Zuku Flashcards
The 12-year-old spayed female cat is presented with a history of weakness for the past 2 days.
She has neck ventroflexion and a stiff, stilted gait.
Which one of the following is in the top of the differential list? A - Hypokalemic myopathy B - Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis C - Cervical vertebral malformation D - Caudal occipital malformation E - Bilateral otitis media/interna
a)
Hypokalemic myopathic
The posture is classic for hypokalemia and other neuromyopathies (e.g., myasthenia gravis, organophosphate) in cats.
Hyperkalemis periodic paralysis has not been reported in cats.
A four-year-old stallion presents with urine scald, fecal retention, tailhead rubbing, and a right head tilt.
Rectal examination reveals atonia of the anus and rectum, however, no fracture is palpated.
Which one of the following tests help provide evidence of the top differential diagnosis?
A - Antibodies against P2-myelin protein
B - Immunoblot against DNA fragments from P. tenuis
C - Search the pasture for yellow star thistle
D - Cervicothoracic spinal radiography
E - Tibial muscle and nerve biopsies
A)
Antibodies against P2-myelin protein
The top differential for this horse with cauda equina signs plus cranial nerve signs is polyneuritis equi. Horses with this condition can have circulating antibodies against P2-myelin protein, but many false positives. Other diseases to rule out of this case would be equine herpesvirus-1 and equine protozoal encephalomyelitis.
Unfortunately, there is no definitive Rx and prognosis is poor for functional recovery
A 15-year-old cat is presented with a three week progression of wandering in circles to the left, standing in corners, and dull mentation.
Conscious proprioceptive deficits (knuckling) can be elicited in the right thoracic and right pelvic limbs.
There is a decreased menace response on the right, but palpebral and pupillary light reflexes are normal in both eyes.
The rest of the examination is normal. A brain tumor is suspected.
Where is the most likely location of the lesion?
A - Right brainstem B - Right cerebrum C - Left brainstem D - Left cerebrum E - Cerebellum
D
Left cerebrum
Remember that conscious proprioception and visual perception are affected by lesions in the contralateral cerebral hemisphere.
Circling direction is generally toward the side of the lesion.
Neurologic lesion localisation can be challenging. Here are some of the summary points that may help you with this case.
What signs make this lesion cerebral?
-Standing in corners (head pressing)
-Wandering in circles to the left (towards side of lesion)
-Contralateral visual loss with normal palpebral and pupillary light reflexes
Why is the lesion not in the brainstem?
-Visual pathways do not course through the brainstem, so the visual loss does not fit
Pearl of wisdom: You could lose the menace response with an ipsilateral facial nerve lesion in the brainstem, but you would not have the wandering and the head pressing
The menace response is used to test which cranial nerves?
A - II and VII B - I and VIII C - V and VI D - IX and X E - III and IV
A
II and VII
The menace response is used to test visual input (cranial nerve II optic) and blink response (cranial nerve VII facial). Take care not to induce air movement which would elicit a tactile response (cranial nerve V trigeminal) instead of visual.
A chicken farm has had several ill and dead birds over the past week.
Examination of the sick chickens shows severe depression, ecchymoses and edema of the comb and wattles, green diarrhea.
Some are unable to walk with absent perching reflexes.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Avian encephalomyelitis B - Avian influenza C - Infectious coryza D - Infectious bronchitis E - Mycoplasma gallisepticum
B
Avian influenza, also called fowl plague, is the most likely diagnosis.
This virus can either be of low pathogenicity (most common) or highly pathogenic.
Viruses of low pathogenicity typically cause subclinical or mild respiratory disease. The case above is due to a highly pathogenic strain of influenza. Infectious bronchitis is characterized by respiratory signs and is a differential for infection with an avian influenza strain of low pathogenicity.
Which one of the following diseases have been linked with the variant form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) in humans?
A - Bovine spongiform encephalopathy B - Q fever C - Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis D - Equine West Nile virus encephalitis E - Eastern equine encephalomyelitis (EEE)
a)
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) suddenly appeared in the 1980s in the UK, likely due to changes in the practice of feeding meat and bone meal of sheep origin. In 1997, it was confirmed that Creutzfedlt-Jakod disease was associated with the bovine disease. Sporadic bovine encephalopathy (SBE), caused by Chlamedia pectoris (also called Chlamedia pecorum), is not known to cause disease in humans
A pig farmer complains of strange behavior in his feeder pigs.
Most are hyperexcitable yet are not squealing.
A few are lethargic, wandering aimlessly and seem to be blind.
Bloodwork shows a marked increase in sodium concentration.
Upon inspection of the pen, it turns out that the waterer had been inadvertently turned off.
Which one of the following treatments is indicated?
A - Frequent small amounts of water B - Ad lib water C - Mannitol D - Furosemide E - Ad lib water and IV 1/2 strength Ringers solution
a)
Frequent small amounts of water.
It is dangerous to rapidly correct for a hyperosmolar or hypoosmolar state (salt toxicity) and could lead to brain swelling. It is best to gradually rehydrate the animals with small amounts of water given frequently. Also, IV 1/2 strength Ringers solution with 2-1/2% dextrose can be given at a slow rate.
An intact male whippet presents with an acute onset of swelling and pain in one of his testicles.
Which one of the following tests is helpful to diagnose the cause of the swelling before surgery?
A - Ultrasonography B - Lateral radiography C - Magnetic resonance imaging D - Nuclear scintigraphy scan E - Positive contrast cystography
a)
A skilled ultrasonography can differentiate between testicular torsion, scrotal hernia, or focal lesions in the testicle.
A horse recently imported from Dubai died after a being ill for about 2 weeks in a quarantine facility. He was febrile and very depressed, with dyspnea and respiratory distress in the last 24 hours.
Other signs included hyperemia of the conjunctiva and edema all over the head and neck, especially the eyelids and the supraorbital fossae. Necropsy reveals a clear pericardial effusion, froth in the upper airways, and heavy distended lungs.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Equine influenza B - Equine infectious anemia C - African horse sickness D - Equine viral arteritis E - Piroplasmosis
c)
African horse sickness (AHS) presents with fever, respiratory signs, ans deem. Edema is a prominant clinical sign, especially of the head and neck. Those with respiratory signs die within about a week; death occurs after 1-2 weeks in the cardiac form of the disease. Caused by an orbivirus, AHS is transmitted via bites of infected Culicoides app., most often during warm, humid seasons. AHS is very lethal, especially in naive populations, where mortality approaches 90%. Pulmonary deem and hydropericardium are a commun necropsy findings. No specific treatment is effective, but attenuated-live virus vaccines are available that are protective. The disease is endemic in southern Egypt and occurs sporadically in many parts of Africa. AHS has never occurred in the United States and is a reportable disease. Other differentials include anaplasmosis, piroplasmosis, equine viral arteritis ans Equine infectious anemia.
Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow?
A - In the spaces between L1, L2, L3, and L4
B - Above and below the transverse processes of L1, L2 and L4
C - Midway between spine and the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, L3
D - Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2
E - At the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4
d)
A proximal paravertebral block is performed via placement of local anesthetic just off the midline and caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 vertebrae. With a distal paravertebral block, local is placed above and below the ends of the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4 vertebrae. The spinal nerves, T13, L1, and L2 are targeted by a paravertebral block to completely desensitize the flank of a cow. Note the difference- proximal at T13, L1, and L2, distal at L1, L2, and L4, but the same nerves are affected because they gradually course caudally after exiting their spinal foramen. Proper placement results in warming of the skin from vasodilation, anesthesia of the skin and body wall, and a curvature of the spine in some cows. The latter is caused by relaxation of the epaxial musculature on the affected side; the spin curves towards the opposie side.
During the necropsy of an 8-year-old mixed breed dog from the Southern United States, reactive granulomas in the esophagus containing bright red worms, 40 mm to 70 mm long are found.
Which choice is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Ollulanus tricuspis B - Haemonchus placei C - Spirocerca lupi D - Gastrophilus spp. E - Physaloptera spp.
c)
A disease of dogs in the Southern U.S and tropical climate, Spirorcerca lupine (esophageal worms) make reactive granulomas of variable size in the esophageal, gastric or aortic walls. Spirocercosis may also lead to aneurysm in the thoracic aorta or an ossifying spondylitis of the posterior thoracic vertebrae. Typically asymptomatic, but large granulomas can cause esophageal obstruction. Large granulomas may become neoplastic (osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma). Some dogs develop spondylitis or enlargement of the extremities characteristic of hypertrophic osteopathy.
