour suppressor genes p53(e6) and pRb(e7)
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101
Q

What types of HPV are the main causes of cervical cancer?

A

Type 16 and type 18. There is no treatment for HPV most resolve spontaneously

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102
Q

What puts you at increased risk of catching HPV?

A

Early sexual activity
Increased number of sexual partners
Sexual partners who have had more partners
Not using condoms

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103
Q

What are some other risk factors for cervical cancer?

A

HPV infection

Smoking

HIV (patients with HIV are offered yearly smear tests)
Combined contraceptive pill use for more than five years
Increased number of full-term pregnancies

Family history

Exposure to diethylstilbestrol during fetal development (this was previously used to prevent miscarriages before 1971)

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104
Q

What are the symptoms of cervical cancer?

A
  • Many paitents are asymptomatic and picked up on screening
  • Abnormal vaginal bleeding (intermenstrual, postcoital or post-menopausal bleeding)
  • Vaginal discharge
  • Pelvic pain
  • Dyspareunia (pain or discomfort with sex)
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105
Q

What appearance of the cervix is suggestive of cancer?

A

Ulceration
Inflammation
Bleeding
Visible tumour

Patients should be referred for a colposcopy

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106
Q

What is Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia?

A

it is a grading system for the level of dysplasia in the cells of the cervix

CIN I: mild dysplasia, affecting 1/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to return to normal without treatment
CIN II: moderate dysplasia, affecting 2/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to progress to cancer if untreated
CIN III: severe dysplasia, very likely to progress to cancer if untreated
CIN III is sometimes called cervical carcinoma in situ.

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107
Q

How cervical cancer screened for?

A
  • A cervical smear test which is a collection of cells for the cervix
  • Cells are examined under a microscope for precancerous changes (Dyskaryosis)

This method is called liquid-based cytology

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108
Q

How often should screening occur?

A

Every three years aged 25 – 49
Every five years aged 50 – 64

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109
Q

What are the exceptions to the normal cervical screening program?

A

Women with HIV are screened annually

Women over 65 may request a smear if they have not had one since aged 50

Women with previous CIN may require additional tests (e.g. test of cure after treatment)

Certain groups of immunocompromised women may have additional screening (e.g. women on dialysis, cytotoxic drugs or undergoing an organ transplant)

Pregnant women due a routine smear should wait until 12 weeks post-partum

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110
Q

What is the management of a cervical screen?

A

Inadequate sample – repeat the smear after at least three months

HPV negative – continue routine screening

HPV positive with normal cytology – repeat the
HPV test after 12 months

HPV positive with abnormal cytology – refer for colposcopy

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111
Q

What are the different stages of cervical cancer?

A

FIGO staging

Stage 1: Confined to the cervix
Stage 2: Invades the uterus or upper 2/3 of the vagina
Stage 3: Invades the pelvic wall or lower 1/3 of the vagina
Stage 4: Invades the bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis

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112
Q

What is the management for the different stages of cervical cancer

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and early-stage 1A: LLETZ or cone biopsy - Moving a section of abnormal cells

Stage 1B – 2A: Radical hysterectomy and removal of local lymph nodes with chemotherapy and radiotherapy

Stage 2B – 4A: Chemotherapy and radiotherapy

Stage 4B: Management may involve a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy and palliative care

5 year survival drops significantly with more advanced cervical cancer, from around 98% with stage 1A to around 15% with stage 4

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113
Q

What monoclonal antibody can be used to treat cervical cancer?

A

Bevacizumab (avastin)

r. It targets vascular endothelial growth factor A (VEGF-A), which is responsible for the development of new blood vessels.

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114
Q

What is the vaccine for HPV?

A

Needs to be given to boys and girls before they become sexually active
Gardasil protects against strains 6, 11, 16 and 18:

Strains 6 and 11 cause genital warts
Strains 16 and 18 cause cervical cancer

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115
Q

What is the main type of endometrial cancer?

A

Endometrial Cancer

80% of cases are adenocarcinomas

It is an oestrogen dependant cancer meaning that oestrogen stimulates the growth of endometrial cancer cells

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116
Q

What is the key presentation of endometrial cancer?

A
  • Post menopausal women with bleeding
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117
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia?

A
  • Endometrial hyperplasia is a precancerous condition involving thickening of the endometrium
  • Treated by a specialist using progestogens, with either:

Intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena coil)
Continuous oral progestogens (e.g. medroxyprogesterone or levonorgestrel)

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118
Q

What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer?

A
  • Unopposed oestrogen (oestrogen without progesterone)

Increased age
Earlier onset of menstruation
Late menopause
Oestrogen only hormone replacement therapy
No or fewer pregnancies
Obesity
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Tamoxifen

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119
Q

Why is obesity a risk factor for endometrial cancer?

A
  • Fat tissue is a source of oestrogen as it produces aromatase which converts androgens
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120
Q

Why is T2DM a risk factor for endometrial cancer?

A

Insulin may stimulate the endometrial cells and increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.

PCOS is also associated with insulin resistance and increased insulin production. Insulin resistance further adds to the risk of endometrial cancer in women with PCOS.

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121
Q

What are some protective factors for endometrial cancer?

A
  • Combined pill
  • Mirena coil
  • Increased pregnancies
  • Cigarette smoking

Oestrogen may be metabolised differently in smokers
Smokers tend to be leaner, meaning they have less adipose tissue and aromatase enzyme
Smoking destroys oocytes (eggs), resulting in an earlier menopause

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122
Q

What are the symptoms of endometrial cancer?

A

postmenopausal bleeding

Postcoital bleeding
Intermenstrual bleeding
Unusually heavy menstrual bleeding
Abnormal vaginal discharge
Haematuria
Anaemia
Raised platelet count

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123
Q

What is the referral criteria for endometrial cancer?

A
  • Postmenopausal bleeding (12 months after last period)

Transvaginal ultrasound in women over 55 with:
- Unexplained vaginal discharge
- Visible haematuria plus raised platelets anaemia or raised glucose levels

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124
Q

What are the investigations for endometrial cancer?

A
  • Transvaginal ultrasound for endometrial thickness (normal is less than 4mm post-menopause)

Pipelle biopsy, which is highly sensitive for endometrial cancer making it useful for excluding cancer

It involves a speculum examination and inserting a thin tube (pipelle) through the cervix into the uterus. This small tube fills with a sample of endometrial tissue that can be examined for signs of endometrial hyperplasia or cancer

125
Q

What are the FIGO stages for endometrial cancer?

A

Stage 1: Confined to the uterus
Stage 2: Invades the cervix
Stage 3: Invades the ovaries, fallopian tubes, vagina or lymph nodes
Stage 4: Invades bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis

126
Q

What is the treatment for endometrial cancer?

A
  • Stage 1 and 2 is a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Progesterone may be used as a hormonal treatment to slow the progression of the cancer

127
Q

What is thought to cause endometrial polyps?

A

It is estimated that they are present in 25% of women with abnormal vaginal bleeding

No definitive cause of endometrial polyps is known, but they appear to be affected by hormone levels and grow in response to circulating estrogen.

Risk factors include obesity, high blood pressure and a history of cervical polyps.[3] Taking tamoxifen or hormone replacement therapy can also increase the risk of uterine polyps

128
Q

How should you manage endometrial polyps?

A

Removal by curettage or operative
hysteroscopy. (All polyps removed should be examined histologically.)

129
Q

What is primary amenorrhoea?

A
  • By 13 years when there is no other evidence of pubertal development
  • By 15 years of age where there are other signs of puberty, such as breast bud development
130
Q

What are some causes of primary amenorrhoea?

A

Hypogonadism
Kallman Syndrome
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
Structural Pathology

131
Q

What are the two types of hypogonadism?

A

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism: a deficiency of LH and FSH
Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism: a lack of response to LH and FSH by the gonads (the testes and ovaries)

132
Q

What is Secondary amenorrhea?

A

No menstruation more than 3 months after regular periods

Consider assessment and investigation after three to six months. In women with previously infrequent irregular periods, consider investigating after six to twelve months.

133
Q

What are some causes of Secondary amenorrhea?

A

Pregnancy is the most common cause

Menopause and premature ovarian failure

Hormonal contraception (e.g. IUS or POP)

Hypothalamic or pituitary pathology

Ovarian causes such as polycystic ovarian syndrome

Uterine pathology such as Asherman’s syndrome

Thyroid pathology

Hyperprolactinaemia

134
Q

What can cause the hypothalamus to reduce production of GnRH?

A

Excessive exercise (e.g. athletes)
Low body weight and eating disorders
Chronic disease
Psychological stress

135
Q

Why can a prolactinoma cause secondary amenorrhoea?

A
  • As prolactin inhibits the production of GnRH
136
Q

What is a risk of secondary amenorrhoea?

A

Osteoporosis

Ensure adequate vitamin D and calcium intake
Hormone replacement therapy or the combined oral contraceptive pill

137
Q

Define
a) Endometriosis
b) Lump of endometrail tissue outside uterus
c) Endometrial tissue in the myometrium

A

Endometriosis is a condition where there is ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterus.
A lump of endometrial tissue outside the uterus is described as an endometrioma
Adenomyosis refers to endometrial tissue within the myometrium (muscle layer) of the uterus.

138
Q

What is thought to cause endometriosis?

A

No genes have been found, but there does seem to be a genetic link
retrograde menstruation - endometrial lining flows backwards, through the fallopian tubes and out into the pelvis and peritoneum.

Embryonic cells destined to become endometrial tissue may remain in areas outside the uterus during the development of the fetus, and later develop into ectopic endometrial tissue.
endometrial cells may through the lymphatic system,

Cells outside the uterus under go metaplasic to become endometrial cells

139
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of the symptoms seen in endometriosis

A

During menstruation, as the endometrial tissue in the uterus sheds its lining and bleeds, - leads to irritation and inflammation of the tissues around the sites of endometriosis

This results in the cyclical, dull, heavy or burning pain that occurs during menstruation in patients with endometriosis.

Deposits of endometriosis in the bladder or bowel can lead to blood in the urine or stools.

140
Q

Why does adhesions happen in endometriosis, and what does that lead to?

A

Inflammation causes damage and development of scar tissue that binds the organs together

Adhesions lead to a chronic, non-cyclical pain that can be sharp, stabbing or pulling and associated with nausea.

Adhesions around the ovaries and fallopian tubes, can block the release of eggs or kink the fallopian tubes and obstruct the route to the uterus.

Endometriomas in the ovaries may also damage eggs or prevent effective ovulation.

141
Q

What is the presentation of endometriosis?

A

Endometriosis can be asymptomatic in some cases, or present with a number of symptoms:

Cyclical abdominal or pelvic pain
Deep dyspareunia (pain on deep sexual intercourse)
Dysmenorrhoea (painful periods)
Infertility
Cyclical bleeding from other sites, such as haematuria
There can also be cyclical symptoms relating to other areas affected by the endometriosis:

Urinary symptoms
Bowel symptoms

142
Q

When should you think of Endometriosis, and how may you distinguish it from recurrent UTIs?

A

look for nitrites on urine dip to distinguish present in UTI but not edometriosis! (where blood and protein will be present on urine dip in endometriosis)

  • Some has had antbx for UTI symptoms, that appear to go away as pain is cyclical, only for it to return again the next month - might not actually be UTI

can be on bowel, lung, bladder, fallopian tubes, - so think of it as a differential if symptoms are recurrnet ?

143
Q

What would examination reveal in endometriosis, and what investigations would you do for it?

A

Examination may reveal:

Endometrial tissue visible in the vagina on speculum examination, particularly in the posterior fornix
A fixed cervix on bimanual examination
Tenderness in the vagina, cervix and adnexa

US - can pick up chocolate cysts, but not always reliable

Patients with suspected endometriosis need referral to a gynecologist for laparoscopy.

Laparoscopic surgery is the gold standard way to diagnose abdominal and pelvic endometriosis. A definitive diagnosis can be established with a biopsy of the lesions during laparoscopy. Laparoscopy has the added benefit of allowing the surgeon to remove deposits of endometriosis and potentially improve symptoms.

144
Q

Outline the staging endometriosis

A

Stage 1: Small superficial lesions
Stage 2: Mild, but deeper lesions than stage 1
Stage 3: Deeper lesions, with lesions on the ovaries and mild adhesions
Stage 4: Deep and large lesions affecting the ovaries with extensive adhesions

145
Q

What is the intiial management of endometriosis?

A

Establishing a diagnosis
Providing a clear explanation
Listening to the patient, establishing their ideas, concerns and expectations and building a partnership
Analgesia as required for pain (NSAIDs and paracetamol first line)

146
Q

What is the hormonal management of endometriosis

A

Hormonal management options can be tried before establishing a definitive diagnosis with laparoscopy:

Combined oral contractive pill, which can be used back to back without a pill-free period if helpful
Progesterone only pill
Medroxyprogesterone acetate injection (e.g. Depo-Provera)
Mirena coil
GnRH agonists - induce a menopause-like state, eg ** goserelin (Zoladex) or leuprorelin (Prostap).**

Cyclical pain can be treated with hormonal medications that stop ovulation and reduce endometrial thickening.

147
Q

What is the surgical management of endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopic surgery can be used to excise or ablate the ectopic endometrial tissue
urgery can be used to dissect the adhesions and attempt to return the anatomy to normal.

Hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-opherectomy is the final surgical option. During the procedure, the surgeon will attempt to remove as much of the endometriosis as possible.

The surgery can lead help with infertility due to endometriosis

148
Q

What are fibroids? What is another term for them

A

Benign smooth muscle tumours of the uterine myometrium.

They are also called uterine leiomyomas. They are very common, affecting 40-60% of women in later reproductive years, and are more common in black women compared with other ethnic groups.

149
Q

What hormone is thought to stimulate fibroid development?

A

Oestrogen.

150
Q

How are fibroids classified?

A

Fibroids are classified according tot heir position in the uterine wall, for example:

Intramural means within the myometrium (the muscle of the uterus). As they grow, they change the shape and distort the uterus.

Subserosal means just below the outer layer of the uterus. These fibroids grow outwards and can become very large, filling the abdominal cavity.

Submucosal means just below the lining of the uterus (the endometrium).

Pedunculated means on a stalk.

151
Q

With regards to position in the uterine wall, what type of fibroids are most common?

A

Intramural - fibroids confined to the myometrium.

152
Q

Give 4 risk factors for the development of fibroids.

A
  1. Obesity.
  2. Early menarche.
  3. Family history.
  4. Increasing age.
153
Q

Give some symptoms of fibroids.

A
  1. Pain.
  2. Infertility/sub-fertility.
  3. Menorrhagia.
  4. Pressure symptoms e.g. urinary frequency if pressing on bladder.
  5. Can cause iron deficiency anaemia -> lethargy and pallor.
    Bloating or feeling full in the abdomen
    Deep dyspareunia (pain during intercourse)
    Can be asymptomateic
154
Q

What investigations might you do to determine if a patient has fibroids?

A

Abdominal and bimanual examination may reveal a palpable pelvic mass or an enlarged firm non-tender uterus

Investigations
Hysteroscopy is the initial investigation for submucosal fibroids presenting with heavy menstrual bleeding.