All of the other choices are gastric parasites. Ollulanus tricuspid is an uncommon gastric parasite of cats. Physaloptera app. is a stomach worm the may cause vomiting, anorexia, dark fèces in dogs and cats. Haemonchus ss. ostertagia spp. and Trichostrongylus spp. are found in the abomasum of ruminants. Gastrophilus spp. are the larvae of horse bot flies, found in the stomach of horses.
Many hens in a large backyard flock recently became ill after the owner purchased four new chickens. The sick hens are gasping, coughing and sneezing.
They have poor appetite and act depressed. Some affected birds have watery green diarrhea and swelling of the head and neck.
A few have paralyzed legs and wings, twisted necks, are circling, and have tremors or clonic spasms.
Birds are not laying well and some eggs are misshapen with watery albumen. Many of the sickest birds have died.
Necropsy of a dead chicken shows petechial hemorrhages on the mucosal surface of the proventriculus and gizzard.
What should be done next to address this problem?
A - Increase poultry house temperatures to reduce morbidity
B - Disinfect housing with phenolic compounds, barrier precautions for staff
C - Treat all affected chickens with amprolium
D - Cull affected birds and vaccinate the remainder
E - Report outbreak to regulatory authorities
e)
This history and the necropsy findings are consistent with viscerotropic velogenic Newcastle disease (VVND), which is reportable. The appropriate regulatory authorities should be contacted ASAP. Gross lesions such as the petechiae seen here in the pro ventricular mucosa are not usually seen with low-virulence Newcastle disease (loNDV). the clinical history is also suggestive of VVND. The acute from a of NDV must be differentiated from highly pathogenic avian influenza by isolation of a hem agglutinating virus identified by inhibition with Newcastle disease antiserum. NDV occurs worldwide and chickens usually present with acute respiratory disease. Occasionally diarrhea, neurological problems, or depression predominate. Virulence varies between the VVND and loNDV forms. Vaccines against NDV decrease clinical signs and death. Infected poultry are depopulated. Sometimes the temperature of the poultry house is increased to decrease morbidity in flocks with suspected avian influenza. Amprolium is a treatment for coccidiosis.
Many hens in a large backyard flock recently became ill after the owner purchased four new chickens. The sick hens are gasping, coughing and sneezing.
They have poor appetite and act depressed. Some affected birds have watery green diarrhea and swelling of the head and neck.
A few have paralyzed legs and wings, twisted necks, are circling, and have tremors or clonic spasms.
Birds are not laying well and some eggs are misshapen with watery albumen. Many of the sickest birds have died.
Necropsy of a dead chicken shows petechial hemorrhages on the mucosal surface of the proventriculus and gizzard.
What should be done next to address this problem?
A - Increase poultry house temperatures to reduce morbidity
B - Disinfect housing with phenolic compounds, barrier precautions for staff
C - Treat all affected chickens with amprolium
D - Cull affected birds and vaccinate the remainder
E - Report outbreak to regulatory authorities
e)
This history and the necropsy findings are consistent with viscerotropic velogenic Newcastle disease (VVND), which is reportable. The appropriate regulatory authorities should be contacted ASAP. Gross lesions such as the petechiae seen here in the pro ventricular mucosa are not usually seen with low-virulence Newcastle disease (loNDV). the clinical history is also suggestive of VVND. The acute from a of NDV must be differentiated from highly pathogenic avian influenza by isolation of a hem agglutinating virus identified by inhibition with Newcastle disease antiserum.
A two-year-old heifer is presented who died the night before.
She was stunted compared to her herdmates, and had a three-week history of poor appetite, unthriftiness, diarrhea.
Necropsy reveals that the abomasum is edematous and covered in small umbilicated nodules 1-2 mm in diameter (cobblestone or “Moroccan leather” appearance).
Several other younger cows in this Spring-calving herd look unthrifty and have diarrhea too.
Which one of the following options is the most consistently effective against all stages of this parasite?
A - Amprolium B - Thiabendazole C - Levamisole D - Ivermectin E - Morantel
d)
Avermectins (macrocyclic lactones), such as ivermectin, are the most consistently effective of theses choices against all stages, including hypo biotic larvae, of Ostertagia, the parasite in this calf’s gastrointestinal tract. An abomasum with a cobblestone or “Moroccan leather” appearance is pathognomonic for Ostertagia, one of the three stomach worms of cattle. In order to minimize the development of anthelmintic resistance, current recommendations for parasite control include not only appropriate deworming, but adequate nutrition and rotation of treated stock to “clean” pastures. Some experts recommend deworming of only the most severely affected animal in a group (targeted treatment). The idea is to slow development of drug-resistant populations by allowing some worms to survive (these are called “refugia”). If some worms survive that are susceptible to antiparasitiez drugs, it decreases population pressure to develop drug resistance.
Amprolium is your treatment of choices for calves and cows with coccidiosis.
Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis?
A - Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing
B - Circling and head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs
C - Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor
D - Inability to close the mouth
E - Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of the face
d)
Idiopathic trigeminal neuritis, due to inflammation of cranial nerve 5 (CN 5), is characterized by acute onset od flaccid jaw paralysis. Affected animals cannot close their mouth and have difficulty eating and drinking. Seen occasionally in dogs, rare in cats. Cause is unknown.
Idiopathic facial nerve paralysis, affecting cranial nerve 7 (CN7), results in the inability to move the eyelid, lip, or ear and dryness of the eyes and mouth.
Masticatory myositis is characterized by pain on opening the mouth and swelling of the uses of mastication (acute) or atrophy of the temporals and master muscles with the inability to open the mouth due to fibrosis (chronic).
Dysphagia, dysphoria, and stridor are most often associated with dysfunction of the vagus nerve, cranial nerve 10 (CN 10).
Circling and head tilt toward the side of the lesion with no other signs is a common presentation of vestibulocochlear nerve, cranial nerve 8 (CN 8) lesions.
Concurrent CN 7 paralysis and Honrer’s syndrome (ptosis, miosis, enophthalmis) may be present with middle- and inner-eat infections.
What kind of organism causes equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis?
A - Spirochete B - Anaplasma C - Ehrlichia D - Protozoa E - Chlamydia
b)
This is a tricky question to help you remember that two diseases formally classified as Ehrlichia have now been re-classified. The causative organism of equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis (EGE) was originally classified as Ehrlichia equivalent, but i now called Anaplasma phagocytophilum due to DNA sequencings studies. Don not confuses EGE, a necrotizing vasculitis in horse with bovine anaplasmosis, primarily an anemia, with icterus, fever.Another name change occurred with the causative organism of Potomas horse fever (PHF), from Ehrlichia risticii to Neorickettsia risticii. PHF presents as a febrile colitis/diarrhea, with laminitis 3-5 d after diarrhea in horses of all ages: A big rule out is salmonella (think septicaemia/fever+ diarrhea).
Failure to control mild endemic respiratory disease in swine caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to complications.
Exudative bronchopneumonia and polyarthritis are most commonly seen in herds infected with both Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae AND which other organism?
A - Bordetella bronchiseptica B - Fusobacterium necrophorum C - Hemophilus parasuis D - Pasteurella multocida E - Swine influenza virus
d)
Pasteurella multocida infection in conjunction with Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae causes exudative bronchopneumonia, polyarthrites, and chronic lung lesions. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae (also called “enzootic pneumonia”) is a commons, smouldering low-level illness. Stressors (parasites, other infections, even weather) can result in severe pneumonia. Best managed by decreasing stressors with improves ventilation and decreased overcrowding. In endemic herds, ABX for sick individuals (i.e.: lincomycin, tyrosine, tiamulin or a tetracycline) helps control illness, mostly by preventing secondary bacterial infection (like Pasteurella). Bacterin vaccines give good protection, decrease signs (coughing). Pre-farrowing vaccination of sows decreases colonization in sucklings piglets.
At what age do a cow’s permanent canine teeth begin to erupt?