Pelvic ultrasound is the investigation of choice for larger fibroids.

MRI scanning may be considered before surgical options, where more information is needed about the size, shape and blood supply of the fibroids.

2. Hysteroscopy.

155
Q

Describe the different treatment options for uterine fibroids less than 3cm

A

NICE guidelines on fibroids are included within the heavy menstrual bleeding guideline from 2018.

For fibroids less than 3 cm, the medical management is the same as with heavy menstrual bleeding:

Mirena coil (1st line) – fibroids must be less than 3cm with no distortion of the uterus
Symptomatic management with NSAIDs and tranexamic acid
Combined oral contraceptive
Cyclical oral progestogens

156
Q

Describe the different treatment options for large uterine fibroids with heavy menstrual bleeding

A

Uterine artery embolisation
GnRH agonists, such as goserelin (Zoladex) or leuprorelin (Prostap), may be used to reduce the size of fibroids before surgery.

Myomectomy involves surgically removing the fibroid via laparoscopic (keyhole) surgery or laparotomy (open surgery). Myomectomy is the only treatment known to potentially improve fertility in patients with fibroids.

Endometrial ablation can be used to destroy the endometrium

Hysterectomy involves removing the uterus and fibroids.

157
Q

What are some complications of fibroids

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding, often with iron deficiency anaemia
Reduced fertility
Pregnancy complications, such as miscarriages, premature labour and obstructive delivery
Constipation
Urinary outflow obstruction and urinary tract infections
Red degeneration may occur as the fibroid rapidly enlarges during pregnancy, outgrowing its blood supply and becoming ischaemic.

Look out for the pregnant woman with a history of fibroids presenting with severe abdominal pain and a low-grade fever in your exams. The diagnosis is likely to be red degeneration.

158
Q

Give 3 differentials for uterine fibroids.

A
  1. Endometrial polyps.
  2. Cancer.
  3. Endometriosis/adenomyosis.
  4. Chronic PID.
159
Q

What is a hydatidiform mole?

A
  • A type of tumour that grows like a pregnancy inside the uterus
  • This is called a molar pregnancy
160
Q

What are the two types of hydatidiform mole?

A
  • Partial mole: when two sperm cells fertilise a normal ovum at the same time and it has 3 sets of chromones called a haploid cell
  • Complete mole: when two sperm fertilise and ovum that contains no genetic material
161
Q

How would you diagnose a molar pregnancy?

A

Will behave like a normal pregnancy

Indications will be:
- More severe morning sickness
- Vaginal bleeding
- Increased enlargement of uterus
- Abnormally high hCG
- Thyrotoxicosis as hCG can mimic TSH

Ultrasound will show snowstorm appearance of the pregnancy

162
Q

What is the treatment for a molar pregnancy?

A
  • Evacuation of the uterus
  • Monitoring of hCG levels
  • Can metastasise so maybe chemo required
163
Q

What is galactorrhea?

A

Galactorrhoea refers to breast milk production not associated with pregnancy or breastfeeding. Breast milk is produced in response to the hormone prolactin.

Prolactin is produced in the anterior pituitary gland. It is also produced in other organs, such as the breast and prostate

164
Q

Name some causes of galactorrhea.

A

Idiopathic (no cause can be found)
Prolactinomas (hormone-secreting pituitary tumours)
Endocrine disorders, particularly hypothyroidism and polycystic ovarian syndrome
Medications, particularly dopamine antagonists (i.e., antipsychotic medications) - as dopamine inhibits prolactin!

Dopamine agonists (e.g., bromocriptine or cabergoline) can be used to suppress prolactin secretion.

165
Q

What is a prolactinoma? What genetic condition are they often assossciated with?

A

This may be associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1, an autosomal dominant genetic condition.

Prolactinomas can be:

Microprolactinomas – smaller than 10 mm
Macroprolactinomas – larger than 10 mm

166
Q

What are some symptoms of a prolactinoma?

A

Macroadenomas can have adverse effects relating to their size:

Headaches
Bitemporal hemianopia (loss of the outer visual fields in both eyes

Symptoms of increased prolactin:

Prolactin suppresses gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus, leading to reduced LH and FSH release. Therefore, hyperprolactinaemia can also present with:

Menstrual irregularities, particularly amenorrhoea (absent periods)
Reduced libido (low sex drive)
Erectile dysfunction (in men)
Gynaecomastia (in men)

167
Q

What is the treatment of a prolactinoma?

A

Dopamine agonists (e.g., bromocriptine or cabergoline) can be used to treat the symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia. They block prolactin secretion and improve symptoms.

Trans-sphenoidal surgical removal of the pituitary tumour

168
Q

Why is ovarian cancer dangerous?

A
  • It has very non-specific symptoms more than 70% of patients present when it has spread beyond the pelvis
169
Q

What are the different types of ovarian tumours?

A
  • Epithelial cell tumours (most common)
  • Germ cell tumours they are associated with ovarian torsion and can cause raised ** alpha fetoprotein** and hCG
  • Sex cord-stromal tumours

They may also be a metastasis called a krukenberg tumour usually from a GI tumour. They produce signet ring cells on histology

170
Q

What are the risk factors and protective factors for ovarian cancer?

A

Risk factors:
- Age (peaks age 60)
- BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes (consider the family history)
- Increased number of ovulations
- Obesity
- Smoking
- Recurrent use of clomifene -medication used to treat infertility in women who do not ovulate

Protective factors:
- Combined contraceptive pill
- Breastfeeding
- Pregnancy
Later onset of periods (menarche)
Early menopause

171
Q

What are the symptoms of ovarian cancer?

A

Abdominal bloating
Early satiety (feeling full after eating)
Loss of appetite
Pelvic pain
Urinary symptoms (frequency / urgency)
Weight loss
Abdominal or pelvic mass
Ascites

Can cause hip or groin pain due to compression on the obturator nerve

172
Q

What is the criteria for the 2 week wait for ovarian cancer?

A
  • Ascites
  • Pelvic mass
  • Abdominal mass
173
Q

What are the initial investigations for ovarian cancer?

A
  • Raised CA125 blood test
  • Pelvic ultrasound
174
Q

What else can cause a raised CA125? What is it?

A

CA125 is a tumour marker for epithelial cell ovarian cancer. It is not very specific, and there are many non-malignant causes of a raised CA125:

Endometriosis
Fibroids
Adenomyosis
Pelvic infection
Liver disease
Pregnancy

175
Q

What is the FIGO staging for ovarian cancer?

A

Stage 1: Confined to the ovary
Stage 2: Spread past the ovary but inside the pelvis
Stage 3: Spread past the pelvis but inside the abdomen
Stage 4: Spread outside the abdomen (distant metastasis)

176
Q

What is the management of ovarian cancer?

A

Ovarian cancer will be managed by a specialist gynaecology oncology MDT. It usually involves a combination of surgery and chemotherapy.

177
Q

What is an ovarian cyst? What are the two types?

A

An ovarian cyst is a fluid-filled sac that develops on an ovary.

  • Are very common in premenopausal women and are normally benign
  • Postmenopausal cysts are more concerning for malignancy and need further investigations

Either functional or pathological

178
Q

Outline the differences between functional and pathological ovarian cysts.

A

Functional Cysts - either one of
Follicular cysts represent the developing follicle. When these fail to rupture and release the egg, the cyst can persist.
Corpus luteum cysts occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and instead fills with fluid

Pathological cysts are caused by abnormal cell growth and are not related to the menstrual cycle. They can develop before and after the menopause.