A - Cows don't have canines B - 2 to 2.5 years C - 3 years D - 3.5 to 4 years E - 5-6 years
D)
3.5 to 4 years. Cows do have canine teeth but the look like incisors. References vary about six months, because the times of tooth eruption also vary among different indival animals. 1st permanent incisors (I1-centrals) erupt at 1 to 1.5 years. 2nd permanent incisors (I2-medials) erupt ar around 2 to 2.5 years. I3-laterals erupt at roughly 3.5 years. Permanent canines (which look like a 4th set of incisors in ruminants) come in around 3.5 to 4 years. Full eruption of a new tooth may take another six months. One reference, Pasquini, suggests this approximate, but easy-t-remember rule of thumb for fully erupted permanent incisors in cows:I1-2yr, 12-3 years I3-4yr.
Imidocarb diproprionate is the most effective therapeutic for which one of the following organisms?
A - Bartonella spp. B - Babesia canis C - Rickettsia rickettsii D - Borrelia burgdorferi E - Trypanosoma congolense
b)
Imidocarb diproprionate is the treatment of choice for Babesia canis but is not effective in clearing B. gibsoni and B. felis. B. gibsoni is usually susceptible to treatment with atovaquone and azithromycin.
Two species of Babesia, B. gibsoni (small babesia) and B. canis (large babesia), are important causes of babesiosis in dogs. Babesiosis is a tick borne disease -clinicla signs of hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. Polymerase chain reaction is the only conclusive way to determine which Babesia species is responsible.
Two calves aged eight weeks are presented that are both down and extremely weak.
They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood.
One other calf died suddenly the night before with no signs at all.
They are found to be dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2 and 105.6 F (40.7 – 40.9 C)..[N=101.5-103.5F, N=37.8-39.7 C], respectively.
Based on the condition at the top of the differential diagnosis list, what is the treatment plan?
A - Immunize well and sick calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine, antibiotics for sick calves
B - NSAIDS, antibiotics in feed and water
C - IV fluids, NSAIDS, fequent milk feeding, antibiotics if septic
D - Cull sick calves, disinfect feeding areas, prophylactic antibiotics and NSAIDs for well animals
E - Isolate sick calves, immunize, antibiotics, cull those that do not respond to treatment
C)
IV fluids, NSAIDS, frequent milf feedings and antibiotics.
Fever, diarrhea and sudden death in 8-week-old calves is highly suggestive of septicaemia due to salmonellosis. Isolate sick calves. Use of antibiotics is controversial as they may prolong recovery and shedding and yield a carrier calf. However if an animal is septic it needs parenteral antibiotics. According to Pasquini’s, prognosis is poor with neonatal salmonella and deaths can approach 100% in affected calves. In adults, antibiotics may yield a clinical cure, but Salmonella can establish in biliary system andintermittently shed into GI system, leading to environnemental contamination. Prevention is dependant on which species of Salmonella is causing the problems-host adapted or environmental.
Which one of the following hormones can induce neoplastic transformation of hypertrophied mammary tissue in cats?
A - Oxytocin B - Progesterone C - Estrogen D - Testosterone E - Prolactin
b)
Exogenous progesterone administration can lead to neoplastic transformation of mammary hyperplasia in intact or neutered male or female cats. Patients undergoing progesterone therapy that develop mammary hyperplasia should have enlarged mammary gland(s) removed and submitting for histology in addition to the cessation of the progesterone therapy.
Which organism determines the minimum temperature needed to pasteurize milk in the United States?
A - Mycobacterium bovis B - Listeria monocytogenes C - Brucella abortus D - Escherichia coli E - Coxiella burnetii
E)
Temperature of pasteurization is set by the toughest, most heat-resistant organism, which is Coxiella burnett, the cause of Q fever. If the temperature is high enough, for long enough to kill Coxiella, it will also kill the other organisms. Basically, the higher the temperature, the shorter the pasteurization time needed. i.e..: 90 C(194 f) for 0.5 seconds, or 100 C(212 F) for 0.01 seconds.
Brucella and Listeria can also be transmitted in milk. E. coli is typically a contaminant forma unsanitary milking conditions.
Acromegaly is associated with what 3 diseases in cats?
A - Hypoadrenocorticism, Congestive heart failure, Hepatic lipidosis
B - Hyperadrenocorticism, Pleural effusion, Lameness
C - Diabetes mellitus, Cardiomyopathy, Renal disease
D - Prognathism, Pulmonary edema, Pulmonary Hypertension
E - Vertebral spondylosis, 3rd degree heart block, Glomerulonephritis
c) Diabetes mellitus, cardiomyopathy and Renal disease
Think first of Diabetes mellitus in older male cats (ave. 10 yr, 90% male) with feline acromegaly. First presenting sign may be PU/PD, polyphagia of diabetes. Weigth gain in an unregulated diabetic cat strongly suggests acromegaly. Think also of Cardiomyopathy (50%, see weakness, dyspnea, systolic murmur, cardiomegaly/CHF, pulmonary edema). Think also of renal disease (50%, see proteinuria, USpG 1.015-1.025, (ans glycosuria from DM)). May see prognathism (long mandible), lameness (est. cats), marked vertebral spondylosis.
What percentage of dairy cows have a retained placenta after calving?
A - 1-4% B - 5-15% C - 25% D - 20-30% E - 30-40%
b)
Retained placenta occurs in 5-15% of dairy cattle. Very common, about 1 in 10 callings. Normally, the placenta is expelled in 3-8 hours. If it’s still there 12-24 hours after calving, it’s retained. Typically, retained placentas are dispelled spentaneously after 4-10 days as the caruncles necroses. An owner may insist you pull it out. manual removal is usually not helpful-shout only be done if placenta comes out with GENTLE traction. Manual removal is contraindicated if cow has signs of septicaemia- removal may cause a septic metritis, peritonitis.
What are ongoing losses in fluid therapy?
A - Urine output
B - Fluids given minus extracellular volume estimate
C - Fluid lost during panting
D - Vomit and diarrhea
E - Percent dehydration multiplied by body weight
D)
Ongoing losses are typically vomiting, diarrhea or other losses into a third compartment (i.e. pleural or abdomen cavity, subcutaneous space). These are sometimes called contemporary losses. A classic example of a disease with significant ongoing losses is a puppy with parvovirus who has both diarrhea ad vomiting or a horse with acute colitis. Sensible losses are easily measured, like the fluids the animal loses by urination. Insensible losses are the fluids an animal loses that are hard to measure, through breathing and via the skin. In humans and animals that sweat (like horses), sweating is part of insensible losses. Remember that all three types of loss must be accounted for (or at least estimated) when calculating fluids needed to rehydrate a dehydrated animal.
Retained placenta and metritis can predispose to which one of the following secondary conditions in horses?
A - Laminitis B - Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome C - Contagious equine metritis D - Cystic endometriosis E - Colic
a)
In horses, retained placenta and septic metritis can cause acute laminitis. Other causes of equine laminitis include: gain overload, overeating lush spring grasses, insulin dysregulation, colic, endotexemia, exposure to black walnut (Juglans migra) shavings, over-exercice on hard surfaces, lameness on one limb requiring overdependency on opposite leg, which then develops laminitis
A large male guinea pig from a group of four is presented with swollen and scabby hind feet from which Staphylococcus aureus is cultured.
Which one of the following recommendations is the most appropriate choice?
A - Isolate affected animal, treat with oral amoxicillin
B - Improve sanitation, install smooth-floored enclosure
C - Cull affected animal, increase ventilation of environment for remaining animals
D - Tetracycline-medicated water for all animals
E - Debridement and topical 1% butenafine cream
b)
The preferred answer is to improve sanitation and install a smooth-floored enclosure. Bumblefoot (pododermatitis) in guinea pig usually occurs secondary to poor sanitation, obesity and wire cage floors or rough bedding. If detected early, switch to smooth-bottom flooring, keep the enclosure clean, and change to a softer bedding. Chlorexidine soaks and debridement can help the feet. Prognosis is guarded. Avoid penicillins in guinea pigs.
A five-year old lactating Holstein dairy cow is being evaluated for a two-month history of watery diarrhea, weight loss, and decline in milk production.
On examination, the cow is bright, alert and responsive, but unthrifty and very thin, with a soft intermandibular swelling.
What is the most appropriate management of this herd?
A - Cull positives, ensure 4 L. colostrum uptake for calves
B - Quarantine herd, treat until herd tests negative
C - Test herd, treat positive animals, add coccidiostat to ration
D - Test herd, cull positives, remove calves from dam at birth
E - Test herd, treat positive animals, test and treat replacements
d)
Test herd, cull positives, remove claves from dam at birth
This is likely to be Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis (john’s disease). NO Rx: test-and-cull programs offer best chance of attaining a Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis-free herd. Calves, kids, or lambs should be birthed in manure-free areas. Fro dairy cattle, calves should be removed from dam immediately after birth, bottle-fed pasteurized colostrum or colostrum from test-negative dams. They should be segregated as much as possible from adult cows and their manure until more than one year old. Must also remove calves at birth from the dam to prevent. REPORTABLE in many states
A female show dog is approaching estrus and the owner has consulted you about planning a breeding for this dog.
She is aware of the signs of proestrus and plans to contact you when those are apparent in her dog.
In addition to vaginal cytology, which one of the following will be the most useful to you in planning the timing of breeding?
A - Vaginoscopy
B - Determination of serum estrogen levels
C - Timed administration of luteinizing hormone
D - Serial progesterone testing
E - Ovarian ultrasonography
d)
Serial progesterone testing is the most commonly used hormonal assay method for estimation of the approximate ovulation day in bitches. Progesterone levels are typically measured every two or three days once significant cornification is seen in the vaginal cytology of a prostrés bitch.Baseline progesterone is 0 to 1 ng/mL. About 48 hours prior to ovulation, a rise in progesterone (greater than 2 ng/ml) is seen, corresponding with the luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, which is the actual stimulus for ovulation. The progesterone level increases to 4-10ng/ml (or in some reports up to 15 ng/ml) on ovulation day. For natural breeding or insemination with fresh or chilled semen, dogs are usually bred at least twice, typically on days 2 and 4 after the estimated ovulation date. Serial daily measurement of serum LH is also a recognized method of estimation of ovuation day in bitches and is in fact the most definitive diagnostic test available. However, LH testing is hampered by expense, necessity for daily testing, and problems with availability of tests. Administration of exogenous LH has not been shown to be safe and effective in inducing estrus in dogs. While vaginoscopy is a useful adjunct in breeding management, progesterone measurement is a more accurate method. Estrogen measurement is of little value for estimation of ovulation day because peak levels vary from dog to dog and do not necessarily correlate with the fertile period. Ovarian ultrasonography is not commonly used in clinical practice in dogs.
For the last 10 years, your state has had a mandatory vaccination program against “pedunculated giblet disease” in fur-bearing turtles and the prevalence of this terrible disease has decreased markedly.
How does this decrease in prevalence affect the predictive value positive (PVP) of the best serologic test for pedunculated giblet disease?
A - PVP depends on the number tested, not prevalence
B - PVP is affected by specificity, not prevalence
C - PVP increases as prevalence decreases
D - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases
E - PVP stays the same as prevalence decreases
d)
Don’t think too hard on this: As prevalence of a disease goes down, PVP of your serologic test also goes down. That is, as your disease becomes more and more rare, the predictive value of your same old test gets worse. That is all you need to know. Read more only if you want to see the math (but you don’t need it).
Lets say prevalence of a pedunculate giblet disease is 30% in 1000 turtles (that’s 300 infected, 700 disease-free, then). A test with 90% sensitivity would correctly Dx 270 (cell “a”) with the disease (true pos) and correctly say 30 were negative (cell “c”). A test with 90% specificity would correctly would correctly Dx 630 (cell “d”) as disease-free (true negs) and correctly say 70 were positive (cell “b”): PVP=a/(a+b)=210/(270+70)=79%.
Acquired equine motor neuron disease is a disease characterized by weight loss, paresis with trembling, preference for lying down, and decreased activity.
Which one of the following choices is associated with this disease?
A - Thiamine deficiency B - Vitamin E deficiency C - Lead toxicosis D - Organophosphate toxicosis E - Rickettsial infection
b)
Vitamin E deficiency. Acquired equine motor neurone disease is uncommon today due to horse owner awareness. When it occurs, it is usually seen in older adult horses. Owners may say that the horse can “walk better than it can stand” when a horse has acquired equine motor neurone disease. The horse will stand still trembling in a tucked up stance, but it will walk well (but in short strides). Sometimes the horse has an “elephant on a ball” stance.
A four-year-old Rat Terrier is presented with a three day history of progressive stumbling and falling.
Physical exam reveals a right head tilt, left sided hypermetria, generalized ataxia and vertical nystagmus.
Which one of the following choices is at the top of the differential list?
A - Central pontine myelinolysis B - Fibrocartilagenous embolism C - Ascending and descending myelomalacia D - Granulomatous meningoencephalitis E - Amyotrophic lateralizing sclerosis
d)
granulomatous meningoencephalitis. The lesion in this case localizes to the left cerebellum causing the left hypermetria and a right paradoxical head tilt. Granulomatous meningoencephalitis often affects this area. Another top differential would be a cerebellar neoplasm.
In September, a 15-year-old Quarterhorse mare is presented with a five-day history of left head tilt, facial paralysis, depression, and stumbling.
The horse is ataxic and knuckles on both forelegs, worse on the left.
There is muscle atrophy of the left pectorals and right hindquarters and strips of localized spontaneous sweating over the left trunk.
A serum:CSF ratio is consistent with a diagnosis of Sarcocystis neurona.
What prognosis is given to the owner if she elects to treat the horse?
A - Only 25% of treated horses improve in their neurologic state
B - 50% of treated horses recover completely
C - Prognosis is good if treated with doxycycline
D - At least 60% of treated horses improve
E - Prognosis is grave
d)
At least 60% of treated horses improve. The prognosis is guarded to fair for treatment of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM). Less than 25% recover completely, but at least 60% of treated horses improve. affected animals typically improve by 1-2 ataxia grades (on the mayhem ataxia scale of 1-5). The earlier treatment is started, the better the outcome. 10-20% of horses relapse within 2 years of initial diagnosis.
Which one of the following organisms transmits the causative agent of blackhead disease in turkeys?
A - Heterakis gallinarum B - Ascardia galli C - Capillaria spp D - Eimeria spp E - Raillietina spp
a)
The cecal nematode Heterakis gallinarum transmits Histomona meleagridis (a protozoan), the causative agent of blackhead disease. Clinical signs of histomoniasis include listlessness, droopy wings, unkempt feathers, yellow droppings. Clinical signs of Ascardia galli infection include diarrhea, anemia, and decreased egg production. Birds infected with Capillaria or Eimeria have hemorrhagic enteritis. Clinical signs of Raillietina (tapeworm) infection range from none to enteritis.
In which one of the following cattle breeds is syndactyly most commonly inherited?
A - Brown Swiss B - Angus C - Hereford D - Holstein-Friesian E - Simmental
d)
Holstein-Friesian cattle inherit syndactyly, or “mule foot”, a simple autosomal recessive trait, more often than other breeds. Syndactyly is the partial or complete fusion of the digits of one or more feet. Forefeet are affected most often. Affected animal walk slowly, usually with a high-stepping gait. They may also be more prone to hyperthermia than normal cows.
Which one of the following choices is a cardinal and early sign of toxicoinfectious botulism in a foal?
A - When startled, affected foals fall and exhibit opisthotonos
B - Milk dribbles from mouth and nose; foal cannot retract tongue
C - Sawhorse stance, trismus, bilaterally prolapsed nictitans (3rd eyelid)
D - Frequent chewing motions, hypersalivation, vocalizing
E - Hemorrhagic enterocolitis with headpressing
b)
Dribbling milk from the nose and mouth with a weak, non retractable tongue is a cardinal and early sign of toxicoinfectious botulism (shaker foal syndrome). In foals most often occurs due the bacteria entering via a moist umbilicus. Affected foals demonstrate signs of progressive symmetric motor paralysis, including stilted gait, muscular tremors, and frequent recumbency. Mortality is higher than 90%; may find foal dead or disease can progress over a week. Most often seen in foals 1-2 months of age.
Which one of the following would be the best way to prevent a vibriosis abortion storm in ewes?