Pathological cysts develop from either the cells used to create eggs or the cells that cover the outer part of the ovary.

They can sometimes burst, twist or grow very large and block the blood supply to the ovaries.

179
Q

What is the presentation of ovarian cysts?

A

Most ovarian cysts are asymptomatic. Cysts are often found incidentally on pelvic ultrasound scans.

Can cause
Pelvic pain
Bloating
Fullness in the abdomen
A palpable pelvic mass (particularly with very large cysts such as mucinous cystadenomas)
Ovarian cysts may present with acute pelvic pain if there is ovarian torsion, haemorrhage or rupture of the cyst.

180
Q

What are some features of an ovarain mass that would point toward a more malignant cause?

A

Abdominal bloating
Reduce appetite
Early satiety
Weight loss
Urinary symptoms
Pain
Ascites
Lymphadenopathy

Assess for risk factors for ovarian malignancy:

Age
Postmenopause
Increased number of ovulations
Obesity
Hormone replacement therapy
Smoking
Breastfeeding (protective)
Family history and BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes

181
Q

What is the risk of malignancy index?

A

Estimates the risk of an ovarian mass being malignant, taking account of three things:

Menopausal status
Ultrasound findings
CA125 level

182
Q

What is the management for a simple ovarian cyst in a premenopausal women? (size dependant)

A

Simple ovarian cysts in premenopausal women can be managed based on their size:

Less than 5cm cysts will almost always resolve within three cycles. They do not require a follow-up scan.
5cm to 7cm: Require routine referral to gynaecology and yearly ultrasound monitoring.
More than 7cm: Consider an MRI scan or surgical evaluation as they can be difficult to characterise with ultrasound.

183
Q

What is the management of cysts in a postmenopausal women?

A

Cysts in postmenopausal women generally require correlation with the CA125 result and referral to a gynaecologist. When there is a raised CA125, this should be a two-week wait suspected cancer referral. Simple cysts under 5cm with a normal CA125 may be monitored with an ultrasound every 4 – 6 months.

184
Q

What is the mangaement for persistent or enlarging cysts?

A

surgical intervention (usually with laparoscopy). Surgery may involve removing the cyst (ovarian cystectomy), possibly along with the affected ovary (oophorectomy).W

185
Q

What are some complications of an ovarian cyst?

A

Complications
Consider complications when patients present with acute onset pain. The main complications are:

Torsion
Hemorrhage into the cyst
Rupture, with bleeding into the peritoneum

Meig’s Syndrome:
involves a triad of

Ovarian fibroma (a type of benign ovarian tumor)
Pleural effusion
Ascites

186
Q

What is ovarian torsion?

A

Ovarian torsion is a condition where the ovary twists in relation to the surrounding connective tissue/ligaments , fallopian tube and blood supply (the adnexa).

187
Q

What are some causes/risk factors for ovarian torsion?

A

Can be spontaneous

usually due to an ovarian mass larger than 5cm eg cyst or a tumour. More likely to occur with benign tumours.

Pregancy

younger girls before menarche (the first period), when girls have longer infundibulopelvic ligaments that can twist more easily.

Ovulation induction - hormonal therapy to stimulate egg development and release, or ovulation.

188
Q

What is the presentation of an ovarian torsion?

A
  • Sudden onset constant severe unilateral pelvic pain associated with nausea and vomiting
  • Pain is not always severe and can come and go
  • On examination there will be localised tenderness there may be a palpable mass absence does exclude the diagnosis
189
Q

What is used to diagnose an ovarian torsion?

A

Pelvic ultrasound is the initial investigation of choice. Transvaginal is ideal,

Will show a whirlpool sign, free fluid in pelvis and oedema of the ovary

Definitive diagnosis is made with laparoscopic surgery

190
Q

What is the treatment of ovarian torsion?

A

Emergency laparoscopy to uncoil twisted ovary + fixation

191
Q

What are the complications of an ovarian torsion?

A
  • Where a necrotic ovary is not removed, it may become infected, develop an abscess and lead to sepsis. Additionally it may rupture, resulting in peritonitis and adhesions.
  • Can cause infertility and menopause if only ovary
192
Q

Give some causes of Intermenstraul bleeding

A

The key causes of intermenstrual bleeding are:

Hormonal contraception
Cervical ectropion, polyps or cancer
Sexually transmitted infection
Endometrial polyps or cancer
Vaginal pathology, including cancers
Pregnancy
Ovulation can cause spotting in some women
Medications, such as SSRIs and anticoagulants

193
Q

Gives some causes of Menorrhagia

A

Menorrhagia refers to heavy menstrual bleeding. This can be caused by:

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (no identifiable cause)
Extremes of reproductive age
Fibroids
Endometriosis and adenomyosis
Pelvic inflammatory disease (infection)
Contraceptives, particularly the copper coil
Anticoagulant medications
Bleeding disorders (e.g. Von Willebrand disease)
Endocrine disorders (diabetes and hypothyroidism)
Endometrial hyperplasia or cancer
Polycystic ovarian syndrome

194
Q

Give 3 pregnancy related causes of acute pelvic pain.

A
  1. Ectopic pregnancy.
  2. Miscarriage.
  3. Ovarian cyst rupture/haemorrhage/torsion.
195
Q

Give 3 gynaecological causes of acute pelvic pain.

A
  1. PID.
  2. Abscess.
  3. Ovarian cyst rupture/haemorrhage/torsion.
196
Q

Give 3 gastrointestinal causes of acute pelvic pain.

A
  1. Appendicitis.
  2. Constipation.
  3. Bowel obstruction.
197
Q

Give 3 genito-urinary causes of acute pelvic pain.

A
  1. UTI.
  2. Renal stones.
  3. Urinary retention.
198
Q

Give 5 gynaecological causes of chronic pelvic pain.

A
  1. Endometriosis/adenomyosis.
  2. Fibroids.
  3. Adhesions.
  4. PID.
  5. Ovarian cysts.
199
Q

Give 3 gastrointestinal causes of chronic pelvic pain.

A
  1. IBS.
  2. Constipation.
  3. Inflammatory bowel.
200
Q

What investigations might you do on a patient who is presenting with pelvic pain?

A
  1. Pelvic USS -> fibroids, ovarian cysts, endometriosis.
  2. Laparoscopy -> endometriosis, adhesions.
  3. Hysteroscopy -> fibroids.
  4. MRI -> adhesions, adenomyosis, fibroids.
  5. STI screen.
201
Q

What is Pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is inflammation and infection of the organs of the pelvis, caused by infection spreading up through the cervix

202
Q

PID - define

inflammation of the endometrium
inflammation of the fallopian tubes
inflammation of the ovaries
inflammation of the peritoneal membrane

A

Endometritis is inflammation of the endometrium
Salpingitis is inflammation of the fallopian tubes
Oophoritis is inflammation of the ovaries
Peritonitis is inflammation of the peritoneal membrane

203
Q

What are the most common causes of pelic inflammatory disease

A

Most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by one of the sexually transmitted pelvic infections:

Neisseria gonorrhoeae tends to produce more severe PID - most common
Chlamydia trachomatis
Mycoplasma genitalium

Pelvic inflammatory disease can less commonly be caused by non-sexually transmitted infections, such as:

Gardnerella vaginalis (associated with bacterial vaginosis)
Haemophilus influenzae
Escherichia coli

204
Q

What are some risk facrotrs for getting PID?

A

There risk factors for pelvic inflammatory disease are the same as any other sexually transmitted infection:

Not using barrier contraception
Multiple sexual partners
Younger age
Existing sexually transmitted infections
Previous pelvic inflammatory disease
Intrauterine device (e.g. copper coil)

205
Q

What things would you see on presentation/examination of someone with PID?

A

Women may present with symptoms of:

Pelvic or lower abdominal pain
Abnormal vaginal discharge
Abnormal bleeding (intermenstrual or postcoital)
Pain during sex (dyspareunia)
Fever
Dysuria

Examination findings may reveal:

Pelvic tenderness
Cervical motion tenderness (cervical excitation)
Inflamed cervix (cervicitis)
Purulent discharge
Patients may have a fever and other signs of sepsis.

206
Q

What investigations should you do for patients with suspected PID

A

NAAT swabs for gonorrhoea and chlamydia
NAAT swabs for Mycoplasma genitalium if available
HIV test
Syphilis test
A high vaginal swab can be used to look for bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis and trichomoniasis.

A pregnancy test to exclude an ectopic pregnancy.

Inflammatory markers (CRP and ESR) are raised in PID and can help support the diagnosis.

207
Q

What is the management of PID?

A

Refer to GUM service, and contact tracing
Antibiotics :

IM ceftriaxone 1g (to cover gonorrhoea)
Doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 14 days (to cover chlamydia and Mycoplasma genitalium)

Metronidazole 400mg twice daily for 14 days (to cover anaerobes such as Gardnerella vaginalis)

Ceftriaxone and doxycycline will cover many other bacteria, including H. influenzae and E. coli.

208
Q

What are the characteristic symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

multiple ovarian cysts,
infertility,
oligomenorrhea, - irregular, infrequent menstrual periods
hyperandrogenism - the effects of high levels of androgens
insulin resistance.

209
Q

What is needed to get a diagnosis of PCOS? What criteria is used

A

The Rotterdam criteria are used for making a diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome. A diagnosis requires at least two of the three key features:

Oligoovulation or anovulation, presenting with irregular or absent menstrual periods
Hyperandrogenism, characterized by hirsutism and acne
Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (or ovarian volume of more than 10cm3)

IMPORTANT

210
Q

Outline some of the pathophysiolgy in PCOS, concerning LH and testosterone

A

Origin unclear, but basically inappropriate signaling to the hypothalamus and pituitary.

PCOS is characterized by a “steady state” of chronically elevated LH and chronically suppressed FSH levels, instead of their cyclic rise and fall in a normal menstrual cycle

  • Increased LH stimulates ovaries to increase production of androgens. (testosterone), which perpetuateds chronic anovulation.
  • As a result of suppressed FSH, new follicular growth is continuously stimulated but not to the point of full maturation and ovulation (corpus
    lutea and corpus albicans are rarely detected).
211
Q

Outline some of the pathophysiolgy in PCOS, concerning insulin and SHBG

A

Insulin resistance is a crucial part of PCOS.

Insulin promotes the release of androgens from the ovaries and adrenal glands. Therefore, higher levels of insulin result in higher levels of androgens (such as testosterone).

Insulin also suppresses sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production by the liver. SHBG normally binds to androgens and suppresses their function. Reduced SHBG further promotes hyperandrogenism in women with PCOS.

212
Q

What are some presenting features of PCOS?

A

Oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea
Infertility
Obesity (in about 70% of patients with PCOS)
Hirsutism
Acne
Hair loss in a male pattern

Also:

Insulin resistance and diabetes
Acanthosis nigricans - thickened, rough skin, found in the axilla and elbow
Depression and anxiety
Sexual problems

213
Q

What are some differential diagnosis of Hirsutism

A

Medications, such as phenytoin, ciclosporin, corticosteroids, testosterone and anabolic steroids
Ovarian or adrenal tumours that secrete androgens
Cushing’s syndrome
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

214
Q

What investigations would you do for PCOS

A

Pelvic US - would see string of pearls criteria

Testosterone
Sex hormone-binding globulin
Luteinizing hormone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Prolactin (may be mildly elevated in PCOS)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone

215
Q

What blood test results would you see on the tests for PCOS? What is the diagnostic criteria for US

A

Raised luteinising hormone
Raised LH to FSH ratio (high LH compared with FSH)
Raised testosterone
Raised insulin
Normal or raised oestrogen levels

12 or more developing follicles in one ovary
Ovarian volume of more than 10cm3
Pelvic ultrasound is not reliable in adolescents for the diagnosis of PCOS.

216
Q

What are some of the initial management for PCOS? What is key?

A

Weight loss
Low glycaemic index, calorie-controlled diet
Exercise
Smoking cessation
Antihypertensive medications where required
Statins where indicated (QRISK >10%)

Weight loss is really important
Orlistat may be used to help weight loss in women with a BMI above 30. Orlistat is a lipase inhibitor that stops the absorption of fat in the intestines.

217
Q

What is a key complication of PCOS, and how can this be managed?

A

Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome have several risk factors for endometrial cancer:

Obesity
Diabetes
Insulin resistance
Amenorrhoea

Under normal circumstances, the corpus luteum releases progesterone after ovulation. Women with PCOS do not ovulate (or ovulate infrequently), and therefore do not produce sufficient progesterone. They continue to produce oestrogen and do not experience regular menstruation. Consequently, the endometrial lining continues to proliferate under the influence of oestrogen, without regular shedding during menstruation.

Options for reducing the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer are:

Mirena coil for continuous endometrial protection
Inducing a withdrawal bleed at least every 3 – 4 months with either:
Cyclical progestogens (e.g. medroxyprogesterone acetate 10mg once a day for 14 days)
Combined oral contraceptive pill

218
Q

How can one manage hirsutism and acne seen in PCOS

A

Weight loss may improve the symptoms of hirsutism. Women are likely to have already explored options for hair removal, such as waxing, shaving and plucking.

Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) is a combined oral contraceptive pill licensed for the treatment of hirsutism and acne.

Co-cyprindiol significantly increases the risk of VTE - stop after 3 months

Other standard treatments for acne include:

Topical adapalene (a retinoid)
Oral tetracycline antibiotics (e.g. lymecycline)

219
Q

What is meant by a pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Pelvic organ prolapse refers to the descent of pelvic organs into the vagina. Prolapse is the result of weakness and lengthening of the ligaments and muscles surrounding the uterus, rectum and bladder.

220
Q

What are the different types of prolapse?

A
  • Uterine
  • Vault
  • Rectocele
  • Cystocele
221
Q

What is a vault prolapse?

A
  • When a women has had a hysterectomy and no longer have a uterus
  • The top of the vagina (the vault) descends into the vagina
222
Q

What is a rectocele?

A
  • They are caused by weakness in the posterior vaginal wall
  • This allows the rectum to prolapse forward into the vagina
223
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a rectocele?

A
  • They are associated with constipation and women can develop faecal loading in the part of the rectum that has prolapsed
  • The loading of faeces causes urinary retention due to compression on the urethra and a palpable lump in the vagina that can be pushed backwards
224
Q

What is a cystocele?

A
  • Caused by a defect in the anterior vaginal wall allowing the bladder to prolapse backwards into the vagina
  • Can also happen with the urethra (urethrocele) and a combined one is called a cystourethrocele
225
Q

What are the risk factors for developing pelvic organ prolaspe?

A
  • Multiple vaginal deliveries
  • Prolonged traumatic delivery
  • Age
  • Obesity
  • Coughing/constipation strain
  • Menopause
226
Q

What is the presentation of a pelvic organ prolapse?

A

A feeling of “something coming down” in the vagina

A dragging or heavy sensation in the pelvis

Urinary symptoms, such as incontinence, urgency, frequency, weak stream and retention

Bowel symptoms, such as constipation, incontinence and urgency

Sexual dysfunction, such as pain, altered sensation and reduced enjoyment

227
Q

How would you examine a pelvic organ prolapse?