A - Vaccination program B - Separate lambs from ewes and bottle-feed colostrum-replacer C - Cull affected ewes D - Twice yearly ivermectin E - Chloramphenicol in the water
a)
Vaccination program. Ewes in flocks with vibriosis-associated abortion should be vaccinated annually 2 weeks prior to breeding.If it’s the ewe’s first vaccine, give a booster mid-pregnancy. Vibriosis (Campylobacter fetus fetus, C. jejuni jejuni, and C. lari) is associated with late-term abortion or stillbirths; fetus usually autolyzed. It is orally transmitted. Outbreaks tend to occur ever 4-5 years. dx- dark field or fluorescent antibody of placental tissue: uterine discharge; fetal abomasa contents, liver, or lungs. Long acting oxytetracycline are effective against some C. jejuni and C. fetus fetus, but there us increasing resistance in US sheep operations. Daily dihydrostreptomycin or penicillin can also be used but is more labor intensive. Strict hygiene is critical in stopping an outbreak. Chloranphenicol is prohibited in food animals. C.jejuni is zoonotic.
A cow is presented on emergency with urea/non-protein nitrogen toxicity.
What is the treatment of choice?
A - Rumenotomy
B - Relieve bloat, drench with 2-8 liters sodium bicarbonate
C - IV Fluids with MgSO4, Na thiosulfate PO
D - Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar,3-10 gallons cold water
E - Atropine, Protopam chloride IV q 4-6 hours
d)
Treat urea/non-protein nitrogen (NPN) toxicity with a luminal infusion 2-8 liters 5% acetic acid (vinegar) and 3-10 gallons of cold water. The vinegar decreases luminal pH which slows absorption of un-ionized ammonia. Repeat Q 6 hours up to 48 hours. Best results if animal is still ambulatory. It is often impossible to treat these cases before they die because of rapid progression to death. If possible, Rx with IV fluids. If necessary, relieve bloat. Urea/NPN toxicity is related to ammoniated feed toxicity which causes so-called “bovine bonkers”. Manage ammoniated feed toxicity by removing the ammoniated feed and treating severe cases with anticonvulsants like diazepam.
Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used?
A - Rare disease, Early diagnosis improves prognosis
B - Lethal disease, Highly prevalent disease
C - Treatment does not affect prognosis, Non-infectious diseases
D - Common disease, infectious diseases
E - Zoonoses, untreatable diseases
a)
You need a very sensitive test if: disease is rare (e.g.:BSE), early Dx improves prognosis (e.g.: HIV in people), the disease is highly lethal or consequences of missing a case are severe (e.g.: rabies, brucellosis, BSE, screw-worm, FMD, EIA).
Remember that a highly sensitive test will have very false negatives. That means if a test is highly sensitive, you can trust a negative test.
A commercial turkey operation experiences an outbreak of disease in 40% of its 12-16 week old birds. Typically affected birds show only depression, then death.
Some animals appear weak, recumbent with one leg forward and one leg back.
On necropsy, diffuse or nodular lymphoid tumors are visible in various organs, particularly the liver, and spleen. Two affected birds have distorted pupils.
What is the diagnosis?
A - Viral hepatitis of turkeys B - Newcastle disease C - Marek's disease D - Infectious bursal disease E - Histomoniasis
c)
Yes, turkeys can get Marek’s disease. A transient paralysis with one leg forward, one leg back is a classic sign of Marek’s-just don’t expect to see it in all birds. Typically affected birds show only depression, then death. You may see diffuse or nodular lymphoid tutors are visible in various organs, particularly the liver, spleen and other organs. Lymphoid infiltrates can cause distortion of the pupil and enlargement of feather follicles (“skin leukosis”=condemnation of carcasss).
An unweaned two-month old calf is presented for necropsy.
The calf collapsed and suddenly died after she escaped and was chased around the back pasture for 45 minutes by her owner.
Among other things, white myocardial and endocardial streaking in the left ventricle of this calf’s heart are evident.
What advice should be given the farmer?
A - Put all the calves off ionophore-containing feed
B - Start the other calves on Ceftiofur (Naxcel®)
C - Treat the other calves with vitamin E/Selenium
D - Check the mother for bovine leukosis by AGID
E - Search the calf barn for sources of lead
c)
Treat the other calves with vitamin E/selenium.
Think of white muscle disease when you see sudden death and endocardial plaques in a young calf, lamb or kid with a history of recent vigorous exercise. Typically seen in young, fast growing animals (i.e.: calves 2 weeks-6 months). Clinical signs may include dyspnea (due to myocardial disease), stiff gait, arched back, weakness, recumbent but BAR (bright, alert, responsive). Sudden death may resemble enterotoxemia, should see acute bloody diarrhea, convulsions, opisthotonos in first days of life with enterotoxemia.
Which of the following intravenous solutions are hypotonic?
A - 0.45% Saline, 5% dextrose B - Lactated ringers solution, Normosol-R® C - Hetastarch, Vetstarch D - Plasmalyte 148, Normosol-M® E - 5% Dextrose in 0.9% saline
a)
0.45% and 5% dextrose are hypotonic fluids. The osmolality of half-strength or 0.45% saline is 155, dextrose is 252 milliosmoles/L (and the dextrose is quickly metabolized, leaving free water). The calculated serum osmolality os usually 280-310 mOsm/kg in healthy animals. Hetastarch and Vetstarch are colloids composed of high molecular weight starches in saline, they are isotonic. Normosol-R and Lactated ringers are a balanced isotonic crystalloids, at 296 and 272 most/L, respectively. %% Dextrose in 0.9% saline is an isotonic crystalloid solution (dextrose is quickly metabolized, leaving 0.9% saline which is isotonic). Normosol-M is actually somewhat hypertonic at 364mosm/L. It is used only for maintenance. It has low levels of sodium and chloride and more potassium than replacement type fluids.
A 1-year-old female guinea pig is presented with round patches of scaly alopecia on the tip of the nose, ears, periocular areas and forehead. The affected areas do not appear to be pruritic.
Skin scrapings from the periphery of lesions and associated broken hairs demonstrate hyphae and arthrospores on direct microscopic examination.
Which choice is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Cheyletiellosis B - Dermatophytosis C - Demodicosis D - Trombiculosis E - Notoedric mange
b)
This is a typical presentation of ringworm (trichophyton mentagrophytes var mentagrophytes). As with most species ringworm in immunocompetent animals is usually self-limiting with good husbandry and sanitation. Commun: up to 15% of clinically normal guinea pigs harbour T. mentagophytes. Young animal are more susceptible. Overcrowding, poor sanitation and other stressors predispose. Treatment (systemic antifungals, +/- topical shampoos) will speed resolution of infection and minimize chances of infecting other animal or people, but it is somewhat labor intensive and long-term (4-8 weeks). Systemic Rx: itraconazole (10 mg/kg/day, PO) r terbinafine (30-40mg/kg/day, PO) for 4-8 week. If using a topical Rx: Enilconazole (0,2% at a dilution of 1:70) or miconazole shampoo (+/- chlorhexidine), once or twice/week. Decontaminating the environment every 14 days is also important for control: can use enilconazole (0.2%) or concentrated chlorine laundry bleach (1:10) solutions.
A newborn foal is examined two hours after birth.
The foal has a heart rate of 100 bpm [N=100-120], and a continuous murmur loudest on the left side.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation for these findings?
A - Incipient septicemia B - Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy C - Foal dysmaturity D - Normal in a neonatal foal E - Ventricular septal defect
d)
These findings are normal in a neonatal foal. The heart rate ad a finding of a continuous murmur on the left side (due to slight opening of the ductus arterioles, which usually closes within 4-5 days) ar normal in newborn foals. Persistent patent ductus arterioles is rare in horses.
Fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones in horses are often associated with damage to which structure?
A - Suspensory ligament B - Superior check ligament C - Deep digital flexor tendon D - Superficial digital flexor tendon E - Impar ligament
a)
The suspensory ligament is most likely to be damaged with fracture of the proximal sesamoids due to its insertion onto these bones. Proximal sesamoid fractures are relatively common, caused by overextension. The prognosis for return to soundness is often predicated on the extent of the damage to the suspensory apparatus problems are the number one cause of racetrack deaths.
A stray dog is presented after being hit by a car.
The dog has hypotonic forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hinds.
All four limbs have proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss-signs are worse in the forelimbs.
Where is the lesion?
A - Cranial cervical: C1-C5 B - Cannot say without cutaneous trunci reflex results C - Lumbosacral L4-S3 D - Thoracolumbar T3-L3 E - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
e)
Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
Weak, hypotonic (lower motor neurone-LMN) forelimbs and spastic paresis (upper motor neuron-UMN) hindlimb are signs of a cervicothoracic (C6-T2) lesion. May see worse signs in fores than hinds.