A
  • Dorsal and left lateral position
  • A Sim’s speculum would be used to support opposing vaginal wall to one being examined
228
Q

What is the conservative management of pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Physiotherapy (pelvic floor exercises)

Weight loss

Lifestyle changes for associated stress incontinence, such as reduced caffeine intake and incontinence pads

Treatment of related symptoms, such as treating stress incontinence with anticholinergic mediations

Vaginal oestrogen cream

229
Q

What is the treatment of a more severe pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Vaginal pessaries –>inserted into the vagina to provide extra support to the pelvic organs.
Types

Ring pessaries are a ring shape, and sit around the cervix holding the uterus up
Shelf and Gellhorn pessaries consist of a flat disc with a stem, that sits below the uterus with the stem pointing downwards
Cube pessaries are a cube shape
Donut pessaries consist of a thick ring, similar to a doughnut
Hodge pessaries are almost rectangular.

Surgery

230
Q

What is a sacrocolpopexy ? When is it used?

A

A sacrocolpopexy is an operation to treat a prolapse of the vaginal vault (top of the vagina/front passage) in women who have had a hysterectomy (removal of womb) using a strip of synthetic mesh to lift the top of the vagina and hold it in place.

231
Q

What is a uterine prolpase?

A

Uterine prolapse is where the uterus itself descends into the vagina.

232
Q

What is the grading system and what are the grades for pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Grade 0: Normal

Grade 1: The lowest part is more than 1cm above the introitus

Grade 2: The lowest part is within 1cm of the introitus (above or below)

Grade 3: The lowest part is more than 1cm below the introitus, but not fully descended

Grade 4: Full descent with eversion of the vagina

233
Q

Normal physiology - what happens when the bladder is half full with wee?

A

When bladder half full, stimulates stretch receptors in bladder wall

===> Send impulses to the sacral spinal chord, at levels S2 and S3 -

PELVIC SHPLANIC NERVE, these signals then go up to micturition centre in the pons

234
Q

Normal physiology - activation of the pelvic sphlanic nerves when the bladder is half full leads to what?

A

Micturition reflex

Activation of pelvic splanchnic nerve S2-S4 cause the detrusor muscles to CONTRACT - at sacral micturition centre, Onuf’s Nucleus
- When the detrusor muscle contract, the change in bladder shape pulls open the internal urethral sphincter - is made of smooth muscle

Micturition reflex also decreases motor nerve stimulation to the external sphincter allowing it to relax as well.

At this point, urination should occur, but why don’t just wet ourselves every time the bladder is half full?

235
Q

Normal physiology - what stops us from urinating every time our bladder is half full, aka what overrides the Micturition reflex

A

At this point we should just wee ourselves every time the bladder is half full, however at this point, the PONTINE STORAGE CENTRE OVERIDES MICURITION RELFEX

It does this by activating SYMPATHETIC, HYPOGASTIRC NERVES T10 - L2, that cause DETROUSER RELAXATION, and BLADDER NECK CONTRACTION

236
Q

What are the types of incontinence?

A
  • Urge incontinence:
  • Stress incontinence
  • Mixed incontinence:
    Overflow incontinence (neurogenic bladder):
237
Q

What are some disease that can damage the micturition reflex, and can lead to incontinence?

A
  • Diabetes
  • Bladder cancer
  • Parkinson’s
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Prostatectomy
  • Hysterectomy
238
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind urge incontinence. What things can cause it? (known as Overactive bladder)

A

Sudden urge to urinate because of an “overactive bladder”, followed immediately by involuntary urination

typically due to an uninhibited detrusor muscle that contracts randomly.

Usually associated with urinary tract infections. Inflammation may trigger the detrusor muscle.

239
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind stress incontinence. What things can cause it?

A

Increased abdominal pressure overwhelms the sphincter muscles and allows urine to leak out. Causes include pregnancy and exertion, like sneezing, coughing, laughing.

240
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind overflow incontinence. What things can cause it?

A

Due to either - Obstruction due to blockage in urine flow
or
Ineffective detrusor muscle. ==> Detrusor cant contract properly so the bladder doesn’t empty properly

In both cases, leads to urine build up, to the point that the bladder is so full that urine dribbles/leaks out through sphincters

Obstruction - - eg benign prostatic hyperplasia,
Ineffective detrusor = Diabetes (neurogenic bladder) Multiple sclerosis, Spinal chord injury

241
Q

What are the clinical manifestations seen with:
a) Urge incontinence
b) Stress Incontinence
c) Overflow incontinence

A
  • Urge incontinence: frequent urination, especially at night
  • Stress incontinence: urinary leakage with pressure applied to the abdomen
  • Overflow incontinence: weak or intermittent stream or hesitancy
242
Q

What are some simple assessments you could do to assess incontinence

A

Urinalysis (MSU)
Frequency volume chart (FVC)
Residual urine measurement (RU)
Questionnaire (ePAQ)

243
Q

Investigating incontinence: what is ePAQ?

A

A questionnaire regarding urinary, bowel, vaginal and sexual symptoms.

244
Q

What is the management you would do for Urge incontinence?

A

Bladder retraining(gradually increasing the time between voiding) for at least six weeks is first-line

  • Anticholinergic medication, for example, oxybutynin, tolterodine and solifenacin
  • B3 adrenergic agonist: mirabegron - increases BP though
245
Q

What is the management you would do for stress incontinence?

A
  • Avoiding caffeine, diuretics and overfilling of the bladder
  • Avoid excessive or restricted fluid intake
  • Weight loss (if appropriate)
  • Supervised pelvic floor exercisesfor at least three months before considering surgery
  • Pessary - It is a firm ring that presses against the wall of the vagina and urethra to help decrease urine leakage.
246
Q

What is the most common age to get kidney stones? What percentage of the population will get them?

A
  • Typically occurs in 30-60 year olds
  • M>F
  • More than 50% lifetime risk of recurrence once you’ve had them

Common: lifetime incidence up to 15%

247
Q

What are some risk factors for Nephrolithiasis/Kidney stones

A

high salt intake
male Sex - testosterone - increased oxalate
Stone forming food
Metabolic - Hypercalcaemia, Hyperparathyroidism

Drugs - loop diuretics

248
Q

What foods can be known to increase the chance of stone formation in Nephrolithiasis?

A

chocolate, rhubarb, spinach, tea, and most nuts are high in oxalate, and colas are high in phosphate

249
Q

What are the most common types of kidney stones?

A

Calcium-based stones they account for 80%. Having a raised serum calcium and low urine output are key risk factors for calcium collecting into a stone

250
Q

Other than calcium based kidney stones, what are the other 3 types of kidney stones?

A
  1. Uric Acid (red brown colour, not visible on xray (make up 5-10% of stones)
  2. Struvite, from bacteria (associated with infection) - forms dirty white stones, visible on xray (2-10%)
  3. Cystine - yellow/light pink coloured (1%)
251
Q

What causes kidney stones?

A

Kidney stones form when your urine contains more crystal-forming substances — such as calcium, oxalate and uric acid — than the fluid in your urine can dilute. Urine is a combination of solvent and solutes

If solvent is low (dehydration) or there are high levels of solute (hypercalcaemia) then it is more likely a kidney stone will form.

252
Q

What are some symptoms of kidney stones?

A
  • Acute, severe flank pain (renal colic)
    • Classically ‘loin to groin’ pain
    • Pain lasts minutes to hours and occurs in spasms (with intervals of no pain or dull ache)
    • Fluctuating in severity as the stone moves and settles
  • Nausea and vomiting
    Pain is not relieved
  • Urinary urgency or frequency
  • Haematuria: microsopic or macroscopic

Flank/ renal angle tenderness
Left and right lumbar region pain
Fever (if sepsis)

253
Q

What are some first-line investigations for renal stones?

What is the first line imaging

A

Urine dipstick can show blood, leukocytes, nitrates
FBC check kidney function and calcium levels
X-ray can show calcium based stones but not uric
Negative pregnancy test

XRAY IS FIRST LINE IMAGING FOR RENAL STONES

254
Q

What is the gold standard test for renal stones?

A

Non contrast CT scan of kidney, ureters and bladder (CT KUB) .
Should be performed within 14 hours of admission
^^For non pregnant adult

Renal ultrasound for pregnant adult or child
May use ultrasound if radiation needs to be avoided

255
Q

What is the conservative management for Nephrolithiasis?

A
  • Watchful waiting: stones <5mm should pass spontaneously and followed up in clinic
  • Medical expulsive therapy (MET):Alpha-blocker, e.g.tamsulosin, for ureteric stones 5-10mm to help passage. Not indicated for renal stones. - *it helps relax muscles in the ureter, and can increase the flow of urine
256
Q

What is the acute management of Nephrolithiasis, to help symptoms?

A
  • IV fluids and anti-emetics
  • Analgesia: an NSAID by any route is considered first-line; - IV DICLOFENAC
    • IV paracetamol is used if NSAIDs are contraindicated or ineffective
  • Antibiotics: if infection is present
257
Q

Name some surgical methods used in treating Nephrolithiasis.

A

Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL)
Ureteroscopy (URS):
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL):

258
Q

What is the first line surgical treatment for both ureteric and kidney stones, size 5 - 10mm? Outline what happens in it

A

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL): utilises high energy ultrasound waves to break the stone into tiny fragments;

uncomfortable, requires analgesia and can cause organ injury. Contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk to the foetus (perform URS instead)

if stones are <5mm, then watchful waiting

259
Q

What is the second line surgical treatment for both ureteric and kidney stones? Outline what happens in it

A

Ureteroscopy (URS): pass a ureteroscope through the urethra and bladder up to the ureter (retrograde) and retrieve the stone or fragment it with intracorporeal lithotripsy

260
Q

What is the third line treatment for Nephrolithiasis, seen in large Kidney stones? (not used for ureteric stones)

A

Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL): accessing the renal collecting system percutaneously via a surgical incision in the back for intracorporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation

(not used for ureteric stones)

261
Q

Outline some advice given for people with recurrent stones.

A
  • Increase oral fluids
  • Reduce dietary salt intake
  • Reduce intake of oxalate-rich foods for calcium stones (e.g. spinach, nuts, rhubarb, tea)
  • Reduce intake of urate- rich foods for uric acid stones (e.g. kidney, liver, sardines)
  • Limit dietary protein
262
Q

What medications can be used to reduce the risk of renal stone formation?

A

Potassium citrate, Thiazide diuretics (e.g., indapamide) in patients with calcium oxalate stones and raised urinary calcium

263
Q

Where are the 3 most common sites where kidney stones can commonly lodge?

A

• Pelviureteric junction/ureteropelvic junction – where the renal pelvis connects to the ureter
• Pelvic brim – where the ureter crosses over the pelvic brim and the bifurcation of the common iliac
arteries
• Vesicoureteric junction/ureterovesicular junction – where the ureter connects to the urinary
bladder
Kidney stones of

264
Q

What are the different types of fistula?

A

Anovaginal or rectovaginal fistula is a hole joining the anus or rectum to the vagina.

A colovaginal fistula joins the space in the colon to that in the vagina.

A urinary tract fistula is an abnormal opening in the urinary tract or an abnormal connection between the urinary tract and another organ

265
Q

What are some of the general causes of fistulas

A

Disease: Infections including an anorectal abscess
Crohn’s and UC
Surgical treatment and Radiotherapy
Trauma - Childbirth and rape

266
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • It refers to an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina specifically anaerobic bacteria
  • It is not Sexually transmitted

MOST COMMON CAUSE OF VAGINITIS IN YOUNG WOMEN

267
Q

What causes BV?

A

Loss of lactobacilli which produce lactic acid and keep the vaginal pH low

Gardnerella vaginalis (most common)
Mycoplasma hominis
Prevotella species

268
Q

What are the risk factors for BV?

A
  • Multiple sexual partners
  • Excessive vaginal cleaning - soaps and douching
  • Recent antibiotics
  • Smoking
  • Copper coil
269
Q

What is the presentation of BV?

A

Fishy-smelling watery grey or white vaginal discharge. Half of women with BV are asymptomatic.

270
Q

What are the investigations for BV?

A
  • ## Test vaginal pH anything above 4.5 is badcharcoal vaginal swab can be taken for microscopy. This can be a high vaginal swab taken during a speculum examination or a self-taken low vaginal swab.
271
Q

What cells are shown with BV?

A

Clue cells

272
Q

What is treatment for BV?

A

Metronidazole - AVOID ALCOHOL

Or clindamycin but is less effective

273
Q

What are the complications of BV?

A

It increases risk of STI

  • Also can cause problems in pregnancy
    Miscarriage
    Preterm delivery
    Premature rupture of membranes
    Chorioamnionitis
    Low birth weight
    Postpartum endometritis
274
Q

What is candidiasis? What is the most common cauase?

A

Vaginal candidiasis is commonly referred to as “thrush”. It refers to vaginal infection with a yeast of the Candida family.

The most common is Candida albicans

275
Q

How does Thrush present?

A

Candida may colonise the vagina without causing symptoms. It then progresses to infection when the right environment occurs, for example, during pregnancy or after treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics that alter the vaginal flora.

Symptoms:
Vulval itch
Vulval soreness
Vaginal discharge
Superficial dyspareunia
External dysuria

Erythema
Fissuring
Discharge, typically curdy but may be thin. Non-offensive.

276
Q

What things can make vulvovaginal candidiasis complicated?

A

Complicated candidiasis:
Severe symptoms (by subjective assessment)
Pregnancy
Recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis (at least 4 episodes per year)
Non-albicans species
Abnormal host (e.g. hyperoestrogenic state, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression)

277
Q

What is the investigations for Candidias?

A

Microscopy and culture is standard for symptomatic women

Vaginal swab should be taken from the anterior fornix

(for the following:
Gram or wet film examination
Direct plating to solid fungal media. Speciation to albicans/non-albicans is essential if complicated disease suspected/present

278
Q

How can the vaginal pH help determine the cyse of vaginitis?

A

Testing the vaginal pH using a swab and pH paper can be helpful in differentiating between bacterial vaginosis and trichomonas (pH > 4.5) and candidiasis (pH < 4.5).

279
Q

What are the management options of Candidiasis?

A

Treatment of candidiasis is with antifungal medications. These can be delivered in several ways:

A single dose of intravaginal clotrimazole cream (5g of 10% cream) at night
A single dose of clotrimazole pessary (500mg) at night
Three doses of clotrimazole pessaries (200mg) over three nights
A single dose of fluconazole (150mg)

Canesten Duo is a standard over-the-counter treatment worth knowing. It contains a single fluconazole tablet and clotrimazole cream to use externally for vulval symptoms.

280
Q

How can you treat complicated Vulvovaginal Candidiasis?

A

fluconazole 150mg should be repeated after 3 days
If oral treatment is contra-indicated repeat a single dose pessary after 3 days
Low-potency corticosteroids are also thought to improve symptomatic relief in conjunction with antifungal therapy

281
Q

What is the specific species of chlamydia that causes the STD? What kind of bacteria is it? Is it more common in men or women?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

A gram-negative bacteria. It is an intracellular organism, meaning it enters and replicates within cells before rupturing the cell and spreading to others. More common in female

282
Q

What are the symptoms of Chlamydia in women?