Note: This is the opposite presentation as Schiff-sherrington syndrome i.e.: severe acute spinal cord trauma in the region of T3-L3, where in lateral recumbency, the thoracic limbs are rigid and extended and the pelvic limbs appear flaccid in comparison. However, pelvic limb reflexes are normal to increased, as would be expected with an upper motor neurone lesion. Can localize T3-L3 lesions by checking cutaneous trunk reflex- the lesion is usually 1-2 vertebrae cranial to where the reflex disappears. With C1-C5 would expect UMN signs in all 4 limbs, usually worse un hinds. With a T3-L3, would see UMN hind limb signs and normal forelimbs.
Which one of the following choices is the mechanism of action of omeprazole?
A - Cyclooxygenase blocker B - Beta-adrenergic receptor agonist C - Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analog D - H2-receptor antagonist E - Proton pump inhibitor
e)
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases gastric acid secretion. Omeprazole inhibits the sodium/potassium proton pump at the luminal surface of parietal cells. Parietal cells normally secrete hydrogen ions into the stomach, a key component of acidic HCL. Other drugs that decrease gastric acid secretion include the H2-receptor antagonists cimetidine, ranitidine, and famotidine and a synthetic prostaglandin E1 analog called “misoprostol”. Carprofen, etodolac, deracoxib, meloxicam and firocoxib are all non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) that may cause gastric acid secretion.
What distinguishes lymphoma from leukemia?
A - Lymphoma is benign
B - Leukemia is derived only from myeloid cells
C - Leukemia is the precursor to lymphoma
D - Lymphoma occurs only in dogs
E - Lymphoma originates in solid tissues
e)
Lymphomia originates in solid tissues.
In general, lymphoma and leukaemia both arise from malignant transformation of lymphoid cells and are named based on tutor location. Lymphoma= solid organs and bone marrow. Leukemia= blood circulation and bone marrow.
Leukemias can also arise for myeloid cells (monocytes, basophils, eosiphils, megakaryocytic, erythrocytic precursor cells). Lymphoma is a tutor of lymphocytes that originates mainly in solid lymphoid tissues including the bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, and spleen. In addition, common extra nodal sites include the skin, eye, CNS, testis, and bone. Lymphomas are further distinguished according to their location (multi centric, cutaneous, CNS, GI). Leukemia is a malignant neoplastic disease of the WBC, RBC or platelet precursors with neoplastic cells in the bone marrow and peripheral blood. Leukemias are further distinguished according to their behaviour (acute or chronic) and their precursor cell (lymphoid or myeloid). So you will see names like Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) or Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML). In cats, FeLV infection is an important risk factor for both leukaemia and lymphoma. FIV infected cats have a higher than expected incidence of FeLV-negative lymphomas.
Fumonisin intoxication is primarily associated with which clinical signs?
A - Leukoencephalomalacia, hypertension B - Salivation, retching C - Estrogenism, vulvovaginitis D - Vomiting, immunosuppression E - Terminal necrosis of extremities, gangrene
a)
Leukoencephalomacia and hypertension.
Fumonisin is another Fusarium app. mycotoxin associated with moldy corn. In equids, look for CNS disease (equine leukoencephalomalacia). In pigs, see hypertension and pulmonary deem (porcine pulmonary edema- PPE). Think of reproductive dysfunction (estrogenism, vulvovaginitis) with zearalone, the only known mycotoxin with primarily estrogenic effects. Slaframine toxicoses causes profuse salivation, primarily in horses and occasionally in cattle. due to the fungus Rhizoctomia leguminocola (black patch disease) on red clover (Trifolium pratense) especially in wet, cool years. Trichothecenes are a group of related cytotoxic mycotoxins associated with many fungi. Think of vomitoxin (and vomiting) and also of immunosuppression. Refusal to eat contaminated feed is a typical sign, due to taste aversion. Macrocyclic trichothecen-related diseases have several specific names, including the best known, staphybotryotoxicosis.
A lion is presented with a tooth fracture of an upper left premolar, exposing the pulp.
Dental radiographs are normal and no periodontal disease is present.
Which one of the following choices is the best treatment?
A - Wait until the exposure fills in then re-radiograph
B - Extraction
C - Do nothing
D - Root canal therapy
E - Restore the tooth with light cured resin
d)
The fracture has left the pulp exposed, requiring endodontic treatment. Extraction is not necessary if the radiographs and the peridontal tissue are normal
A flock of chickens from a poultry operation is presented with an outbreak which began two days ago with the unexpected discovery of 20 dead birds.
Since then, illness has affected about 25% of the flock.
Birds are depressed and anorexic, many with mucoid discharge from the beak, ruffled feathers, diarrhea and increased respiratory rate.
Two birds have torticollis, and several chickens with swollen sternal bursae, wattles, joints, tendon sheaths, and footpads.
What is the clinical diagnosis?
A - Infectious bronchitis B - Fowl cholera C - Infectious coryza D - Infectious laryngotracheitis E - Newcastle disease
b)
This is fowl cholera, caused by Pasteurella multocida. Think sudden onset septicaemia. Signs vary greatly. In acute fowl cholera, dead birds are first indiction of disease. May see clinical picture described above. With chronic cases, see localized infections: sternal bursar, wattles, joints, tendon sheaths, footpads swell with fibrinosuppurative exudate. See torticolis if meninges, middle ear, cranial bones infected.
With infectious coryza think acute respiratory disease with nasal discharge, sneezing, and swelling under the eyes, cause by Avibacterium (haemophilus) paragallinarum.
With infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT) look for gasping, coughing, blood stained beaks, blood occluding trachea on necropsy. In most states ILT is reportable.
Infectious bronchitis is characterized by respiratory signs, decreased egg production and poor egg quality. Classically may see” wrinkled eggs” with infectious bronchitis.
Newcastle disease is characterized primarily by respiratory signs. Severe forms include depression, neurologic signs or diarrhea. Look fo GI hemorrhage with most severe form, viscerotrpic velogenis newcastle disease (VVND), which is reportable!
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate next step after a 3-year-old stray cat tests positive for Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) on a routine FIV ELISA screening test?
A - Recheck serum by FIV complement fixation test
B - Do a Rivalta test to rule out feline coronavirus-related interference
C - Treat with glucocorticoids
D - Perform for a Western blot FIV test
E - Euthanize
d)
Perform a Western blot FIV test.
The feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) ELISA is the standard screening test to determine if the cat has circulating antibody to FIV. A western blot antibody test for FIV is the standard confirmatory antibody test. However, the western blot also cannot differentiate antibodies caused by infection from those caused by vaccination. Note- new PCR tests show promise for confirming FIV infection regardless of vacicnation status, but are not yet the standard of clinical practice. PCR was not among the answer choices in this question to avoid confusion, and mimic the real test. On the real exam, you should not expect to see equivocal, controversial or cutting-edge new treatments or diagnostic tests.
A western blot test is especially important in areas with low FIV prevalence, where the risk of false positive FIV ELISA is higher.
Remember that cats vaccinated for FIV will test positive for FIV antibodies by FIV eLISA and western blot. Kittens up to 6 months of age born to seropositive queens can also be seropositive, even though they are not infected, due to persistence maternal antibodies. Seropositive kittens should be retested at grease than 6 months of age. This is different form feline leukemia virus (FeLV) testing because the FeLV eLISA and IFA measure antigen, not antibodies, so FeLV vaccination does not interfere with testing
You are helping a local goat dairy owner interpret the results of semi-annual ELISA serological testing of her herd for caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE).
One 2-month-old kid is CAE-positive by ELISA. Another 2-month-old kid is CAE-negative by ELISA.
How do you interpret these results?