A

Abnormal vaginal discharge
Pelvic pain
Abnormal vaginal bleeding (intermenstrual or postcoital)
Painful sex (dyspareunia)
Painful urination (dysuria)

Asymptomatic in 50% of cases

283
Q

What is the national Chlamydia screening programme?

A

Aims to screen every sexually active person under 25 years of age for chlamydia annually or when they change their sexual partner

284
Q

What is the first line treatment of chlamydia?

A

100mg of doxycycline twice a day for 7 days

285
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

A single dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone 1g if the sensitivities are NOT known
A single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg if the sensitivities ARE known

286
Q

What test do you use to diagnose Gonorrhoea?

A

Near patient test
Microscopy of gram stained smears of genital secretions looking for gram negative diplococci within cytoplasm of polymorphs

Culture on Gonococcus agar

Male - urethra
Female - endocervix
Rectum

287
Q

What test do you use to diagnose chlamydia?

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests (NAAT)
High specificity and sensitivity

Female
Self-collected vaginal swab
Endocervical swab

Male – first void urine

288
Q

What bacteria causes syphillis?

A

Syphilis is caused by bacteria called Treponema pallidum. This bacteria is a spirochete, a type of spiral-shaped bacteria.

289
Q

How does syphillis bacterium get into the body, and what is its incubation period.

A

The bacteria gets in through skin or mucous membranes, replicates and then disseminates throughout the body. It is mainly a sexually transmitted infection.

The incubation period between the initial infection and symptoms is 21 days on average.

290
Q

What would someone with primary syphilis present with?

A

A painless genital ulcer (chancre). This tends to resolve over 3 – 8 weeks.
Local lymphadenopathy

291
Q

What would someone with secondary syphilis present with?

A

ypically starts after the chancre has healed, with symptoms of:

Maculopapular rash
Condylomata lata (grey wart-like lesions around the genitals and anus)
Low-grade fever
Lymphadenopathy
Alopecia (localised hair loss)
Oral lesions

292
Q

How can you test for syphilis?

A

Antibody testing for antibodies to the T. pallidum bacteria can be used as a screening test

or
Samples from sites of infection can be tested to confirm the presence of T. pallidum with:

Dark field microscopy
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

293
Q

What is the management for syphilis

A

. As with all sexually transmitted infections, patients need:

Full screening for other STIs
Advice about avoiding sexual activity until treated
Contact tracing
Prevention of future infections

A single deep intramuscular dose of benzathine benzylpenicillin (penicillin) is the standard treatment for syphilis.

294
Q

What is Mycoplasma Genitalium? What can it cause?

A

a bacteria that causes non-gonococcal urethritis.

Most common cause of a NGU after Chlamydia, it’s an STI

295
Q

What are some symptoms of Mycoplasma Genitalium?

A

Most cases of MG do not cause symptoms. The presentation is very similar to chlamydia, and patients may be infected with both organisms. Urethritis is a key feature.

Mycoplasma genitalium infection may lead to:

Urethritis
Epididymitis
Cervicitis
Endometritis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Reactive arthritis
Preterm delivery in pregnancy
Tubal infertility

296
Q

What is the investigation for Mycoplasma?

A

Traditional cultures are not helpful in isolating MG, as it is a very slow-growing organism. Therefore, testing involves nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) to look specifically for the DNA or RNA if the bacteria.

First urine sample in the morning for men
Vaginal swabs (can be self-taken) for women

The guideline recommends checking every positive sample for macrolide resistance, as there is developing problems with antibiotic resistance, particularly with azithromycin. (a marcolide)

297
Q

What is the management of Mycoplasma Gentailium?

What about in pregnancy

A

recommend a course of doxycycline followed by azithromycin for uncomplicated genital infections:

Doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 7 days then;
Azithromycin 1g stat then 500mg once a day for 2 days (unless it is known to be resistant to macrolides)

Moxifloxacin is used as an alternative or in complicated infections. Azithromycin alone is used in pregnancy and breastfeeding (remember doxycycline is contraindicated).

298
Q

What is SARA? what is seen in it?

A

seronegative spondyloarthropathies.
sterile inflammation of the synovial membranes, fascia and tendons triggered by an infection at a distal site.

Reiters syndrome encompasses the classic triad
Conjunctivitis
Arthritis
Urethritis

299
Q

What are some common causes of SARA?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis: This has the strongest association with SARA and has been identified in up to two-thirds of cases.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae: This is associated in up to 16% of cases and distinct from its role in septic arthritis

Mycoplasma genitalium: This is a well-recognised cause of urethritis but has only been identified in the joints in a few cases, so its arthritogenic potential is not yet fully known.

Sexual transmission of enteric pathogens triggering SARA has been reported
Shigella outbreaks

300
Q

What can Shigella cause?

A

It causes bloody diarrhoea, abdominal cramps and fever. Shigella can produce the Shiga toxin, which can cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome.

Mostly self limiting diarrhoea

301
Q

What antibiotics do you need to give to treat severe shigella?

A

Treatment of severe cases is with azithromycin or ciprofloxacin.

but Mostly self limiting diarrhoea

302
Q

What is PEP? When is it given ?

A

Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) can be used after exposure to reduce the risk of transmission of HIV

PEP involves a combination of ART therapy. The current regime is emtricitabine/tenofovir (Truvada) and raltegravir

303
Q

name some situations (Sexual exposures) when PEP would be recommended for preventing HIV transmission

A

In known positive HIV patients, when HIV Viral load is unknown or detectable for:
Insertive and Receptive Anal Sex
Receptive Vaginal sex (consider in insertive vaginal sex)

If HIV status isn’t known, and from a country with high prevalence or high risk group :

Receptive anal sex
Consider PEP for insertive anal sex.

304
Q

What causes Genital herpes? How does it happen?

A

The herpes simplex virus (HSV) is commonly responsible for both cold sores (herpes labialis) and genital herpes. There are two main strains, HSV-1 and HSV-2.

After an initial infection, the virus becomes latent in the associated sensory nerve ganglia. Typically this is the trigeminal nerve ganglion with cold sores and the sacral nerve ganglia with genital herpes.

305
Q

What are the symtpoms of a primary infection of genital herpes?

What about recurrent episodes?

A

Signs and symptoms include:

Ulcers or blistering lesions affecting the genital area
Neuropathic type pain (tingling, burning or shooting)
Flu-like symptoms (e.g. fatigue and headaches)
Dysuria (painful urination)
Inguinal lymphadenopathy
Symptoms can last three weeks in a primary infection. Recurrent episodes are usually milder and resolve more quickly.

306
Q

How do you diagnose gential herpes?

A

Ask about sexual contacts, including those with cold sores, to establish a possible source of transmission. They may have caught the infection from someone unaware they are infected and not experiencing any symptoms.

The diagnosis can be made clinically based on the history and examination findings.

A viral PCR swab from a lesion can confirm the diagnosis and causative organism.

307
Q

What is the management of genital herpes?

A

Aciclovir is used to treat genital herpes.

Primary genital herpes contracted before 28 weeks gestation is treated with aciclovir during the initial infection. This is followed by regular prophylactic aciclovir starting from 36 weeks gestation onwards to reduce the risk of genital lesions during labour and delivery

Primary genital herpes contracted after 28 weeks gestation is treated with aciclovir during the initial infection followed immediately by regular prophylactic aciclovir. Caesarean section is recommended in all cases to reduce the risk of neonatal infection.

308
Q
A