A - Cannot tell if either kid is truly CAE positive or negative
B - CAE-positive kid has CAE, CAE-negative kid does not have CAE
C - Both kids are infected with CAE
D - CAE-positive kid has CAE, cannot say if CAE-negative kid is infected or not
E - Cannot say if CAE-positive kid has CAE, CAE-negative kid is not infected
a)
You cannot tell if either kid is truly CAE positive or negative yet. Should probably retest both after 90 days, or at next semiannual herd testing. A positive ELISA test for caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE) in a kid less than 90 days old may reflect maternal antibody or a false positive. A negative test in a kid less than 90 days old does not rule out CAE (though most kids infected at birth form colostrum develop a measurable antibody response by 4-10 weeks after infection). Note lots of qualifiers about CAE testing: A positive test in an adult goat implies infection, but does not confirm that clinical signs were caused by CAE virus. Negative tests do not rule out CAE infection. Definitive Dx is to find characteristic lesions by biopsy/necropsy. Virus isolation can substantiate Dx, but may not be practical on herd basis.
A 9-year-old German shepherd is presented with unchecked bleeding from a cut on the gums above the right canine tooth. The owner relates that the dog has lost weight and had an episode of collapse 3 days ago, but he recovered.
On physical exam, the gums are pale with petechiae and ecchymotic hemorrhages. There is tachycardia and a palpable cranial abdominal mass.
A coagulation profile shows the following:
Thrombocytes= 82,533 per microliter..[N=200,000-900,000]
Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT), increased
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), increased
Prothrombin time (PT), increased
Thrombin time (TT), increased
Fibrin degradation products (FDPs), increased
What disorder of coagulation best fits this pattern?
A - Von Willebrand's disease B - Idiopathic thrombocytopenia C - Hepatic insufficiency D - Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity E - Disseminated intravascular coagulation
e)
A lab pattern of low platelets, increased bleeding time and across the board increases in aPTT, PT, TT and FDP tests suggests disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). DIC is not a disease in its own right- it is a complex hemostatic defect characterized by enhanced coagulation and fibrinolysis, secondary to other diseases. Firbinolysis and depletion of clotting factors leads to hemorrhage. Many, many diseases, all of them bad, can precipitate DIC. This case presentation (pale, old German shepherd with Hx of collapse, bleeding and an abdominal mass) suggests hemangiosarcoma.
Remember you H disease associated with DIC: heartworm, heart failure, hemolytic anemia, hemangiosarcoma, hemorrhagic gastroenteritis, hepatic disease, especially hepatic lipidosis in cats.
Gastrci dilatation-volvulus, mammary gland carcinoma and pancreatitis can also lead to DIC.
Roughly 10% of the dry sows in a herd of pigs have poor appetite, fever, and are coughing.
There have been several late-term abortions and an increase in returns post-service.
Some of the farrowing sows have poor appetite and thirst.
Several have mastitis and/or agalactia and are farrowing 23 days early.
Some piglets born alive have diarrhea, and some in the litter were born dead and mummified.
Theres been more respiratory disease in the piglets recently and the farmer has heard a funny thumping noise when the most severely affected piglets breath.
The farmer noticed that several of the sows have transiently had blue ears.
Based on the presumptive diagnosis, if this disease becomes endemic in the herd, which of the following is a likely sequela?
A - Necrotic ear syndrome in piglets
B - Enzootic pneumonia in grower/finisher units
C - Chronic diarrhea in breeding sows
D - Neurologic syndromes in breeding boars
E - Diamond-shaped, erythematous skin lesions in most pigs
b)
Enzootic pneumonia in grower/finisher units is a likely sequela of porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS). This history ans clinical presentation are consistent wit PRRS. It is common for the grower/finisher units to have increased severity of enzootic pneumonia once the infection has spread to all parts of the herd. PRRS is caused by a highly contagious arterivirus that is spread via fomites, aerosolization, insects, and silent shedders. There are two typical phases. First, reproductive failures as described in this herd and second, post weaning respiratory diseases. The initial outbreak lasts about 1-4 months, but the disease can become chronic and endemic. PRRS is the most economically significant disease affecting US swine production today. Dx: virus detection and serology on oral fluid samples. Rx: none, prevention is key. Know the status of replacement gilts and boars, isolate incoming stock. Nursery depopulation has been used 12-18 months after the initial outbreak when only the growers/finishers are still affected. Other effective methods: whole herd depopulation-repopulation, test and removal, and herd closure.
This 11-year-old spayed female cat is presented with generalized weakness and is unable to lift her head.
The owners have noticed her at the water bowl more often and she seems to be urinating more in the last month.
Which blood chemistry test would be most likely to diagnose cause of her weakness?
A - Sodium B - Potassium C - Chloride D - Calcium E - Bicarbonate
b)
Potassium. This is a classic presentation of a cat with hypokalemic myopathy which is often due to potassium loss from renal disease. Other causes of generalized weakness and neck ventroflexion include polymyositis, organophosphate toxicity, myasthenia gravis
Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation.
Which choice is the most practical and effective control measure you can take next to prevent future cases?
A - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
B - High-dose penicillin for clinical cases
C - Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years
D - Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd
E - Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails
a)
Active immunization with Clostridium novae toxoid before the late summer is the most effective way to control and prevent infectious necrotic hepatitis (Black disease) in sheep. Because vaccinated sheep have long-term immunity after only one shot, only new introductions to the flock (lambs and sheep brought in from other areas) need to be vaccinated. Reducing the number of snails (intermediate hosts for fluke cercaria) with molluscicides or by fencing off wet areas may not be practical due to expense or amount of pasture lost. Likewise, use of flukicides is complicated but the need for careful timing and long withdrawal times for meat and milk.
A rabbit is presented with inflamed and chapped membranes of the anus and genital region.
The genital area is scalded and raw, with brownish crusts and purulent exudate.
What two conditions top the differential diagnosis list?
A - Tularemia, cystitis B - Treponematosis, hutch burn C - Myxomatosis, moist dermatitis D - Glomerulonephritis, coccidiosis E - Pasteurellosis, ulcerative pododermatitis
b)
Treponematosis (rabbit syphilis, vent disease) and hutch burn (urine burn) resemble each other and are often confused.
Treponematosis (rabbit syphylis, vent disease) is a venereal disease of rabbits caused by Treponema paralysis cuniculi. Affects the genitalia, may affect eyes and nose.
Hutch burn is caused by wet and dirty floors, affecting the anus and genitalia.
Remember that caudal equine neuritis (polyneuritis equipment) in horses may present with utile scald on the thighs. Other signs include a weak tail, hypotonic anus, urine dribbling and focal retention. There may be a history of rubbing or chewing the the tail head.
A 4 month old calf from a small beef herd in Louisiana presents with a fracture of the right metatarsus.
He was normal last night.The owner found the calf this morning after rounding up the herd for deworming.
This is the 5th calf this season with fractured bones.
One had a vertebral fracture, two calves had humeral fractures, and one other had a cannon bone fracture.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely problem in this herd?
A - Low dietary copper B - High dietary phosphorus C - Hypovitaminosis D D - Low dietary protein E - High dietary calcium
a)
Low dietary copper levels causes bones of growing animals to be brittle because they do not develop the normal trabecular structure. Higher fractures rates are seen in Cu deficient than in Cu replete animal. Pathologic fractures are more common during periods of exertion, such as the morning round up. Rough handling exacerbates the number of fractures. Treatment off Cu deficiency includes copper glycerinate injections, and feeding of mineral mixes with Cu. Copper boluses can also be given. In areas with high levels of molybdenum (Mb) in the soil, Cu levels are often low. Mb interferes with absorption of Cu, hence Mb excess results in Cu deficiency. Pathologic fractures can be seen with hypovitaminoses D growing cattle, but this is unlikely in beef on pasture in the southern US. Calcium deficient calves may also develop a similar syndrome of pathologic fractures.
A middle-aged female spayed dachshund presented with polydipsia and polyuria but otherwise healthy with no fever. Examination reveals a distended abdomen with thin skin and alopecia.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely suspected diagnosis?
A - Hepatic insufficiency B - Stump pyometra C - Hyperadrenocorticism D - Urinary tract infection E - Hydronephrosis
c) abdominal distension (potbelly), polyuria, polydipsia (PU-PD) and cuteness atrophy are common signs of hyperadrenocorticism. About 85% of hyperadrenocorticism cases are pituitary dependent. Stump promettra can also cause PU-PD, but the dog usually is ill and does not have the cutaneous atrophy.
Damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve is associated with “roaring” in horses.
The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch off of which cranial nerve?
A - Glossopharyngeal (CN 9) B - Facial (CN 7) C - Trigeminal (CN 5) D - Hypoglossal (CN 12) E - Vagus (CN 10)
e)
Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve ( a branch of the vagus (CN 10)) causes laryngeal hemiplegia- a paralysis of the abductor muscle (dorsal cricoarytenoid muscle) controlling the glottic cleft in the larynx. This allows the vocal fold (usually left side) to evert into the lumen of the larynx, obstructing airflow, leading to a roaring sound, and most importantly, slowing the horse
A pig farm reports a problem in weaning-age piglets.
The affected piglets are depressed and anorexic with slight fevers.
A few of the more severely-affected piglets have an exudative epidermitis affecting the face, limbs, and ventral abdomen.
What should be recommended?
A - High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets
B - Cull affected animals
C - Vaccinate herd with modified live vaccine
D - Report to state vet
E - Topical coumaphos/disinfectant combination dip
a)
Use high-dose antibiotics for sick piglets. This is exudative dermatitis (“greasy pig disease”), caused by Staph hyicus. Responds to most antibiotics (pen, amoxicillin, TMS, erythromycin, lincomycin, tyrosine, Ans, ceps) at high dose 7-10 days, plus topical antiseptic. In severe outbreaks, antibiotics for contact pigs recommended for a few ays. Disinfection, good environnemental hygiene important. In chronically affected herds, autogenous bacteria’s have been used with some success to decrease incidence.
Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces coating their hindquarters.
Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over the left flank when a calf is drinking.
Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 [N=5.9-6.2]
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
A - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline
B - Wean affected calves; Shift to bottle-feeding for well calves
C - Vitamin E/Selenium injections, plus dietary supplements
D - Cull affected calves
E - Inoculate rumen fluid from a healthy cow into calf by stomach tube
a)
Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline
This is the clinical picture of a luminal drinker calf with chronic indigestion from milk deposited directly into the rumen. Treat by removing the fermented material and flushing the rumen with saline. Attempt to induce gastric/reticular groove closure during feeding by inducing vigorous sucking activity with a finger before feeding milk. If calves relapse, consider weaning. The problem occurs due to failure of the gastric groove reflex which normally shunts milk directly into the abomasum (bypassing the rumen). Most often seen in bucket fed claves who gulp their milk.
A middle-aged, depressed, coughing, exercise-intolerant Doberman pinscher is presented.
The dog has a rapid and irregular heart rate.
What disease is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
A - Dilated cardiomyopathy B - Mitral regurgitation C - Chronic bronchitis D - Wolf Parkinson White syndrome E - Tricuspid insufficiency
a)
This is a classic presentation for dilated cardiomyopathy. Prognosis is guarded- with Rx may live for 6 months to 2 years. Px especially poor for dobermans. Rx varies, but foundation includes the “3 D’s” – Diet (low salt), vasoDilatation (enalapril), Diuretics (furosemide), +/- Digoxin (+ionotrope to strengthen contraction). Note that dobermans can be sensitive to digitalis, so may need lower doses. So, remember your “DCM D’s”: depressed dilated dogies need diet, dilators, diuretics (and maybe digoxin, but overdose is doom).
The parents of a ten-year-old boy present his pet box turtle with a three-week history of lethargy and anorexia.
On physical exam, there is bilateral blepharedema (swollen eyes), as well as ocular and nasal discharge.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Inclusion body disease B - Septicemic cutaneous ulcerative disease (SCUD) C - Vitamin A deficiency D - Herpesvirus E - West Nile virus (WNV)
c)
This is the clinical picture of vitamin A deficiency, a problem primarily seen in Turtles, but also in alligators and other reptiles. Look for swollen eyes, discharge from nose/mouth/eyes and ear infections. Vitamin A deficiency can pridespose to a bacterial pneumonia. Like other key reptile issues (metabolic bone disease for example), the problem is basically nutritional and preventable.
Inclusion body disease is a viral problem of boa constrictors and some pythons. Septicemic cutaneous ulcerative disease (SCUD) is a shell disease (Citrobacter freundii). Look for pitted shells.
Herpesvirus causes oral mucosa necrosis, anorexia, regurgitation, oral, ocular discharge, but discharge from the nose and swollen eyes should put vitamin A deficiency, not herpes, at the top of your DDX.
West nile virus (WNV) has been diagnosed in farmed alligators with multi organ necrosis, heterophilic granulomas, heterophilic perivasculitis, and lymphoplasmacytic mengiongoencephalitis. Very high WNV viremia tigers have been reported in different reptiles, suggesting that they may play a role as amplification hosts for the virus.
Zoonotic note: remember salmonella when you think of hildren with pet turtles or other pet reptiles
In September, a 15-year-old Quarterhorse mare is presented with a five-day history of left head tilt, facial paralysis, depression, and stumbling.
The horse is ataxic and knuckles on both forelegs, worse on the left.
There is muscle atrophy of the left pectorals and right hindquarters and strips of localized spontaneous sweating over the left trunk.
A serum:CSF ratio is consistent with a diagnosis of Sarcocystis neurona.
What prognosis is given to the owner if she elects to treat the horse?
A - Only 25% of treated horses improve in their neurologic state
B - 50% of treated horses recover completely
C - Prognosis is good if treated with doxycycline
D - At least 60% of treated horses improve
E - Prognosis is grave
d)
At least 60% of treated horses improve. The prognosis is guarded to faire for treatment of equine protozoal myelencephalitis. Less than 25% recover completely, but at least 60% of treated horses improve. Affected animal typically improve by 1-2 ataxia grades (on the mayhem ataxia scale of 1-5). The earlier treatment is started, the better the outcome. !–20% of horses relapse within 2 years of initial diagnosis.
What condition is associated with rectal stricture in pigs?
A - Rotavirus B - Intestinal spirochetosis C - Salmonella typhimurium D - Intussusception E - Coccidiosis
c)
Salmonella typhimurium os associated with rectal stricture in growing pigs. Caused by an ulcerativeproctitis that damages rectal tissue. Can see large numbers of cases. Can see sporadic rectal strictures as a sequelae to rectal prolapse.
Intestinal spirochétoses is a post-weaning diarrhea seen in the absence of Brachyspira (serpulinaj) hyodusenteria (swine dysentery), but similar presentation to it. This syndrome is being recognized more frenquetly worldwide.
A ten-year-old male intact Doberman mix dog is presented with one testicle that is grossly enlarged and nonpainful and the other atrophied.
What condition(s) are expected to be seen in association with this presentation?
A - Benign prostatic hypertrophy, constipation B - Hypothyroidism C - Increased aggression, territoriality D - Feminization syndrome E - Penile hypertrophy, hirsutism
d) Feminization syndrome.
Nonpainful unilateral testicular selling in an old dog should make you think if neoplasia, especially an estrogen-secreting sertoli cell tumor, which can cause feminization syndrome. See gynécomastie, penile atrophy, pendulous prepuce, attraction of other males, blood dycrasias, +/- bone marrow depression (via high estrogen), bilateral alopecia. Remember that cryptorchidism increases risk of sertoli cell tumor. About 25%-29% of sertolis develop feminization syndrome and 70% of intra-abdominal testicular tutors, regardless of type, cause feminization syndrome. May see prostate hypertrophy with sertoli, but it is due to squamous metaplasia, not the classic (and common) benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). Hypothyrodoism and BPH are common older dog conditions, but not associated with unilateral testicular hypertrophy. Remember that sex hormones are also secreted but the zona reticulates of adrenal cortex and can see feminization or virwlism with excess secretion.
Which disease of rabbits is reportable?
A - Rabbit (Shope) fibroma virus B - Clostridium spiroforme enterotoxemia C - Encephalitozoonosis D - Treponematosis E - Francisella tularensis
e)
Tularemia is a disease primarily of wild rabbits caused but
Francisella tularensis. Upt to 90% of human tularaemia cases are linked to wild lagomorph exposure. Tularemia is a Category A bioterrorism agent. Reportable.
Treponematosis (rabbits syphilis, vent disease) is a venereal disease of rabbits caused but Treponema parlais cuniculiculture.
Encephalitozoonis is a protozoal disease caused by Encephalitozoon (Nosema) funiculi. Typically does not cause illness in rabbits, but is an emerging disease of immunosuppressed humans. Myxomatosis ( “big head”) is a fatal disease of domesticated rabbits caused by myxoma virus, characterized by mutinous skin lesions or “myxomas”. According to USDA APHIS, myxomatosis is also reportable.
